The year of 2019

1

Choice D is the best answer because the narrator has clear “scientific aspirations,” meaning that she really hopes to have a career in the sciences. In particular, she “thought [she] wanted to be a doctor” (line 87). “Personal insecurities” are “worries.” The entire passage shows that the narrator is worried about how the email from her teacher might interfere with her dream of working in science. When the email arrives, she “scanned my mind for what this could be about” (line 1) but does not come up with any positive reason. She is worried that she has made a mistake, such as leaving a cabinet unlocked or asking too many questions (lines 2-8, “had I…Later”). The narrator worries that even her reply email is not adequate, “I wrote…class” (lines 20-24). In class, it is clear that her fears are related to losing the chance to continue with her science studies, her actions “felt like a goodbye” (line 27). Therefore, the “tension” or “stress” in the passage relates to how the narrator wants to be a doctor and how she worries that she will not be allowed to follow that dream.

Choice A is incorrect because, while the narrator has “medical ambitions” because she wants to be a doctor, there is no evidence that she is interested in “artistic pursuits” or “creative activities related to art.” She claims that the biology class is “my favorite class this semester” (lines 80-81), so there is no indication that she is torn between career choices. Choice B is incorrect because “romantic ideals” refer to beautiful but unattainable goals. By contrast, “practical considerations” refers to realistic and important things that need to be assessed when making a decision. Although the narrator doubts her abilities, there is no evidence that her hope of becoming a doctor is unrealistic. Choice C is incorrect because the narrator is taking a biology class in pursuit of her goal of becoming a doctor. Therefore, her goal or “dream” from her “childhood” or “youth” is very consistent with an “adult responsibility” or “career choice” of being a doctor. There is no “tension” or “conflict.”

2

Choice B is the best answer because lines 2-5 list questions about details that the narrator may have forgotten to do correctly. These concerns are locking a supply cabinet (line 2, “had I…locked”) or making a mistake while “centrifuging” or “separating” samples (lines 2-5, Had I open…centrifuged”). These questions imply that the narrator is expected to “pay attention to” or “carefully perform” the details of the procedures.

Choice A is incorrect because, though it shows that the narrator is concerned, it does not explain why. Therefore, it does not show that she needs to “pay attention to” or “carefully notice or perform” details in class. Choice C is incorrect because it refers to the narrator’s feeling that she is stupid or lacks knowledge. It does not show that she is supposed to pay attention to details. Choice D is incorrect because it says that the narrator was careful but does not explain what the expectations are.

3

Choice A is the best answer because the words are used to describe the scientific equipment, “pipettes,” “test tube racks,” and “autoclave.” These things are usually referred to in straightforward terms. However, the careful choice of evocative words makes the equipment seem to have special qualities. “Elegant” expresses beauty. “Snug” personifies the test tubes so that they seem caring or comforting. “Magical” makes the autoclave’s task seem unique and magnificent. The words evoke “admiration” or “respect” for the common equipment.

Choice B is incorrect because the words refer to the equipment rather than to the narrator’s “determination” or “resolve” to succeed. If anything, the passage indicates that the narrator is accepting of the fact that she will have to give up the career path, “The three hours of that week’s lab class felt like a goodbye” (Lines 27-28). Choice C is incorrect because the narrator is only attending classes; she is not yet pursuing “her chosen career.” Therefore, the words do not show that she is “satisfied” or “content” with a career. Choice D is incorrect because the words “emphasize” or “stress” her love of the equipment. Therefore, they stress her attraction for science. They do not show that she is interested in art at all.

4

Choice B is the best answer because when the narrator receives the email, she is worried that she did something that made Professor Kaufmann angry with her, such as leaving a closet unlocked (line 2). She is very careful composing her response so that it is grammatically correct, “I wrote her back, composing my e-mail in a word processing program first to make sure the green squiggly line of grammar impropriety didn’t show up under every clause” (line 20-23). The narrator even tries to maintain good posture when sitting next to Professor Kaufmann, “I tried to keep my back straight” (line 70). In lines 87-88, she wants to give the proper answer, “I thought I wanted to be a doctor, but that didn’t seem like the right answer.” These details all show that the narrator wants to do and say the right things when around Professor Kaufmann. The obvious inference is that the narrator does so because she wants Professor Kaufmann to “have a good opinion” or “think well” of her.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication that the narrator “sacrifices” or “gives up” any leisure time. Line 8 says that she takes notes marked “Things to Look Up Later,” but she could do that in her regular study time. Choice C is incorrect because “readily dismisses” means “is quick to ignore.” However, there is no indication that the narrator ignores other people at all. It does not say what reaction she has to people who “neglect” or “fail to do” important duties. Choice D is incorrect because there is no discussion of how the narrator “interacts” or “associates” with her “peers,” meaning “other students.” She could get along with them just fine.

5

Choice C is the best answer because lines 25-26 say that Professor Kaufmann’s email reply is, “That will be more than fine.” The word that the narrator uses to describe this reply is “cryptic” (line 25), which means “confusing.” The narrator is confused because the professor does not “clarify” or “explain” what she means. Therefore, the narrator is worried that she will be asked to quit biology class.

Choice A is incorrect because "uncharacteristic” means “not usual.” However, there is no indication about what style or word choice the professor usually uses. Therefore, the style is not what makes the message “cryptic.” Choice B is incorrect because the professor does not “admit” or “say” that a reply was not “expected.” The short reply, “That will be more than fine” (lines 25-26), indicates that she was waiting for a time to meet. Choice D is incorrect because the words in the reply are very neutral; they do not show any emotion at all. Therefore, they do not “reveal” or “show” a lack of respect for the narrator. If anything, they accept the narrator’s suggestion, showing at least a small level of tolerance.

6

Choice C is the best answer because in line 54, “good” refers to the “sign.” The narrator is concerned because the professor is writing in German about something “that meant nothing to me and which were in no way related to our class” (lines 55-56). Since “favorable” means “encouraging,” it fits the context that the narrator feels that the writing is a bad sign that will not lead to good luck. In line 59, “good” is used to describe the “minute” that the narrator had to wait while the professor finished. “Full” means “complete,” so it shows that the narrator sat for an entire minute rather than just a few seconds. The “good” in line 71 refers to “posture.” The narrator is trying to “to keep my back straight” (line 70), which is an example of proper posture. “Correct” fits this context because it means “proper.”

Choice A is incorrect because, while “fortunate” might fit the context, the “minute” in line 54 is not “acceptable” or “satisfactory.” It is too long to the narrator, who wanted to start the conversation right away. In addition, “dependable” means “reliable,” so does not describe proper posture. Choice B is incorrect because “proper” means “correct,” but the “sign” is not right or wrong. It is an omen that can be interpreted many ways. “Therapeutic” also does not fit the context of describing the posture because the narrator is not referring to “healing abilities;” she is referring to how it appears to others. Choice D is incorrect because “accurate” means “correct” or “precise,” so does not fit the context. She is not saying that the sign is “not accurate,” only that the sign is ominous. “Pure” refers to a clean, untainted state, so does not describe the length of a minute. Finally, “healthy” refers to how the posture affects the narrator, not to how it will appear to the professor.

7

Choice A is the best answer because “simultaneously” means “at the same time.” The narrator assumes that the professor is more capable because, as she watches the professor write, she wonders “if she had two brains” (line 61), meaning that she wonders how the professor was capable of doing two different things at the same time: did one of two brains control each task? The narrator’s next speculation, wondering “if there were a way I could split my own mind like that” (lines 61-62) show that she feels she does not have the same skill. In other words, Professor Kaufmann is more “capable of performing” or “able to do” more than one thing at the same time than the narrator is.

None of the other choices are supported by evidence from the passage. Choice B is incorrect because there is no clue about how the narrator helps others “master” or “learn” new skills. Therefore, it is impossible to determine whether she thinks the professor is more patient or not. Choices C and D are incorrect because the passage does not refer to any specific “discoveries” or “studies.” The passage only mentions basic equipment and procedures; it does not touch on how the characters react to research conclusions.

8

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the narrator thinks that Professor Kaufmann is more capable of performing “multiple” or “many” tasks “simultaneously” or “at the same time.” Choice C supports this claim because it shows that the narrator is amazed by the professor’s ability to do more than one task. She thinks that the ability is practically magical because it seems to require two brains. The quote also highlights that the professor’s ability is greater than the narrator’s because the narrator wishes she had the same ability, implying she is not now able to do more than one task.

Choices A and B are incorrect because they refer to covering emotions, not to the ability to do more than one task at the same time. They also not compare the professor’s abilities to the narrator’s. Choice D is incorrect because it only refers to performing one action, asking a question, rather than to performing “many” or “multiple” actions. There is no contrast between the professor’s and the narrator’s abilities.

9

Choice D is the best answer because lines 75-76 give the reason that the narrator stopped talking: “I figured then that I should stop talking lest I incriminate myself.” “Lest” means “in case.” “Incriminate” means “to make someone appear guilty of a crime." In other words, she did not want to appear guilty, so she stopped talking. This reason agrees with Choice D, which says that the narrator does not want to seem guilty of some “offense” or “wrong.”

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they do not describe the reason the narrative gives for stopping talking, “lest I incriminate myself” (lines 75-76). In Choice A, “extracurricular activities” refers to activities that are not part of the regular school schedule, such as after-school sports. It does not refer to appearing like she committed a crime. In Choice B, “inarticulate” refers to “not being able to express oneself clearly.” However, the narrator is not worried about saying the wrong thing in classroom conversations. She is worried about saying the wrong thing in the after-class meeting with her professor. Choice C does not relate to the reason that the narrator decided to stop talking. If anything, she is “overly attracted” or “too much interested” in scientific subjects, not to “nonscientific” ones.

10

Choice B is the best answer because the entire passage sets up the narrator’s fear of the discussion with the professor. She thinks that she did something wrong (lines 1-15, “I scanned…over again”), and is upset that the reply contains no more explanation about the content of the meeting; she finds the reply “cryptic” (line 25). She thinks that she will not be allowed to continue the class: “the three hours of that week’s lab class felt like a goodbye” (lines 27-28). The final paragraph completely changes the tone because, instead of making the complaint that the narrator is dreading, the professor invites her to participate in a special program. This shows that the narrator’s “apprehensions” or “fears” are “unfounded” or “not true.”

Choice A is incorrect because “underscore” means “strengthen” or “emphasize.” However, “kind” refers to being caring. The rest of the passage does not depict the professor as caring or approachable, so this trait is not being emphasized. Choice C is incorrect because there is no indication that the professor is “frustrated” or “upset” about anything. Paragraph 3 (lines 36-49, “I watched…broom again”) refers to a situation where the professor was frustrated, but that is an example. It does not say that the professor is now frustrated. Therefore, the final paragraph does not “downplay” or “make less intense” an emotion which is not occurring. Choice D is incorrect because “critical” means “disapproving.” However, the narrator is not disapproving of anything; she is afraid that the professor is disapproving.

11

Choice B is the best answer because “overcompensating” means “paying too much.” Franklin’s main purpose is to say that “in our proposed system we (should) not sow the seeds of contention, faction and tumult, by making our posts of honor places of profit” (lines 66-68). In other words, elected posts, or “posts of honor” should not be posts of “profit” or “too much money.” If they are, there will be “contention” or “disagreements” and “tumult” or “chaos.” Franklin’s reasoning is that “There are two Passions which have a powerful influence…the love of power and the love of money. Separately, each of these has great force in prompting men to action; but, when united in view of the same object, they have…the most violent effect” (lines 1-7).

Choice A is incorrect because Franklin is not just arguing for “democracy,” or “rule by the people.” Although he does not approve of monarchy, he feels that the proposal of a democracy will not work because it “may, in future times, end in a monarchy” (lines 64-65) if the leaders have both power and money. Therefore, he is speaking not just for democracy, but for democracy that has leaders who are not paid too much. Choice C is incorrect because “limitations to executive authority” refers to restricting the power of the leaders. However, Franklin does not discuss restricting the power, only the salaries, of officials. Choice D is incorrect because, while Franklin does describe “humanity’s propensity toward autocratic rule” or “human tendency to shift towards a single leader,” he does not “regret” or “feel sad” about that. Instead, he offers a possible solution: pay leaders less money.

12

Choice D is the best answer because “affairs” refers to the things belonging to “men” which are powerfully affected by two passions. The passions are listed in lines 2 and 3 as “ambition and avarice” or “desire for power and desire for money.” Choice D refers to “things that people do.” It fits the context of saying that the desire for power and money affects the things that people do.

None of the other choices fits the context of describing what ambition and avarice influence. Choice A refers to things that are predicted or hoped for. Choice B refers to standard methods of doing things. Choice C refers to disagreements.

13

Choice A is the best answer because “effect” refers to what happens when “the love of power and the love of money” (line 3) are “united in view of the same object” (lines 5-6). The “effect” or “result” is “violent.” Since “impact” refers to a “result,” it fits the context well.

Choice B refers to the way something looks; it does not describe how it changes or alters anything else. However, the “effect” does not just appear violent, it causes real damage. Choice C is incorrect because it refers to a benefit so is not used to describe something negative and “violent.” Choice D refers to the definition or significance of something. It refers to an interpretation rather than the result itself.

14

Choice B is the best answer because Franklin says, “the vast number of such places it is that renders the British Government so tempestuous” (lines 10-11). “Such places” is defined in the previous sentence as “a post of honor, that shall, at the same time, be a place of profit” (lines 7-8). Therefore, the “tempestuous” situation, meaning the “continuous unrest” or “ongoing trouble” is caused by people “competing for” or “trying to get” the “vast number” or “many” posts that have both honor and profit.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no discussion of a “loss of revenue” or “less money gained” from former colonies. Choices C and D are incorrect because Franklin does not say that the different branches or “local ruling councils” cause “tension” or “trouble.” Instead, it is the desire of people who want to win the positions with power and money.

15

Choice A is the best answer because “characterize” means “to describe.” The first sentence sets up the topic of the paragraph with a question, “and of what kind are the men that will strive for this profitable pre-eminence” (lines 17-18). Since “profitable pre-eminence” refers to “money and power,” the question asks who is trying to get money and power. The question is answered in detail in the following sentences. The type of people is not “the wise and moderate” (line 21), but rather “the bold and the violent” (line 23).

Choice B is incorrect because the paragraph does not show how “a nation’s most upstanding leaders,” or "the most fitting people to lead," are “corrupted” or “made worse” by money and power. Instead the paragraph says that the upstanding “men fittest for the trust” (lines 22-23) are not the ones who try to get posts of money and power. Choice C is incorrect because the trust of citizens is not discussed in the paragraph. It only says that the officials are “odious” (line 31) or “offensive” to the people. Choice D is incorrect because the paragraph does not explain the “route” or “method” used to gain power. It only explains what type of people try to gain power.

16

Choice D is the best answer because Franklin claims that the people attracted to government posts are “the bold and the violent, the men of strong passions and indefatigable activity in their selfish pursuits” (lines 23-24). Since “indefatigable” means “continuing endlessly without getting tired,” it aptly describes someone who is “relentlessly” or “in a harsh and unending way” determined to achieve a goal.

Choice A is incorrect because Franklin does not say that the people attracted to profitable positions are “shrewd” or “intelligent” about “judging” or “forming opinions about” their opponents. Choice B is incorrect because “advocates of law” refers to people who are honest about following the rules, but Franklin suggests that the people who want the positions are “bold and violent” (line 23) and follow “selfish pursuits” (line 25), which implies that they will put their own interests before the law. Choice C is incorrect because “adverse conditions” refers to “situations not promoting success.” There is no discussion about obstacles the people face on the way to a political post, though.

17

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that profitable positions in government are likely to attract individuals who are “relentlessly” or “untiringly” determined to achieve their goals. Choice C supports that claim because it says that the people attracted to the posts use “indefatigable activity” (line 24) or “not tiring or ending efforts” to reach their “selfish pursuits” (line 25) or “personal goals.”

Choice A is incorrect because it asks what kind of people try to get the profitable positions, but it does not answer the question. Therefore, it does not support the claim that the type of people is relentlessly determined to achieve their goals. Choice B is incorrect because it does not offer the qualities of people who seek profitable posts. Choice D is incorrect because it says the reaction of hiring unsuitable people to profitable posts but does not explain what those people are like.

18

Choice C is the best answer because “burdened with taxes” means “distressed by too many taxes.” “Enriched the governing power” refers to giving more money to the people in charge. In lines 48-52 Franklin says, “The more the people are discontented with the oppression of taxes, the greater need the prince has of money to…pay the troops that are to suppress all resistance.” In other words, he says that people are “discontented” or “upset” when they are “oppressed” or “burdened” with taxes. Franklin’s statement that the “prince” or “ruler” needs “to pay troops to suppress resistance” implies that the ruler needs to hire people to protect him from people who are “actively opposing” or “fighting against” him.

Choice A is incorrect because “rival” means “competitor,” but the passage does not mention conflicts between different rulers, only conflicts between a ruler and his subjects. Choice B is incorrect because there is no discussion about people being forced to fight in wars; there is therefore no discussion of levels of preparedness for wars, either. Choice D is incorrect because there is no question about the “authority” or “right” of the leader to rule. The discussion is about what happens when the leader gets paid too much.

19

Choice B is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that citizens have “actively opposed” or “fought against” the government in situations in which they were “burdened with” or “given too many” taxes that “enriched” or “increased the wealth of” the governing power. Choice B supports that claim because it says that if people are “oppressed” or “burdened” with taxes, the ruler needs to pay troops to “suppress resistance” or “stop people from fighting against” him. This shows that the people were upset enough by the taxes that the ruler needed to do something to stop them.

Choice A is incorrect because it refers to “struggles for them” that “divide the nation.” However, those struggles are described in the previous sentence as fighting over positions of power. Choice A therefore does not provide evidence about what people do when they have too many taxes. Choice C is incorrect because it describes only what a leader is inclined to do. It does not explain that citizens will fight against a ruler who taxes them too much. Choice D is incorrect because it says that people tend to prefer a monarchy. It does not say that people oppose one or say what they do if they have too many taxes.

20

Choice A is the best answer because Franklin says in lines 58-59 that “there is a natural inclination in mankind to kingly government,” meaning that there is a tendency to follow a monarch rather than a group of aristocrats. In lines 60-62, Franklin gives the reason: “It gives more of the appearance of equality among citizens; and that they like.” In other words, a “monarch” or “single leader” creates the “impression” or “appearance” of equality.

None of the other choices are supported by evidence from the passage. Choice B is incorrect because there is no discussion of the “impact” or “effect” of different types of ruler on the citizens they govern. Choice C is incorrect because there is no indication that aristocrats are the only source of conflict; the passage implies that a single leader with too much money also causes conflict. Choice D is incorrect because there is no discussion of the “familiarity” or “how well known” different forms of government are.

21

Choice C is the best answer because the first paragraph (lines 1-30, “there are…lifetime”) sets up the topic: on two islands there are lizards which show “evolutionary divergence in nature, over a timescale of decades: the sort of timescale that humans can observe within one lifetime” (lines 28-30). The second paragraph (lines 31-44, “and what…summer”) explains what some of the physical differences are between the lizards. The final paragraph (lines 45-82, “why would…very eyes”) summarizes why the physical differences are advantages for a population with a different, vegetarian diet. It also introduces some behavioral changes such as “population density increased, and the lizards ceased to defend territories” (lines 76-77) that also are associated with a different diet. The final sentence emphasizes the main point that the time involved for the evolution is short: “the only thing that is really exceptional about this whole story, and the reason I am telling it here, is that it all happened so extremely rapidly” (lines 79-81).

Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not refer to physical changes of lizards in general, only to lizard populations on two islands “called Pod Kopiste and Pod Mrcaru” (line 2). In addition, the changes discussed are not ones that occurred “throughout the years” but in a very small window of time, “a mere thirty-seven years” (lines 32-33). Finally, behavioral changes such as “population density increased, and the lizards ceased to defend territories” (lines 76-77) are also mentioned. Choice B is incorrect because the passage is not describing the “lizards’ environments” or “place where the lizards live.” Instead, it is focused on the changes in the lizards themselves. Choice D is incorrect because the results given are from one study that took place over a 37-year period on two islands. It does not discuss the results of two different studies.

22

Choice A is the best answer because the passage says that in “1971 a population of…Podarcis sicula…was present on Pod Kopiste but there were none on Pod Mrcaru” (lines 2-5), which indicates that the scientists “assumed the species was absent” or that “there were none” on Pod Mrcaru. The passage continues to say in lines 8-13 that “in 2008, another group of mainly Belgian scientists…found a flourishing population of lizards on Pod Mrcaru, which DNA analysis confirmed were indeed Podarcis sicula.” Therefore, Herrel most likely assumed that since the DNA showed that the lizards were P. sicula and there were no known P. sicula on the island before the five pairs were transported in 1971, these lizards had to be related.

Choice B is incorrect because the passage says that the lizards’ “outward appearance,” or “physical characteristics,” had “marked differences” (line 18). The scientists used DNA testing to confirm that the species was the same. Therefore, the similarities were not enough to assume that the species, let alone the population, were the same. Choice C is incorrect because there is no reference in the passage to establishing “family relationships” or specific relatives, only to establishing that the species was the same. Choice D is incorrect because there is no reference to any other lizard population on the island. Even if there are other lizards on Pod Mrcaru, they would not necessarily interbreed or change the P. sicula population.

23

Choice C is the best answer because “original” is an adjective that describes “five pairs that were transported” (line 14) and “ancestral island.” Therefore, “original” is referring to the beginning point or first lizards and the first place that they lived. Choice C means “beginning,” so fits the context well.

None of the other choices adequately establishes that “original” is referring to the first set of lizards and where they lived. Choices A and D mean “creative” and Choice B means “usual.”

24

Choice D is the best answer because “changes directly related to chewing and digesting plant matter” are changes that are associated with eating. Choice D identifies two main changes that are not associated with eating: population density and defending territories. Choice D therefore supports the conclusion that the lizards on Pod Mrcaru showed evolutionary changes other than ones that help chew and digest plants.

Choice A is incorrect because it refers only to the population on Pod Kopiste, so it does not support any claim related to Pod Mrcaru. Choice B is incorrect because it says that the changes in Pod Mrcaru lizards are associated with eating plant matter. It does not offer any evidence about changes unrelated to eating plants. Choice C is incorrect because it discusses teeth shape of mammals, so does not relate to lizards at all.

25

Choice D is the best answer because the assumption in lines 18-21 is that the Pod Kopiste lizards had not made evolutionary changes. A challenge to this assumption is that the Pod Kopiste lizards did actually evolve. However, the scientists could “justifiably” or “reasonably” argue that it does not matter if the Pod Kopiste lizards changed or not. Their point is that there were evolutionary changes that could be documented in a short period of time. If the original population evolved, whether the new population did or not, that would strengthen rather than weaken their theory. Therefore, the “specific evolution” or exact details of the changes in the Pod Kopiste lizards is “ultimately not relevant” or “basically not important” to the most important “implications” or “findings” of the study.

Choice A is incorrect because it does not matter to the results of the study whether the population changed or not. The point is that evolution occurred in a short period, so any differences would show that one population or the other evolved during that time. Therefore, it is not necessary to “undertake” or “conduct” further studies. Choice B is incorrect because the fact the Pod Kopiste lizards have less in common with the lizards on Pod Mrcaru than had previously been assumed does not offer a good counterargument to the claim that the population on Pod Kopiste evolved. The fact could support the claim. Choice C is incorrect because, based on the passage, the scientists do not have “sufficient” or “enough” proof about the “contention” or “claim” regarding a rate of change in the populations. They are making an assumption, which by definition means that there is some guesswork involved.

26

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the scientists could have justifiably responded to a challenge to their assumption in lines 18-21 by arguing that the specific evolution of the Pod Kopiste lizards is not “relevant” or “related” to their most important “implications” or “findings.” The assumption in lines 18-21 is that the Pod Kopiste lizards had not made evolutionary changes. Choice D shows that the specific evolution is not important because it explains that the point of the study is that there are very fast evolutionary changes. If the Pod Kopiste population also changed, it reinforces the idea that there are fast changes.

Choice A is incorrect because it only refers to the population on Pod Mrcaru. It does not show why changes in the Pod Kopiste population are unimportant to the results of the study. Choice B is incorrect because it only says that the lizards on the two islands were compared. It does not relate to the results of the study, only to the methodology. Choice C describes the assumption but does not address any counterarguments related to that assumption.

27

Choice A is the best answer because “robust” refers to the skulls of herbivores. Lines 51-52 say that herbivores “have massive jaw muscles” and line 52 uses “robust” to highlight the “corresponding” or “equivalent” nature that is needed for the muscles to attach. Therefore, the skulls are “strong” and “tough,” both ideas incorporated in Choice A.

None of the other choices adequately describes the skulls as being strong enough to hold massive muscle attachments. Choice B means “adaptable” or “flexible,” but not necessarily “strong.” Choice C refers either to something that is either violent or not even. Choice D indicates that something is healthy and full of energy.

28

Choice B is the best answer because the parenthetical statement is a suggestion to “think of the stout midline crest along the top of a gorilla’s skull.” This offers an “analogy” or “comparison” with something that the reader probably knows well…herbivore gorillas have very obvious skull structures for their muscle attachments. Using this comparison, the reader can get an idea of what the Pod Mrcaru lizards’ heads look like. The heads probably have a prominent ridge for the muscles to attach.

Choice A is incorrect because “strength and agility” refer to how powerful and able to move quickly an animal is. However, the ridge crest of a gorilla does not help it move fast or be strong. Therefore, the ridge crest in the parenthetical statement is used to show another quality. Choice C is incorrect because “habitat” or “environment” is not discussed in the parenthetical statement. Instead, the statement refers to animals with the same diet. Choice D is incorrect because there is no indication that that physical shape of Pod Mrcaru lizards is “unique” or “one of a kind.” Instead, the passage implies that the lizards share a similar feature to gorillas.

29

Choice D is the best answer because the Pod Kopiste lizards are shown in the set of columns on the left of the graph. “Insects” are shown by the white bar in the middle. That bar reaches between .8 and 1.0 on the y-axis showing “proportion of total food mass.” Therefore, Choice D is the best answer because it is a point halfway between .8 and 1.0.

None of the other choices correspond to the white bar for “insects” for Pod Kopiste lizards. Choice A is closest to Pod Kopiste lizards for “plant matter” or “other.” Choice B is the figure for Pod Mrcaru lizards for “insects.” Choice C is closest to Pod Mrcaru lizards for “plant matter.”

30

Choice C is the best answer because “food mass that is neither plant matter nor insects” is given as the black bar. The black bar for Pod Kopiste is just over .0, at about .05. The black bar for Pod Mrcaru is almost the same height, about .05. Therefore, the proportions are “roughly equivalent” or “about the same.”

Choices A and D are incorrect because the rate of change is not given in the graph. Therefore, it is impossible to determine if the amount increased or decreased at all, let alone determine the speed of change. Choice B is incorrect because the “proportion of total food mass derived from plant matter on Pod Kopiste” is given in the gray bar, which is about .05 on the y-axis. By contrast, the “proportion of total food mass derived from insects on Pod Mrcaru” is given in the white bar, which reaches about .4. These figures are very different, so cannot be called “generally equal” or “about the same.”

31

Choice A is the best answer because the passage says,” From the almost exclusive diet of insects still enjoyed by the modern Pod Kopiste population, the lizards on Pod Mrcaru had shifted to a largely vegetarian diet, especially in summer” (lines 41-44). In other words, the diet was more “vegetarian” or “based on plant matter” in the summer than in the winter. Using this information, the gray bar representing “plant matter” would be shorter in winter because that would mean less plants than in the summer. As a result, the proportion of either insects or other matter would have to increase so that the total percentage is still 1.

Choice B is incorrect because the passage says that Pod Kopiste lizards are have an “almost exclusive diet of insects,” meaning that the white bar for insects would be high in both summer and winter. There is no evidence in the passage that the diet of plants increases, so there is no evidence that the gray bar for plant matter would increase. Choice C is incorrect because the passage only talks about the proportion of plant matter. Therefore, it is impossible to say whether the change in diet is toward more insects or other things. Choice D is incorrect because there is no evidence that there is change in the Pod Kopiste diet between the winter and summer.

32

Choice B is the best answer because “marketplace decisions” refers to the choices people make when buying products. According to the passage, such choices can be “influenced” or “altered by a sense of “psychological discomfort” or emotional unease caused by a lack of familiarity. Lines 5-7 summarize this basic principle: “Market choices have much more to do with the brain’s basic, internal perception of the world and the way those perceptions shape our feelings of comfort and ease.” Paragraph 1 introduces a study looking for cues that “trigger psychological comfort or discomfort, and thus shape us as economic beings” (lines 13-14). Paragraph 2 explains the concept in more detail, then Paragraphs 2 and 3 give specific examples of studies relating to how prices are perceived using familiar or unfamiliar currency. Paragraph 4 reinforces the results of the study by showing that illegible fonts also influence perceptions because they also make people uneasy about what they are buying. Therefore, the passage’s main purpose is to establish that people change perceptions based on how comfortable they are with the product.

Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not compare levels of “sophistication” or “confidence and experience” between different consumers. Therefore, it does not emphasize that “relatively sophisticated consumers” can be “manipulated” or “influenced” more or less than any other group of consumers. Choice C is incorrect because the passage is comparing familiarity of the currency, not just the material it is made from. Although “material” is discussed in Paragraph 3 because consumers were given a metal coin compared to a paper dollar bill, the perceived value was also different in the experiment in Paragraph 4 that compared two different types of paper money. Choice D is incorrect because the passage concludes that “certain unfamiliar stimuli” or “specific cues that are not well known” can have a great effect rather than a little effect on the ability to make a “rational” or “logical” decision.

33

Choice A is the best answer because “basic” is used to describe “the brain’s internal perception of the world” (lines 5-6). This quality is what affects decisions and is compared to basing decisions on “objective value” (line 4). Choice A means “of central importance,” so accurately describes the brain’s central, foundational views of the world.

None of the other choices effectively describe the brain’s “perception” or “view” of the world that is opposite of a logical, objective view of value. Choice B refers to something that is “absolutely necessary,” but if it is absolutely necessary, there would be no need for a different perception based on objective value. Choice C means “not completely formed.” However, the perception of the world exists and is functioning, so is formed. Choice D means “easy” or “uncomplicated,” but the passage implies that the process of making decisions is very complex and “may not be obvious. Indeed, they may be almost undetectable at times” (lines 20-21).

34

Choice A is the best answer because “not absolute” is used to describe the value of currency “within one national economy” (lines 8-9) according to the view of Daniel Oppenheimer and Adam Alter. The passage describes how “money derives its true value at least in part from the individual mind” (lines 10-11). In other words, the value of “currency” or “money” can change. Choice A means “final and unchanging.” Therefore, it fits the context of describing value that changes meaning—that is not final or unchanging—depending upon how it is viewed.

None of the other choices accurately explain that the value of money is not completely set. Choice B means “based on random choice.” However, the passage is saying that there is some randomness in value, so Choice B does not fit the negative context of “no absolute value.” Choice C means “ideal” or “best,” and Choice D means “good.” However, the passage is not saying that the value is good or bad, only that the value changes.

35

Choice B is the best answer because “old” is used to describe a “regular dollar bill with George Washington on it” (lines 29-30), as opposed to “less familiar currency of the same value” (lines 30-31). In other words, “old” is emphasizing the familiarity level of the regular dollar bill. Choice B means “ordinary” or “everyday,” so fits the context of currency that is used on a regular basis.

None of the other choices emphasizes the familiarity level of the regular dollar bill. Choice A refers to being worn or tattered from age, but there is no evidence that the consumers were given used dollar bills compared to recently-printed ones. Choice C means “out of date,” but the regular bills are still accepted as standard currency. Choice D means “having continued for a long time,” and often refers to a custom or tradition. However, the bills themselves change and are replaced with new bills when the old ones wear out.

36

Choice A is the best answer because lines 37-39 bring up the example of a $2 bill with “the image of a respected historical figure” on it: “It’s not as though people never see a $2 bill, and it does have Thomas Jefferson on it, after all.” The $2 bill is “encountered infrequently” or “rare” (line 37). However, the fact that Jefferson is on it should “reinforce the credibility” or “strengthen belief in the value” according to the author, because he is surprised that “just the slight unfamiliarity of the denomination was enough to make people devalue it. Why would this be?” (lines 39-40).

Choice B is incorrect because the author does not expect the “particular denomination” or “specific value” to appear greater than it really is because a historical figure is printed on it. Instead, he feels that the value for $2 should be the same whether it is a $2 bill or two $1 bills. Choice C is incorrect because there is no reference to the “financial system” or “government” that uses the currency, so the historical figure is not given as an example of “inspiring confidence” or “increasing belief” in the government. Choice D is incorrect because the comparison with the Jefferson $2 bill and two $1 bills does not relate to “coins made of precious metals” at all. Therefore, the “legitimacy” or “acceptability” refers to something other than the material the money is made of.

37

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the image of a respected historical figure would be expected to “reinforce” or “strengthen” the “credibility” or “trustworthiness” of currency that is “encountered infrequently,” meaning “rare.” Choice D supports this claim because it is questioning why people do not value the $2 bill as highly as two $1 bills. Thomas Jefferson is given as one reason that the bill should be valued or accepted, and the other reason is that people have see it before. Therefore, the author expects that people should think that Jefferson makes the bill more acceptable or trustworthy.

Choice A is incorrect because it does not refer to the image of a historical figure or how such an image might strengthen the perceived value of money. It only says that people were asked how much of different products they could buy with one dollar. Choice B is incorrect because, although it refers to the images of two historical figures, it does not indicate how those figures might change the perceived value of the money. Choice C is incorrect because it refers to familiarity and value but does not explain how the image of a historical figure relates to these perceptions.

38

Choice B is the best answer because the research concluded that “volunteers in the study consistently rated identical goods as less valuable when they came in an unfamiliar, cognitively challenging form” (lines 69-72). In other words, products that were exactly the same were viewed differently based on how easy it was for the people to recognize them. Therefore, the “judgements” or “decisions” are “irrational” or “illogical” because the value was the same, but people treated the value as different.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no reference in the passage about the actual worth of everyday objects. Therefore, it is impossible to say that most objects are “significantly overpriced” or “too expensive.” Choice C is incorrect because there is no discussion about how often unfamiliar currency is used. There is also no discussion about “assumptions” or “beliefs” about how often different types of currency are used. The study only delved into how people reacted when given unfamiliar currency. Choice D is incorrect because “outmoded” means “no longer used.” However, there is no discussion at all about the use of “actual” or “real” currency compared to alternate forms of payment such as credit cards or barter. The study compared the ways people reacted to different forms of real money.

39

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Oppenheimer and Alter’s research supports the idea that people often make “irrational” or “illogical” “economic judgements,” meaning “decisions related to buying things.” Choice D says that there is a “cognitive bent” (line 56) or “mental tendency” that “shapes our perceptions” or “alters our views” of “goods” or “products for sale.” Therefore, Choice D supports the idea that people do not always make logical decisions; they have a tendency to view things differently.

Choice A is incorrect because it only says that people react more favorably to things that are familiar. It does not show that economic decisions are irrational. Choice B is incorrect because it only gives a name to the process described in Choice A. Choice C says that we don’t know the value of unknown things, but it does not say that people make illogical decisions.

40

Choice C is the best answer because the last paragraph introduces a variation of the studies described in the previous two paragraphs. In the previous studies, the type of currency was altered. In the last paragraph, the appearance of the product was altered but the product and the currency were the same. The result was that people faced with “an unfamiliar, cognitively challenging form” (lines 71-72) rated the object as less valuable than an object that was familiar. This result is consistent with the higher valuing of money that was familiar. In other words, the last paragraph introduces a related study that reinforces the results described in the previous paragraphs.

The last paragraph does not “clarify” or “explain” certain “complex” or “difficult” problems. Instead, it introduces a new study that has similar results as the previously described studies. Choice B is incorrect because “qualification” means “conditions” or “restrictions.” However, there is no limitation given about the previous studies. If anything, the final paragraph shows that the results may be more universal than they may first appear because they apply to things other than just familiar currency. Choice D is incorrect because an “interpretation” is an “explanation” about something. However, the final paragraph does not give a different explanation about the “existing” or “already described” data from the paragraph. Instead, it brings up completely new data from a separate study.

41

Choice B is the best answer because “familiar currency” is represented by the black bars on the graph. The x-axis shows the quantity or number participants thought they could purchase using one dollar. There is only one black bar that extends to the right of the “20” and ends before the “30.” That bar is the fourth from the top, labeled Hershey’s Kisses.

None of the other choices match a black bar for “familiar currency” between 20 and 30 units. Choice A is between 10 and 20 units. Choice C is almost exactly 40 units. Choice D is between 40 and 50 units.

42

Choice B is the best answer because the graph shows the “differences in the magnitude of the effect” of using unfamiliar currency, which means that it shows that unfamiliar currency has different perceived value than familiar currency. However, the “reason” or “cause” is not given on the graph; the does not say why using unfamiliar currency has different results than using familiar currency. Therefore, Choice B cannot be answered using only the graph.

All of the other choices are incorrect because they can be answered using the graph. Choice A is asking which commodity has the “least difference” or “smallest amount of variation” between the currencies. That answer would be “gumballs,” because the units for unfamiliar currency is about 8 and the units for familiar currency is about 10, a difference of only 2. None of the other commodities has a difference that low. Choice C is asking if any of the values for familiar currency are higher than for unfamiliar currencies. That can be answered “yes” because all of the black bars for familiar currency are longer than the grey bars for unfamiliar currencies for any given commodity. Choice D is incorrect because “the greatest proportional difference” means “the most difference when compared to the difference in the other commodities.” That question could be answered “paper clips” because the numbers are about 40 and 80 for unfamiliar and familiar currencies, respectively. That is a proportion of about 1/2. None of the other commodities has an unfamiliar value that is 1/2 of the familiar value…all are much closer to 1.

43

Choice C is the best answer because a “major breakthrough” is something of extreme importance. The author emphasizes the “electrifying” or “stunning” importance of the discovery of RNA ribozymes from the first sentence: “Few events have electrified the origin-of-life community as much as the early 1980s discovery of RNA ribozyme” (lines 1-3). The “breakthrough” nature is reinforced in line 8, which calls it a “startling finding” that was important enough that it “won Altman and Cech the Nobel Prize in 1989” (lines 8-9). Choice C also says that this breakthrough led to a “credible theory” or “logical system for explaining something.” This part of the choice is paraphrased in lines 8-10. “This startling finding…inspired a new vision of life’s origin.”

Choice A is incorrect because, although the discovery was “conceptually interesting” or “a fascinating idea,” it was not “of little practice value.” Something “of little practice value” means that it does not have any useful applications, but in reality, the discovery led to a completely new explanation for life on Earth. Choice B is incorrect because “conclusively resolved” means that one final answer was reached. However, the passage directly states that “Over the years, “RNA World” has come to mean different things to different people” (lines 22-23), indicating that there is not one final explanation. Choice D is incorrect because the passage says that the discovery “electrified the origin-of-life community” (lines 1-2), showing that it was not “underappreciated” or “ignored” when it was announced.

44

Choice C is the best answer because “carry” refers to what RNA ribozyme does with genetic information. Choice C means “have” or “hold,” which accurately indicates that the genetic information is something held by the ribozyme.

Choice A is incorrect because it refers to creating a layer or coating, but the genetic information is not something separate that is under or inside an outer coating of ribozyme. Choice B is incorrect because it refers to taking something by force, but the ribozyme exists with the genetic information, it does not grab it from something else. Choice D is incorrect because it refers to neutralizing or correcting a problem by doing an opposite action, but the ribozymes are not fixing something wrong with the genetic information.

45

Choice B is the best answer because “calls into question” means “casts doubt on.” Therefore, the correct answer needs to show that there is doubt about how life arose in the “established” or “previously accepted” relationship between DNA and proteins. Choice B shows that there is doubt because proteins are needed to make DNA, but DNA makes proteins. There is no clear answer to how life started because one had to come first, but there was no explanation for how that first one was made.

Choice A does not cast doubt on any theory about how life arose. It only explains what is needed for modern life. Choices C and D are incorrect because they refer to the RNA theory of ribozymes rather than the established relationship between DNA and proteins. The RNA theory helps answer how life arose rather than casting doubt upon the concept.

46

Choice D is the best answer because “isolated” is referring to a type of ribozyme. One of the types is “synthetic” (line 54), and the other is one that was “isolated from a living system” (line 56). Therefore, “isolated” is referring to a ribozyme that was “taken” or “removed” from a living creature. Choice D fits the context because it refers to removing something using a specialized process.

Choice A refers to a specific type of isolation when a creature is put into a place alone to prevent it from transferring an infectious disease. Choice B is incorrect because it refers to giving the feeling of isolation or aloneness, but ribozymes do not have emotions like feeling lonely. Choice C is incorrect because it means “hidden,” but the opposite meaning, “found” is intended.

47

Choice B is the best answer because Urzymes are explained in the passage as being “molecular fossils” (line 67), which implies that the molecules are virtually unchanged from the ancient past. Even the name “Urzyme” means “earliest or original” (line 68), indicating that the researchers believe that Urzymes represent the most primitive forms of enzymes. Finally, the conclusion that “the other parts…are variations that were introduced later, as evolution unfolded” (lines 68-70) show that the Urzymes came before the other parts. Therefore, the passage suggests that an Urzyme is a “region”—the “virtually identical core” (line 66)—that has remained “relatively” or “basically” unchanged since the earliest times.

None of the other choices are supported by evidence from the passage. Choice A is incorrect because the passage suggests that the Urzymes are “very good at accelerating the two reactions necessary to translate the genetic code” (lines 78-79). Therefore, they do not store the code, they cause the production of protein. Choice C is incorrect because lines 84-86 say, “The finding also suggests that Urzymes evolved from even simpler ancestors — tiny proteins called peptides.” Therefore, the Urzymes did not evolve from RNA. In addition, they do not just make metabolism more efficient in modern-day cells; they made metabolism possible in ancient cells. Choice D is incorrect because it is opposite from the findings. Urzymes did not evolve “fairly recently” or “not far in the past.” Instead, they are believed to be the “actual ancient enzymes that would have populated the Earth billions of years ago” (lines 72-73).

48

Choice B is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the results of Carter’s studies suggest that the Urzyme is the region of modern-day enzymes that has remained relatively unchanged over time. Choice B strongly supports that claim because it describes Urzyme as a region, the “core” of the enzyme. Choice B also says that Urzyme is considered one of the “earliest” or “original” parts and the other parts all came later.

Choice A is incorrect because it describes modern enzymes. It does not say that Urzymes have remained unchanged over time. Choice C is incorrect because it describes an attempt to determine what Urzymes did, but it does not support the claim that Urzymes were basically unchanged over time. Choice D is incorrect because it does not explain that Urzymes are a region or part of modern-day enzymes, nor does it show that the part remained unchanged. If anything, Choice D could weaken the claim because it says that Urzymes evolved from peptides, implying that the Urzymes changed over time.

49

Choice C is the best answer because lines 84-86 directly say that “Urzymes evolved from even simpler ancestors — tiny proteins called peptides.” Urzymes are described as the first enzymes, so peptides would be considered the “earliest ancestors” because they are the first forms in the evolutionary chain leading to modern enzymes.

None of the other choices are supported by information from the passage. Choice A is mentioned in Passage 1 in connection with RNA. Choice B is incorrect because Urzymes are the first enzymes, but the passage describes that they came from peptides, so peptides are earlier ancestors in the evolutionary chain. Choice D is incorrect because lines 50-51 claim, “Moreover, there’s no proof that such ribozymes even existed billions of years ago.”

50

Choice A is the best answer because Passage 1 provides the “overview” or “general description” of the theory of “RNA World.” Passage 1 shows how the discovery of ribozymes helped form that theory and gives three basic “precepts” or “rules” related to the theory. By contrast, Passage 2 says that the “RNA World hypothesis is extremely unlikely” (line 48) and offers the “alternative” or “other possibility” that Urzymes were involved in the creation of life.

Choice B is incorrect because, while Passage 1 does explain an “influential” or “important” theory, Passage 2 does not discuss an “application” or “practical use” of the theory. Instead, it says that the theory is very unlikely because “it would take forever” (line 49). Furthermore, Passage 2 counters the theory by saying that the synthetic ribozymes used to prove the theory “bear little resemblance to anything anyone has ever isolated from a living system” (lines 55-56). Therefore, any applications of the theory are dismissed as not likely. Choice C is incorrect because Passage 1 summarizes many, not just two, viewpoints of the theory of the RNA World in three precepts listed in lines 25-31 (“once upon…protein enzymes”). Passage 2 does not say that these viewpoints are “inconsistent” or “not in agreement” with each other. Instead, Passage 2 argues that all of the viewpoints are inconsistent with the facts found in nature, such as the length of time that it would take for the evolution to occur (lines 48-49, “the RNA World…forever”). Choice D is incorrect because Passage 1 is presenting a new theory—the RNA World—that is based on findings about ribozymes; it is not saying that the discovery of ribozymes supported an “established” or “existing” theory. In addition, Passage 2 does not say there is “insufficient” or “not enough” evidence to “evaluate” or “analyze” that theory. By contrast, Passage 2 suggests that there is enough evidence, such as the length of time needed and the presence of Urzymes, that confirm that the theory is incorrect.

51

Choice D is the best answer because Precept 3 says that “ancient RNA played the same catalytic roles as modern protein enzymes” (lines 30-31). Line 15 defines the role of proteins: “proteins make and maintain DNA.” Carter would argue with the theory that ancient RNA made and maintained DNA because he concluded that “RNA would have contained the instructions for life while peptides would have accelerated key chemical reactions to carry out those instructions” (lines 88-91). In other words, Carter feels that the RNA only stored genetic information and something else, peptides, performed the same role as modern protein enzymes.

Choice A is incorrect because Carter felt that RNA stored the genetic information in early life forms: “RNA would have contained the instructions for life” (lines 88-89). Choice B is incorrect because there is no evidence to support the claim that ancient and modern RNA replication is different. If anything, the first paragraph of Passage 2 (lines 36-47, “for the…Earth today”) suggests that Carter feels the process is similar because he says there was not enough time for life to evolve based on the replication process. If the process were different, it could have worked faster in the past and there would have been time for modern life to evolve. Choice C is unsupported by the passages because there is no discussion of Carter’s view of the base pairs or construction of RNA.

52

Choice D is the best answer because Passage 1 describes the role of RNA in the RNA World theory and Passage 2 describes the role of RNA in the Peptide-RNA World theory. According to the RNA World precepts in Passage 1, “RNA rather than DNA stored genetic information” (lines 25-26) and “ancient RNA played the same catalytic roles as modern protein enzymes” (lines 30-31). However, Passage 2 indicates that RNA was used only to store the genetic code: “RNA would have contained the instructions for life” (lines 88-89). In that theory, the role of catalyst is performed by peptides: “peptides would have accelerated key chemical reactions to carry out those instructions” (lines 89-91).

Choice A is incorrect because, while Passage 1 does mention lipid membranes, it does not explain what “synthesizes” or “makes” the membranes. Also, Passage 2 says that in the Peptide-RNA World theory, RNA only stored the genetic code; peptides were the catalysts (lines 88-81, “in this…those instructions”). Choice B is incorrect because, while the RNA World theory does say that RNA stored the genetic code (lines 25-26, “once upon…information”), that is the same role that RNA has in the Peptide-RNA World theory. Passage 2 suggests that activating protein enzymes was the role of peptides (lines 89-91, “peptides would…instructions”). Choice C is incorrect because neither passage says that the bases change, so there is no mention that RNA “converts” or “changes” uracil to thymine. In addition, Passage 2 says that RNA did not “accelerate” or “act as a catalyst” for chemical reactions, peptides did (lines 89-91, “peptides would…instructions”).

Passage 1 - Dickens Takes the Stage

1

Content: punctuation

Choice D is the best answer because “having…writing” is a modifier that describes the subject, “Dickens.” It should be divided from the main clause with a comma.

All of the other choices are incorrect because “having…writing” is not a complete idea with a subject and verb. Therefore, it cannot be followed by a semicolon or a dash, as those need to follow an independent clause. It also cannot stand on its own as a sentence.

2

Content: possessive determiners

Choice B is the best answer because “works” refers to the novels that Dickens wrote. Since Dickens is a man, the underlined portion needs to be a possessive pronoun that refers to a man, as Choice B correctly does.

Choice A is incorrect because it is plural, so does not refer to the single man “Dickens.” It illogically appears to refer to the plural “public readings.” Choice C is incorrect because it is used to refer to an inanimate object, but “Dickens” is plural. Choice D is incorrect because it is used when there is no specific antecedent, but “Dickens” is given in the sentence.

3

Content: introductions, conclusions, and supporting details

Choice C is the best answer because the paragraph discusses how Dickens “set the scene” or “created the mood” of the performance with an “austere” or “limited” amount of decorations and no other actors. He used his voice and gestures to “impersonate” or “bring to life” up to 23 characters. This paragraph is therefore well-introduced by Choice C, which says that he did not only do a “recitation” or “reading” of the parts, he created a “one-man show” or “brought the book to life by himself.”

Choice A is incorrect because the paragraph does not discuss the price of tickets or the audience, only the performance that Dickens gave. Choice B is incorrect because it only says people preferred “humorous” or “funny” shows. However, the passage does not say that Dickens was funny, only that he made many characters appear real. Choice D is incorrect because there is no reference to the success of future books or to Dickens’s need for money, so Choice D does not relate to the topic.

4

Content: precision and concision

Choice A is the best answer because it concisely provides all the information necessary to understand the sentence: Dickens used two things, his presence and voice, to “set the scene” or “create the mood.”

All of the other choices can be eliminated as redundant. In Choice B, “and” and “as well” have the same meaning. In Choice C, “simply” and “just” repeat the same idea, while “and” and “too” are also repetitive. In Choice D, “with the addition of” repeats the idea of “and.”

5

Content: punctuation

Choice B is the best answer because “in which he had scrawled stage directions” describes “a book” in more detail. The phrase is needed because without it, the reader does not know what book Dickens was using. Therefore, it is considered part of the main idea and should not be separated from “book” with any punctuation.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they separate “book” from the description which explains exactly what book, the one “in which he had scrawled stage directions.” Furthermore, all of the other choices are punctuation that should follow an independent clause, but “Reading from an annotated copy of a book” cannot stand on its own because it does not have a subject and active verb.

6

Content: introductions, conclusions, and supporting details

Choice D is the best answer because the following details are an audience member’s description of the way that Dickens portrayed the characters of Scrooge and Bob Cratchit by using different tones of voice and body postures. Choice D “sets up” or “introduces” these details by saying that each character was “dramatized” or “portrayed” with “distinctive” or “unique” ways using the voice and body.

Choice A is incorrect because the following sentence does not refer to Dickens’s youth nor to previous plays. Therefore, it does not adequately prepare the reader for the following specific examples of how Dickens changed his voice and gestures to make characters seem different. Choice B is incorrect because there is no discussion of a “rigorous” or “difficult” travel schedule in the following sentence. Choice C is incorrect because it brings up the opinions of a person who is not mentioned elsewhere. The idea of “inappropriate” or “not suitable” does not come up in the following sentence, either.

7

Content: tense, mood, and voice

Choice D is the best answer because Dickens is a historical figure who no longer is giving performances. Therefore, the action happened in the past, as correctly indicated by Choice D.

Choice A is incorrect because it is a future tense, so cannot be used to describe an action that was completed in the past. The performance is over, and the audience member commented on it. Choice B is incorrect because it is a conditional tense which shows an option which could have happened under certain circumstances, but which did not happen. Therefore, it should not be used to describe an event which did occur. Choice C is used to show an action which is ongoing at the time of the passage, but Dickens completed his performances well before the passage was written.

8

Content: transitions

Choice C is the best answer because the previous paragraph is about how Dickens brought characters to life using gestures and voice. The following paragraph is about how Dickens engaged the audiences in his performances. Choice C provides a solid transition because “animated performances” or “lively shows” aptly describes the dramatic acting that Dickens brought to his readings. After tying in that information from the previous paragraph, Choice C introduces the topic of the following paragraph by saying that Dickens the person also connected with his audiences.

Choice A is incorrect because neither the previous nor following paragraph discusses scenery and costumes, so Choice A introduces unsupported and unrelated details. Choice B also brings up unrelated information by mentioning an actor that does not appear elsewhere in the passage. Choice D is incorrect because it uses an example, Nicholas Nickleby, which is not cited in either the preceding or following paragraphs. An “enthusiasm for the theater” also does not show how Dickens related to the theater; it could just as easily refer to viewing as it could to acting parts in a dramatic way.

9

Content: punctuation

Choice D is the best answer because a colon is used to separate a main clause from a secondary idea that explains the clause. In this case, “he became a friend” explains what the author meant by saying that “the author ceased being a remote figure.”

Choice A is incorrect because it is a comma splice between two independent clauses. Choice B is incorrect because a semicolon should divide two independent clauses, but the “and” in the underlined portion subordinates the following clause so it cannot stand on its own. Choice C is incorrect because “but” is used to show an exception or difference, so it erroneously makes the following “he became a friend” appear to be a contrast rather than further explanation about the meaning of “the author ceased being a remote figure.”

10

Content: style and tone

Choice C is the best answer because it is a polite way to say, “in a genuine way.” It explains the way in which Dickens laughed using the relatively formal tone established by the rest of the passage.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they are extremely casual. They can be used in conversation, but should not be used in a professional essay.

11

Content: introductions, conclusions, and supporting details

Choice A is the best answer because the entire passage is about how Dickens did “unprecedented” or “completely new” readings. The last sentence of the first paragraph says that Dickens “inspired audiences to engage with the author and his writing in new ways.” The second and third paragraphs give more details about the range of acting that Dickens used. The fourth paragraph discusses how Dickens engaged the audience. The final paragraph says that Dickens became famous for his performances. Choice A summarizes the main points of including the “author and audience” into the performances.

Choice B is incorrect because the passage does not discuss Dickens’s health, so Choice B does not summarize the main points of the passage. Choice C is incorrect because the passage does not discuss how “lucrative” or “how much money he earned” from the performances. The passage only brings up the unusual nature of the performances and how Dickens became very famous for them. Choice D is incorrect because the passage does not mention “journalism” or “writing for newspapers” at all.

Passage 2 - Fritz Pollard Beyond the Gridiron

12

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice D is the best answer because the underlined word needs to describe Pollard’s “celebrity,” which means “fame.” The passage goes on to discuss that he was very famous. Since Choice D means “significant,” it fits the context of describing “a lot” of “celebrity.”

Choice A is incorrect because it means “not wanting to harm others.” However, the celebrity itself is intangible, so does not have emotions about others. Choice B is incorrect because it means “thought about carefully.” However, Pollard did not think about and decide to become famous; that happened as a result of his actions. Choice C is incorrect because it means “to unite into a whole,” so does not fit the context of discussing a person’s fame.

13

Content: combine sentences

Choice C is the best answer because “for which” concisely and effectively turns the second sentence into a relative clause that describes the final noun in the previous sentence, New York Independent News.

Choice A is incorrect because there are two “it” that refer to different nouns. The first “it” refers to “New York Independent News” and the second to “weekly sports column,” but it is easy for the reader to confuse the two. The repetition of the pronoun “it” directly after the noun the words refer to also makes the sentence structure convoluted. Choice B is incorrect because it changes the subject of the sentence from “one of the many entrepreneurial ventures Pollard pursued” to “a weekly sports column.” The passive structure of the second half makes it appear that the agent, “him,” is the subject of the first sentence. However, “him” refers to “Pollard” rather than “one entrepreneurial venture.” Choice D is incorrect because, like Choice C, “he” at first appears to refer to the subject, but instead of “one entrepreneurial venture,” really refers to “Pollard.”

14

Content: addition and deletion

Choice D is the best answer because the added sentence is about Pollard’s founding a football team. However, the paragraph focuses on the content of the newspaper column, Sports by Fritz. The paragraph mentions the type of article Pollard wrote, such as “highlighting the accomplishments of African American athletes” and “the parallel roles played by athletes and entertainers in the African American community.” The paragraph ends by explaining his reason for writing such articles: “to preserve and expand African Americans’ access to these industries.” Therefore, adding a sentence about a completely different venture interrupts the flow of the discuss about the newspaper and its goal of promoting African-American performers.

Choices A and B are incorrect because the added sentence is not related to the topic of the paragraph, so should not be included. The added sentence does not explain why founding a football team led to “celebrity status,” nor does it offer background that makes the reader’s understanding of the newspaper clearer. Choice C is incorrect because founding a football team does not “contradict” or “provide evidence against” the point that Pollard wrote about athletes and entertainers. Instead, the added sentence does not relate at all.

15

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice C is the best answer because the underlined word needs to describe what it was essential to do to “African Americans’ access to these industries.” “Access” refers to a “right” or “opportunity,” and Pollard was trying to make more access. Choice C means “increase” or “develop,” so fits the context of making more or better opportunities.

Choice A is incorrect because it refers to physically changing the size of something so that it is longer or wider. It is not used with intangible things like “opportunities” or “access.” Choice B is incorrect because it means to either physically pull something to make it bigger or to make something last longer. However, Pollard was not just trying to make the length of time an opportunity was available longer. He was also trying to create more opportunities. Choice D is incorrect because it means to “gather” or “collect.” However, he was not just trying to bring existing opportunities to one place.

16

Content: subordination and coordination

Choice A is the best answer because “improving” after a comma correctly makes the portion following the comma into an action performed by the subject, Pollard.

Choice B is incorrect because it turns the portion following the comma into a noun phrase. It therefore acts as an appositive, which is a noun following a comma that describes the previous word. However, “improving…” is a result rather than a different way to say “agent.” Choice C is incorrect because “and” should divide two grammatically parallel things. The portion before “and” is an independent clause, “Pollard also worked as a talent agent,” so it is not parallel with the gerund phrase “improving the prospects….” Choice D is incorrect because it is a comma splice between two independent clauses.

17

Content: precision and concision

Choice B is the best answer because it concisely provides all the information necessary to understand the sentence. The sentence explains an action that Pollard when he started being an agent.

All of the other choices can be eliminated as redundant. In Choice A, “began” has the same meaning as “early on.” In Choice C, “became one” repeats the idea of “beginning a career.” Choice D is incorrect because it needlessly repeats the word “career.” In addition, “just beginning” is a synonym of “started.”

18

Content: tense, mood, and voice

Choice C is the best answer the past perfect tense is used to show an event that happened in the past before another event in the past. Choice C therefore properly establishes the time sequence of the actions in the sentence. First, Pollard cultivated relationships when he was an athlete. Second, he drew on that network.

Choice A is incorrect because “would” is used to show an event that has not yet happened when writing in the past tense. The result is that it appears that Pollard had not yet cultivated the relationships, but the cultivating did happen after the point being written about. This interpretation does not make sense because he could not “draw on” or “rely on” the network before he had created that network at a time in the past, “when he was an athlete.” Choice B is incorrect because it is a future tense, implying a time after now, so does not show that the relationships were cultivated in the past, when Pollard was an athlete. Choice D is incorrect because it is a present perfect tense used to describe actions that occurred up to the present time, but Pollard is not longer cultivating relationships. Choice D does not fit with a past-tense passage.

19

Content: transitions

Choice B is the best answer because the previous sentence says that Pollard drew on his network of relationships to find work for Holiday, Gillespie, and many others. The following sentence is a different thing that Pollard did on the same main topic of helping African Americans expand their opportunities: he “secured engagements for his clients in venues that had previously been segregated,” meaning that he found work for clients in places that did not allow African Americans to perform before. Choice B is used to add more facts or commentary on the same subject, so fits the context of showing that the following sentence is more description about things that Pollard accomplished.

Choices A and C are incorrect because they are used to introduce something that is opposite or contradicts the previous sentence. These choices do not show that Pollard did both actions with the same goal. Choice D “besides” is informal in this setting.

20

Content: pronouns

Choice B is the best answer because the underlined portion starts a new paragraph, and standard usage indicates that a subject rather than a pronoun be used when starting a new idea. In this case, it is especially important because the previous sentence is, ““I got hundreds and hundreds of acts into places where they never got [in] before,” he recalled in an interview with biographer John M. Carroll." There are two men in that sentence that could be referred to as “he,” so a pronoun does not show which one is meant. The person being discussed as performing “a number of other professional roles” in the paragraph is Pollard, and Choice B makes that clear.

Choices A and D are ambiguous because they could refer to either Pollard or Carroll, as both are mentioned in the previous sentence. Choice C is incorrect because Carrol did not play “a number of other professional roles.” The final sentence confirms that the person who did was Pollard: “Yet for all the roles he played, one thing about Pollard….”

21

Content: punctuation

Choice D is the best answer because the underlined portion is part of a list of careers joined by “and” that Pollard played. The three careers are “investment advisor,” “filmmaker,” and “tax consultant.” When nouns are joined in a list, the first ones up to “and” should be followed by a comma, but there should not be a comma after “and.” Choice D correctly demonstrates standard usage.

Choices A and C are incorrect because they contain a comma after “and.” Choice B is incorrect because it uses a semicolon instead of a comma. Though semicolons can be used to divide items in a list, they are only used when every item in the list is followed by one. They also are only used when the items in the list are long and contain commas.

22

Content: introductions, conclusions, and supporting details

Choice D is the best answer because the first paragraph introduces the topic by explaining who Pollard was and sets up the main topic of the passage: he used his sports fame “to advance professional opportunities for his fellow African Americans.” The second paragraph describes how he used one venue, writing a newspaper, to help “preserve and expand African Americans’ access to (the entertainment and athletics) industries.” The third paragraph says that Pollard did not just write about African American issues, he “also worked as a talent agent” to actively help others. The final paragraph summarizes the passage, saying that Pollard had many roles. Choice D effectively completes the description by reinforcing Pollard’s main goal: he had a “commitment” or “dedication” to creating chances for African Americans.

Choice A is incorrect because, while the passage says that Pollard was a famous athlete, it does not focus on his reputation. Instead, the passage focuses on Pollard’s good deeds, and implies that even more than his athletics, those are the reason that he is still remembered today. Choice B is incorrect because the passage does not talk about “switching fields” because of “seeing an opportunity.” Instead, it discusses his desire to enter new fields in the attempt to help others. Choice C is incorrect because the passage does not mention his “connections” or “relationships” from Brown University at all.

Passage 3 - Why We Still Need Mapmakers

23

Content: precision and concision

Choice C is the best answer because it clearly explains what has happened because of "advances in technology ad software." It shows that some parts of the career of mapmaking are "obsolete" or "no longer needed," but it leaves the implication that other parts are still needed.

Choice A is not precise because "taken over" implies a complete change, whereas the passage explains that mapmakers are still needed to complete some aspects of the job. Choice B is redundant because “labor-intensive" and "hard" work mean the same thing. Choice D is redundant because “cartography” and “mapmaking” mean the same thing.

24

Content: parallelism

Choice B is the best answer because the underlined portion is one of two things joined by “and” that “people wonder.” The things joined by “and” need to have the same grammatical structure. Since the first item is “if there is anything left to map,” Choice B is parallel because it is also a statement qualified by “if.”

All the other choices can be eliminated because they are not parallel in grammatical structure with “if there is anything left to map.” Choices A and C use a question format rather than a statement preceded by “if.” Choice D is grammatically similar, but the question mark at the end changes the sentence into a question. However, the entire sentence is not a question, it is a statement describing things people “wonder about.”

25

Content: introductions, conclusions, and supporting details

Choice D is the best answer because the paragraph brings up the points that the world changes, and the satellite images might not have the latest information about areas. The paragraph gives a second example of the need for humans by saying that humans can make “artistic decisions” that help convey the necessary information to the map user. The main topic of the paragraph is therefore that GIS does not completely replace mapmakers. Since “significant” means “a lot” and “oversight” means “supervision” or “monitoring,” Choice D accurately states that GIS need a lot of human supervision.

Choice A is incorrect because the paragraph does not discuss “capabilities” or “abilities” that have not been “realized” or “used.” Choice B is incorrect because the paragraph does not mention viruses and bugs. Choice C is incorrect because, although “practical” or “technical” questions could describe some of the issues that humans solve, there is no discussion of “ethical” or “moral” questions in the paragraph.

26

Content: punctuation

Choice D is the best answer because “and” joins two things that mapmakers must be “vigilant about.” The two things are “monitoring data” and “integrating new information.” Two gerund phrases do not need to be separated from each other with any punctuation. There should also be no punctuation dividing the parts of the phrasal verb “vigilant about.” Therefore, the underlined portion does not need any punctuation.

Choices A and B are incorrect because the parts of a phrasal verb should not be separated, so there should not be a comma between “vigilant” and “about.” Choices A and C are incorrect because there are only two objects of “vigilant about,” so they do not need to be separated from each other with a comma after “data” and before the “and.”

27

Content: subject-verb agreement

Choice B is the best answer because the underlined verb is the active verb of the relative clause “whose…users.” The subject is long, “artistic decisions about details ranging from font selection to color scheme,” but can be simplified to the plural noun “decisions.” Therefore, Choice B, which is plural, agrees with the subject of the clause.

All of the other choices are singular verbs, so they do not agree with the plural noun “decisions.”

28

Content: punctuation

Choice D is the best answer because “mapmakers…designers” and “they’re…information” are both independent clauses. A colon between them shows how the clauses are related: the latter adds information to clarify a point made in the former. “Though” acts as an adverb that means “however.” It is not part of the main idea, so should be separated with a comma to show that it is a comment about the main idea.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because “mapmakers…designers” and “they’re…information” are both independent clauses, so joining them with a comma creates a comma splice. In addition, Choices A and C illogically make “though” appear as part of either the first or second clause, respectively.

29

Content: sentence boundaries

Choice A is the best answer because “to show…” concisely offers the purpose for the preceding clause.

Choice B is incorrect because “showing…” is not a complete idea because it does not have a subject and active verb. Therefore, it cannot stand on its own as a sentence. Choice C is incorrect because “to which” makes the preceding noun into the object of the following relative clause. However, the following portion has no subject that does the action to the object, “reservoirs.” Choice D is incorrect because both “which” is the subject, so “it” has no grammatical role or clear referent.

30

Content: introductions, conclusions, and supporting details

Choice C is the best answer because the paragraph’s central claim is that there are different “points of view” that can be represented by mapmaking; as the introductory sentence says, mapmakers are “storytellers.” Choice C supports that theme because it shows how the book shows more than just places in maps, it shows differences in “focus and point of view.” The quote expands on how the book does that in colorful language, saying that it reflects things that are “beneath the surface.”

Choice A is incorrect because the quote discusses the idea of a place being within us, but the paragraph does not expand on such an idea. It only shows how mapmakers can show different views of what exists. Choice B is incorrect because the ideas of a “physically compact” or “dense” place is not brought up in the paragraph; it also does not touch on the idea of “multitudes” or “large groups.” Choice D is incorrect because it refers to “newly mapped territories,” but the passage does not indicate that San Francisco has never been mapped before. It only shows a different view of mapmaking.

31

Content: transitions

Choice B is the best answer because the previous sentence makes one claim: some maps don’t just give travel directions. The following sentence gives the opposite situation, what those maps do give: “nuanced portraits” or “subtle pictures” of places. Choice B is a transition that indicates that the following information is the alternate situation, so it effectively alerts the reader to the change in idea.

Choice A is incorrect because it is used to highlight similarities, not differences, between two things. Choice C is incorrect because it is used to add more information on the same topic and in the same tone rather than give a contrasting situation. Choice D is used to introduce a specific example of a previous claim so does not fit the context.

32

Content: addition and deletion

Choice A is the best answer because the paragraph is about the role of mapmakers. The paragraph says that mapmakers can create “nuanced portraits” or “subtle views” of the world, and that they can change views about “complex problems.” The underlined sentence, though, refers to career opportunities in related to GIS. Since there is no mention about career prospects or the use of technology in the final paragraph, that idea would better be placed elsewhere in the passage.

Choice B is incorrect because the sentence does not “contradict” or “go against” any points about the role of mapmakers. In fact, it supports the idea that mapmakers are needed to operate GIS technology. Choices C and D are incorrect because the underlined sentence interrupts the flow of the paragraph so should be deleted. The added sentence does not provide specific details because it only says, “there are many jobs.” The added sentence also does not show that mapmaking careers are “viable” or “realistic” because it implies that “technical skill” is more important than creative skills.

33

Content: introductions, conclusions, and supporting details

Choice D is the best answer because the passage’s main claim is that mapmakers help “reorient our thinking about complex problems” by giving different perspectives. “Reorient” means “find one’s position.” The main claim is therefore well summarized by the idea that without “them,” meaning the “mapmakers” as mentioned in the previous sentence, we would be “lost” or “not knowing one’s position.” It shows that mapmakers are still needed despite technological advances. The last sentence father first paragraph also suggests the main claim: “trained cartographers remain essential.”

Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not say that maps are “historical artifacts” or “manmade things from the past.” Instead, the passage shows that maps are dynamic things that can change our view of the world in the present. Choice B is incorrect because there is no discussion about how long maps last. If anything, Choice B contradicts the main point because the passage says that maps need to be kept up to date. Choice C is incorrect because it only says that maps are changing. It does not refer to mapmakers, the main subject of the passage, at all.

Passage 4 - The Art of a Cat's Lap

34

Content: introductions, conclusions, and supporting details

Choice A is the best answer because the question is asking about the “significance” or “importance” of stroboscopic photography as it “pertains” or “relates” to the passage. The passage focuses on the mechanics of how a cat uses its tongue to get the most milk into its mouth when it drinks. The passage begins by discussing the method used by ordinary house cats then brings up differences in lap depending on the size of the feline. Choice A shows why stroboscopic photography is important to the discussion because it says that stroboscopic photography is what allowed people to study and understand the mechanics of lapping milk.

Choice B in incorrect because it introduces the idea of hummingbirds, which are not discussed elsewhere in the passage. Choice B therefore shows why stroboscopic photography can be useful but does not show how it is relevant to the passage. Choice C also brings up details not related to cats lapping milk. Choice C deals with the person who created stroboscopic photography, but he is not mentioned elsewhere in the passage. Choice D only relates to the film, so it does not tie in stroboscopic photography or cats at all.

35

Content: precision and concision

Choice C is the best answer because it concisely provides all the information necessary to understand the sentence.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they are redundant. Choice A repeats the idea of “moves milk” from the main sentence in the words “for milk.” Choice B repeats the idea of “cat’s”; since the tongue belongs to the cat, it is clear that the conduit for milk also belongs to the cat. Choice D uses “naturally” and “unconsciously,” but they both convey the idea of “done without thinking.” Therefore, both are not needed.

36

Content: combine sentences

Choice A is the best answer because it effectively changes the second sentence into a list explaining the “uses for its tongue” mentioned in the previous sentence. A colon divides the list from the main clause and ensures that the two acts, “grooming” and “tearing meat from bones,” have equal importance.

Choice B is incorrect because “even” changes the meaning of the sentence by placing more emphasis or surprise on “tearing meat from bones” than it does on “grooming.” However, in the original sentences, the two acts have equal importance. In addition, “well-known” includes the idea of “commonly” because it is observed often enough for people to know about it. Therefore, “commonly” is not needed in the combined sentences. Choice C is incorrect because a dash gives different importance to the two acts. “Grooming” is an example, but the “act of tearing meat from bones” is an additional detail. “The act of” is redundant so should not be repeated. Choice D is incorrect because “and other such uses” turns “tearing meat from bones” into an act of much less importance than the act of grooming.

37

Content: punctuation

Choice C is the best answer because “a team of researchers at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology” is the entire subject. All of those words are needed for the reader to know what the subject is, so all the words are essential. Essential words should not be divided from the main clause with any punctuation.

All of the other choices are incorrect because they divide essential parts of the subject from each other. In Choice A, “of researchers” appears to be an unnecessary modifier describing “a team.” However, without “of researchers,” it is not clear which team is being referred to. Choices B and D only contain one comma, so it divides the sentence into two illogical parts that cannot stand on their own. It is unclear where the main clause starts or ends.

38

Content: tense, mood, and voice

Choice C is the best answer because the underlined portion is a verb that goes with “the speed and precision of a house cat’s laps.” This subject can be simplified to “speed and precision,” which makes it clear that the subject is two things joined by “and.” Therefore, the subject is considered plural. When discussing a general scientific truth, the present tense is used even though the main clause (the research discovered) is in past tense. Choice C is the present, plural form of “to play.”

Choice A is incorrect because it is singular, so does not agree with the plural subject “speed and precision.” Choice B is incorrect because it is used to show an actual action that is occurring at the same time as another action in the passage. It is not used to describe a hypothetical situation or general scientific truth. Choice D is incorrect because it refers to something that occurred in the past up to the present but will end. It does not fit a discussion of the mechanics of cats lapping milk, which will also continue into the future.

39

Content: subordination and coordination

Choice B is the best answer because it makes “forming…liquid” into an action of the subject of the clause. This structure correctly shows that the column is formed by the water.

Choice A is incorrect because it is a comma splice between two independent clauses. Choice C is incorrect because “forms…liquid” needs to be preceded by a conjunction such as “and” to show how it relates to the rest of the sentence. Otherwise, it is not clear that the phrase is an additional action of “the water.” Choice D is incorrect because a semicolon needs to divide two independent clauses, but the following portion cannot stand on its own as a sentence.

40

Content: logical sequence

Choice D is the best answer because the paragraph is discussing the mechanism of a cat lapping milk. The order is sequential, with the first step listed first, then the following step, and so on. Sentence 6 describes the very last act in the sequence, closing the mouth around the milk. The final statement, “thereby capturing the greatest volume of water” summarizes the reason for the process. Therefore, Sentence 6 should go at the end of the passage.

All of the other choices are incorrect because they place the final step of closing the mouth before the discussion of bringing the water to the mouth is complete. Therefore, all of the other choices interrupt the logical flow of the sequence of events. In addition, placing “thereby capturing the greatest volume of water” in the middle leaves the paragraph without a solid concluding idea.

41

Content: parallelism

Choice A is the best answer because the underlined portion is one of two actions that “the researchers” did. The first action is “collected data from a zoo in New England.” Choice A uses “and” to show that there is a second action. It also correctly uses the same verb tense, the simple past tense, so that the verbs are parallel with each other.

Choice B is incorrect because there is no comma before “watching.” As a result, the word modifies the noun that directly precedes it, “a zoo in New England.” However, the zoo did not watch the videos, the researchers did. Choice C is incorrect because “watching” is not parallel with “collected.” Two verbs joined by “and” need to be in the same tense. Choice D is incorrect because there is no conjunction such as “and” preceding it, so it is unclear how “watched…cat” relates to the rest of the sentence.

42

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice B is the best answer because it is a standard expression meaning “in relation to.” It fits the context of saying that the “frequency” or “speed” of lapping changes in relation to the “mass” or “size” of the cat.

Choices A and C are incorrect because, although “dependent” can also be used to mean “determined by,” it needs to be followed by “on.” Choice D is also incorrect because it is not standard usage. “Depending” needs to be followed by “on.”

43

Content: graphics

Choice A is the best answer because underlined portion relates to the number of laps for “lion.” The point for “lion” is given on the graph as a solid black circle. The number of laps, or “frequency,” is given on the y-axis. The black circle for “lion” is above the number 1.5 and below the line for 2.0. Therefore, it laps between 1.5 and 2 times per second.

None of the other choices corresponds to the black circle for “lion.” Choice B refers to the open circle which represents “cheetah.” Choice C matches the open triangle for “leopard.” Choice D does not match any of the points for cats on the graph; it is the end of the trend line.

44

Content: transitions

Choice D is the best answer because the previous sentence gives examples of the rates that house cats and lions lap water. These support the claim that larger cats lap slower than smaller cats. The following sentence gives the reason that researchers assume explains the difference: the way gravity reacts with water on the tongue. Choice D provides an effective transition because “this difference” refers to the different rates in the previous sentence. It bridges that idea with the question of “what causes” or “why” is there a difference. That question introduces the following assumption about why a difference exists.

Choice A is incorrect because it asks, “how did researchers solve,” so the answer should be a method. Therefore, it does not introduce the following sentence, which is an assumption rather than a way of solving something. Choice B is incorrect because it asks about other felines, which interrupts the discussion about a difference between two types of cat and an explanation about why that difference might exist. The following sentence does not say what other feline rates are. Choice C is incorrect because it is redundant. It explains the content of the following sentence but does not make the reader pause to contemplate the problem with a more general statement.

1

Choice A is the best answer because “made you forget” precedes two different things: “where you were” (line 5) and “where your arms and legs ended and luscious sound began” (lines 6-7). These qualities are used to explain what Virginia feels about “real music” (line 5), as opposed to “accompanying the theater troupe’s performances and clowning around as her friend Parker picked out old Beatles songs on the piano” (lines 2-4), which she felt “didn’t count” (line 4). Therefore, “made you forget” is used to “emphasize” or “reinforce” the qualities that Virginia “associates” or “connects” with music that she finds “real” or “powerful.”

Choice B is incorrect because Virginia says that the “old Beatles songs on the piano didn’t count” (lines 3-4), so those are not part of the “real music” (line 5) she is explaining with the repeated phrase. Choice C is incorrect because there is no indication that any of Virginia’s memories are “fading” or “growing less strong.” Choice D is incorrect because there is no indication that Virginia feels “regret” or “sadness” about ending her studies. She is just thinking about the difference between casual and “real” playing.

2

Choice B is the best answer because the description of Virginia’s experience with the tonette describes how she liked the “neatness” (line 13) of the instrument, its “modest” (line 14) or “limited” range, and the way it fit into her desk (lines 14-15, “and how…right side”). The third paragraph (lines 19-25, “she chafed…velvet”) explains how she “chafed” or “was impatient” to get her own instrument. In other words, she liked the tonette but was “interested” or “eager” to pursue her learning in a more serious way. This shows a “commitment” or “dedication” to learning music.

Choice A is incorrect because “extraordinary aptitude” is a “very high level of skill.” However, there is no indication in the discussion of the tonette that Virginia’s talent was any greater than the other students in her class. Choice C is incorrect because there is no mention that Virginia had a “fear of failure” or “concern about not doing well.” The passage shows that she tried to do well so she could get a real instrument but does not say she was worried about doing poorly. Choice D is incorrect because “resentment” refers to being unhappy because something is unfair. However, there is no indication that Virginia felt that it was unfair that she had to practice music as a child. The description of the tonette shows that she “chafed” (line 19), but that was more because she was impatient about waiting to get her own instrument than because she was upset about the time she had to dedicate to music.

3

Choice C is the best answer because “housed” is used to show the relationship between the “violins, violas, cellos and double basses” (lines 37-38) and the “main building” (line 37). The instruments are “kept” or “stored” in that place. This usage of “stored” is the same as in line 27, which shows that the “music instruments” (line 37) were kept “in a classroom trailer” (line 38).

None of the other choices has the same meaning as “kept.” Choice A refers to “placing (a finger) on” a hole. Choice B refers to changing the place where a person lives. Choice D means “to remove a lid.”

4

Choice B is the best answer because “appearance” refers to the way that something looks. Virginia does not like the look of the flute because she “nearly winced from the glare bouncing off all that polished silver” (lines 29-30), meaning that she almost jumped back because the metal reflected so much light. She also thought that the caps and hinges were “gloating” (line 30) or “expressing evil pleasure.” Virginia felt that the clarinet was “worse” (line 31) because it had an appearance “like an overdesigned walking stick” (lines 31-32), meaning that it seemed like it was too fancy and created for a different purpose. In addition, she did not like the sound because it seemed “like a clown laughing” (line 32). Therefore, she is “repelled” or “disgusted” by those instruments.

Choice A is incorrect because “skeptical” means “doubtful,” but there is no sign that Virginia things that there is any problem with the “quality” or “general level” of the instruments. She is upset not by the fact that they are cheap or poorly made; she is upset because she doesn’t like the way they look and sound. Choice C is incorrect because there is no discussion of the “condition” or “way” that the instruments were “stored” or “kept,” let alone that the way was “poor.” They could have been maintained very well. Choice D is incorrect because there is no discussion of Virginia trying to play the instruments. Therefore, there is no evidence of “frustration” or “becoming upset” because they are difficult to play.

5

Choice A is the best answer because lines 40-41 say that Virginia was “was too intimidated by the teacher’s growing impatience to protest” when she saw the cello. Since “intimidated” means to be “frightened,” the lines show that Virginia was too “reluctant” or “hesitant” to ask for an “alternative” or “different” instrument.

Choice B is incorrect because the stringed instruments are not in the trailer, they are in the main building: “she sighed, leading the way back…into the main building, where the violins, violas, cellos and double basses were housed” (lines 35-38). Choice C is incorrect because the comparison with a wild animal, a tiger, occurs after Virginia has played the instrument for almost a year. Her first impression of the appearance was “a child-sized android” (line 43), meaning a small robot. Therefore, she did not accept the instrument because it reminded her of a human-like creature. Choice D is incorrect because, though she grows to feel that the sound of the cello has “soulful attributes” or “emotional qualities,” that later realization was not why she agreed to be assigned the instrument. Lines 44-45 use the transition “it was not long,” to bring up the discussion of the sound, showing that her appreciation of the sound came later.

6

Choice A is the best answer because “perceives a relationship” means “sees a connection." Virginia feels she had made a good choice in selecting the violoncello, which she selected “by virtue of its sonorous name” (lines 38-39), meaning that she chose it on the basis of its full and rich name. Lines 46-48 say Virginia felt “the sound of its name was synonymous with the throbbing complaint that poured out of its cumbersome body.” In other words, the full and rich name the instrument was called was “synonymous” or “equivalent” to the sound that it made.

None of the other choices are supported by any evidence from the passage. For Choice B, there is no reference to the “maintenance” or “care” that a cello needs, so there is no sign of a “relationship” or “link” between the care and the way it should be played. Choice C is incorrect because there is no discussion of how popular a cello is. Choice D is incorrect because there is no description about how “widely available” or “easy to find” a cello is.

7

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Virginia “perceives a relationship” or “sees a connection” between what an instrument is called and how it sounds. Choice D supports that claim because it says that the “sound of its name” (line 46) was “synonymous” (line 36) or “equivalent” to the sound—"the throbbing complaint” (line 47)— from the instrument.

None of the other choices shows that Virginia felt there was a relationship between the name and the sound of the cello. Choice A says that Virginia was impatient about getting her own instrument. Choice B says that she did not like the appearance of the flute. Choice C says that the teacher led Virginia to a different place that instruments were kept.

8

Choice C is the best answer because lines 66-68 say, “she had to love and not be scared.” In Choice C, “apprehension” means “worry or “fear,” which are synonyms of “scared.” “Affection” means “fondness” or “love.” Therefore, Choice C accurately summarizes Virginia’s realization that she needs to love rather than be afraid of the cello.

None of the other choices are supported by evidence from the passage. Choice A is incorrect because, while she may be “uncertain” or “not sure,” there is no hint that she must have “firm commitment” or “strong dedication or loyalty.” Choice B is incorrect because, though she may be “dissatisfied” or “not happy” with the cello at first, she realizes that she needs to do more than “accept” or “work with” the cello. Lines 66-67 say, “she had to love” it. Therefore, “reluctant” or “hesitant” acceptance does not describe a full and heartfelt welcome of the instrument. Choice D is incorrect because there is no reference to “deep respect” or “high admiration.” She may be “frustrated” or “annoyed at a lack of progress,” but she does not feel that admiring the instrument will change how she interacts with it.

9

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Virginia recognizes a need to change her attitude toward the cello from one of “apprehension” or “fear” to calm “affection” or “love.” Choice D paraphrases this claim because it says she realizes she needs to love rather than be afraid.

None of the other choices show that Virginia sees that she needs to change her attitude from being afraid to loving the instrument. Choice A only says that it took a long time to hold the instrument. Choice B just describes a new place for practicing. Choice C says that she tries to use good posture.

10

Choice D is the best answer because the italicized portion includes the first sentences that take place in the present tense. They emphasize that the previous portion was “fantasy” or “memory.” Therefore, the italicized portion serves to transition the reader from the past events to the present events that follow. In other words, the italicized portion “indicates” or “shows” a “shift” or “change” in time and perspective from memories of the past to present actions.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication that the memories are incorrect. The italicized portion only shows that Virginia hasn’t thought about those memories for a long time. Therefore, the sentences are not italicized in order to “cast doubt” or “question” whether the memories are “accurate” or “correct.” Choice B is incorrect because the italicized portion is referring to Virginia’s current thoughts about the memories. Since the memories are about Virginia’s experiences, there is no new “character” or “person” introduced. Choice C is incorrect because there is no indication that the memories are “imagined” or “not real.” “Fantasy” in the italicized portion is referring to “daydreams” rather than “made up stories.” Therefore, the contrast is between past and present rather than real and unreal.

11

Choice C is the best answer because Schwartz’s study is described in the first paragraph (lines 1-16, “a variety…the world”). Lines 9-11 say, “Schwartz found that the helpers…reported profound improvements in their self-worth and their moods.” Since the “helpers” are the “givers” of support, they had improved “well-being” or “happiness” because they had improved “self-worth” or “feelings of importance” and “moods” or “emotions.” There is no evidence in the paragraph about the results for the “recipients” or “receivers” of emotional support.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they refer to the “recipients” or “receivers” of emotional support, but the passage does not describe what changes occurred in that group.

12

Choice D is the best answer because “positive” refers to the givers’ impression of their “force in the world” (line 16) because of the help they gave. This force is something that the givers became or “transformed” into from a bad or negative state, “from something that victimized them” (line 15). Choice D means “good,” so it is the best description of a new force that was completely changed from something that was bad.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they do not provide an opposite contrast for a negative, bad situation to transform into because of helping others. Choice A refers to feeling certain about something rather than helping. Choice B means “useful.” Choice C means “clearly defined.”

13

Choice A is the best answer because “associations” refers to what has been found “between helping and happiness” (line 42). These “associations” are described as “more or less strong” (lines 41-42). Since A refers to “relationships” or “connections,” it fits the context of describing that there are relationships between helping and happiness.

None of the other choices effectively describes the more or less strong way that helping and happiness relate to each other. Choices B and D refer to groups of people with a particular purpose, so do not describe the qualities of helping or happiness. Choice C refers to different ways that things can be mixed or joined. Therefore, it does not summarize a cause-and-effect relationship in which helping leads to happiness.

14

Choice D is the best answer because the author’s interpretation of Lyubomirsky’s study is that “altruistic acts may need to be frequent in order to confer a lasting change in well-being” (lines 57-58). In other words, “altruistic” or “good” acts need to be “frequent,” meaning “happen often,” to “confer” or “create” a “lasting,” meaning “long-term,” change. If a study shows that “occasional” or “infrequent” altruistic acts create “long-lasting increases in personal happiness,” that would “undermine” or “cast doubt” on the idea that acts must be frequent to create a long-term change.

None of the other choices “undermines” or “casts doubt” on the interpretation that good deeds must be frequent to create a lasting change in well-being. Choice A says that the happiness remains constant when there is a change from “frequent” to “very frequent” numbers of good deeds, but it does not refer to what might happen if the acts do not happen often at all. Choice B refers to “immediate benefits,” but the author’s interpretation of Lyubomirsky’s study does not relate to the results of the acts. The interpretation only refers to how often acts occur, so Choice B does not affect that conclusion. Choice C refers to the amount of effort required to perform the act. As with Choice B, the author’s interpretation of Lyubomirsky’s study does not relate to this aspect of the acts, so Choice C would not affect an interpretation based only on the number of acts.

15

Choice B is the best answer because the quote offers a possibility that giving only gives a “very short bump in happiness” (lines 61-62). This possibility is one reason or explanation for the conclusion that “altruistic acts may need to be frequent in order to confer a lasting change in well-being” (lines 57-58). In other words, the possibility given in the quotation is a “possible explanation” or “reason” for the result of Lyubomirsky’s study that “students who spaced the kind acts out, performing them on different days, didn’t experience the same happiness boost” (lines 54-56).

Choice A is incorrect because the “hypothesis that a study is intended to test” is the basic idea that the study tries to prove or disprove. However, Lyubomirsky did not set out to see if giving creates a “very short bump in happiness” (lines 61-62). Lines 41-45 explain the real hypothesis: “while many survey studies have found more or less strong associations between helping and happiness...Sonja Lyubomirsky wanted to test the connection in a real-world setting.” In other words, she was testing if there an association between helping and happiness in real situations. Choice C is incorrect because Borgonovi does not “criticize” or “complain about” a problem with Lyubomirsky’s study. Choice D is incorrect because the quotation from Borgonovi does not include the results of any other studies. The quotation only gives a possible reason for the findings.

16

Choice A is the best answer because lines 64-66 say, “being generous boosts your mood and health because it strengthens your sense that you’re really doing something significant.” In other words, helping others improves your well-being because it makes you feel that you are doing something important. This idea is summarized by Choice A, which says that the belief of the “effect” or “result”—in this case, the feeling of importance— “benefits” or “helps” the person.

Choice B is incorrect because “feedback” refers to a response. However, there is no discussion in the passage about the responses of the people who “benefit from” or “receive” the acts of kindness. The only discussion is about the benefits for the people who do the acts. Choice C is incorrect because, while the passage discusses changes in brain chemistry that occur from doing acts of kindness (lines 66-72, “the social…norepinephrine”), it does not discuss what happens when people “merely” or “only” think about the acts. There could be a different brain response for thinking and actually doing the acts. Choice D is incorrect because “social approval” refers to the positive response of others about the acts. However, the passage does not discuss the reaction of other people.

17

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that people who perform altruistic acts benefit partly because of beliefs that they hold about the effect of such acts. Choice C says that mood and health are improved because people think they are doing something “significant” or “important.” Therefore, it shows that the “belief” or “thought” about the “effect” or “result” is what helps the people “benefit” or “gain an advantage” of better well-being.

None of the other choices supports the idea that beliefs about the effects or results of the acts help give people an advantage. Choice A gives details about a study, but not about its results. Choice B says that acts need to happen often to give a benefit, but it does not refer to people’s beliefs about the effects at all. Choice D refers to a physical reason that helping others may be beneficial; it does not say why thoughts about the results might be beneficial.

18

Choice C is the best answer because the “percentage of respondents agreeing” is given in the right-hand column. The highest number is 92%, in the bottom row. That row is titled “volunteering enriches my sense of purpose in life.” Since “enriches” means “increases,” the greatest percentage of respondents said that they had a greater sense of purpose.

None of the other choices corresponds to the highest percentage, 92%. Choice A is only 68%. Choice B, “self-esteem,” is not discussed in the table. Choice D is 73%.

19

Choice B is the best answer because according to figure 1, “survey respondents” are “American adults who volunteered in previous year.” The passage says that one of the benefits from volunteering is that “the boost we get from helping may also mute our stress response, causing us to release fewer jarring stress hormones such as cortisol and norepinephrine” (lines 70-72). Since the survey respondents helped others, the majority of them may have “experienced” or “had” lower levels of cortisol and norepinephrine after volunteering.

None of the other choices can be inferred from the information in the passage. Choice A is incorrect because there is no discussion about why people volunteer, so there is no way to say why the respondent “value” or “appreciate” it. There is no indication that they have higher “empathy” or “ability to understand others” than usual. Choice D is incorrect because, while the passage says in paragraph 3 (lines 26-40, “in best-case…never helped”) that volunteering increases the chance of living longer than people who do not volunteer, there is no discussion about people who volunteered but who did not feel that it was beneficial. Therefore, it is impossible to determine the longevity of one group of volunteers compared to another. Choice D is incorrect because there is no indication that volunteers “always” or “at every time” have higher levels of oxytocin. The implication in lines 66-70 (“the social…oxytocin”) is that volunteering only creates a “boost,” which is a short-term increase.

20

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that it can reasonably be inferred that the majority of survey respondents represented in figure 1 may have experienced decreases in the level of certain hormones after volunteering. Choice D supports that claim because it gives the example of two specific hormones, cortisol and norepinephrine, that are released in lower levels when people volunteer. Since the respondents in figure 1 were volunteers, it is reasonable to assume that they had lower levels of these hormones after doing their acts of kindness.

None of the other choices support the claim that the majority of survey respondents may have experienced decreases in the level of certain hormones after volunteering. All of the choices refer to benefits of volunteering, but they do not discuss hormone levels at all. Therefore, they do not provide evidence that hormone levels probably decreased for many of the survey respondents.

21

Choice B is the best answer because figure 1 presents specific percentages for respondents who agree with certain statements about how volunteering helped them. The respondents to the 2010 survey were “4,500 American adults who volunteered during previous year.” Paragraph 2 (lines 17-25, “in a 2010…measures”) discusses this survey, but only gives a percentage for one statement, “89 percent…stated that volunteering improved their sense of well-being” (lines 18-19). Therefore, figure 1 provides the specific results that are generalized in the passage as “a sizable majority” (line 20). Figure 2 gives an average change in well-being over a 6-week period for three groups, a control, a group that performed five kind acts in a single day, and a group that performed five kind acts on different days. The data corresponds to the study conducted by Lyubomirsky and described in Paragraphs 4-6 (lines 41-72, “while many…norepinephrine”).

Choice A is incorrect because the data in the figures supports, not “challenges” or “goes against” the claims made by the passage. Choice C is incorrect because a “visual interpretation” refers to a graph that compares numbers in a way that can easily be seen, such as columns or different-height points. However, figure 1 presents information only using numbers and words. In addition, figure 1 refers to a 2010 study and figure 2 refers to the study by Lyubomirsky. Therefore, both figures do not discuss the “first study mentioned in the passage,” which is a 1999 study by Carolyn Schwartz (lines 1-16, “a variety…the world”). Choice D is incorrect because the author never says that the studies “require further evaluation” or “need more examination.” The studies are presented as completed with acceptable findings.

22

Choice A is the best answer because paragraph 1 introduces the idea of a “bionic leaf.” Paragraph 2 shows the first step of the process of creating the bionic leaf, something referred to as an “artificial leaf” (line 16). The importance of the artificial leaf is described in paragraph 3, “the hydrogen it produces is a versatile fuel” (line 32). Paragraph 3 transitions into the importance of the bionic leaf, it creates liquid fuel that is “much easier to handle and store” (line 36). Paragraph 4 then explains the next step in the process of creating the bionic leaf, describing how it works. The final paragraphs round out the discussion by giving examples of how the bionic leaf may be used in the future, such as making “antibiotics, pesticides, herbicides, fertilizer, and pharmaceuticals” (lines 68-69). Therefore, the primary purpose of the passage is to discuss the “development” or “creation” and “significance” or “importance” of the bionic leaf.

Choice B is incorrect because “document” means “to list or describe” and “current” means “happening now." However, the passage indicates that the bionic leaf is in the development process and that it does not have “commercial” or “profitable” uses now. The passage only gives examples of how it may be commercially used in the future. Choice C is incorrect because there is no “debate” or “argument presenting different viewpoints” of the bionic leaf. There is only a straightforward description of its current “effectiveness” or “success.” The level of energy output is not high, but it is expected to increase in the future. Choice D is incorrect because, although the differences between the artificial leaf and the bionic leaf are discussed, that is not the main purpose of the passage. There is no “analysis” or “examination” of those differences in detail. The differences are only brought up to show how one was used to create the other.

23

Choice D is the best answer because lines 7-11 say that “the pair…share an interest in developing energy sources that might someday have practical application in remote locales in the developing world.” In other words, they want to “develop” or “create” energy sources that have a “practical application,” meaning a “worthwhile use.” These energy sources will help “remote locales,” meaning “distant places” in the “developing world,” which refers to countries that do not currently have reliable services like electricity and water. Therefore, the “motivation” or “reason” for the pair’s research is partly an interest to help communities that “lack adequate” or “do not have enough” access to reliable energy.

There is no evidence in the passage showing that the other choices are reasons that the pair are working on their research. Choice A is incorrect because there is no mention in the passage that many countries “lack” or “do not have” natural resources that could be “converted” or “turned into” fuel. Choice C is incorrect because there is no evidence that liquid fuels are easier to produce than gas fuels, only that they are “much easier to handle and store” (line 36). It also does not say that liquid fuels are less efficient; it only says that the current production level of the bionic leaf is less efficient than desired. Choice C is also not supported by any evidence from the passage. The implication is that solar energy, if converted to a liquid fuel, would be easy “to handle and store” (line 36).

24

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Silver and Nocera’s research was “motivated” or “inspired” in part by a desire to address the problem that some communities lack adequate access to reliable energy sources. In other words, they did their research to help communities or areas that cannot consistently get energy. This claim is supported by Choice C, which says that the two scientists “share an interest in” or “both want to” “develop” or “create” energy that can be used in areas that need reliable energy.

None of the other choices support the claim that the research was inspired by a desire to help communities gain access to reliable fuel. Choice A only says that a new type of generator was created; it does not explain what motivated the development. Choice B says that the pair worked on the leaf but does not explain why. Choice D discusses part of the mechanism without describing why the team developed it.

25

Choice B is the best answer because the paragraph discusses the way the artificial leaf works. The artificial leaf is a “central component” or “essential part” of the bionic leaf, as introduced in lines 16-17: the “artificial leaf…serves as the fuel source in the bionic leaf.” The “fuel source” is certainly an essential part of the new technology. The body of the paragraph describes how that leaf works (lines 19-25, “when submersed…other side”) and explains its current level of efficiency (lines 27-31, “today, it…constantly”).

Choice A is incorrect because the artificial leaf is not a “competitor” or “opponent” that may take part of the market for the bionic leaf. Instead it is a part used as the fuel source in the bionic leaf. Choice A is incorrect because, while photosynthesis is discussed, photosynthesis is introduced to explain how the artificial leaf works. A discussion of the “development” or “creation” of the bionic leaf comes later in the passage. Choice D is incorrect because the second paragraph is not comparing the efficiency of the two leaves. Instead, it is explaining the efficiency of the artificial leaf to give the reader background information that helps understand the discussion of the potential efficiency of the fuel source for the bionic leaf which comes later in the passage.

26

Choice A is the best answer because lines 21-25 discuss the chemical process within the artificial leaf: “current from the silicon solar wafer is fed to the catalysts, which split water molecules: oxygen bubbles off the catalyst on one side of the wafer, while hydrogen rises from the catalyst on the wafer’s other side.” This process is accurately summarized by Choice A.

None of the other choices are supported by evidence from the passage. All of the other choices refer to carbon dioxide, but the passage does not refer to carbon dioxide in the process used by the artificial leaf.

27

Choice C is the best answer because “captures” is the action that “a field-grown plant” (line 27) does to “only 1 percent of sunlight’s energy” (line 28). Since the plant is converting the sunlight energy into fuel, the plant is “taking (the sunlight) for its advantage.” In other words, it is “using” the sunlight.

None of the other choices adequately describes the relationship between the plant and the sunlight. Choice A means “to write down,” but a plant does not write anything. Choice B means “give a detailed description of,” but a plant does not speak or explain anything. Choice D refers to defeating something, but a plant does not try to “win” a contest with the sunlight, it just passively converts the sunlight for its own use.

28

Choice A is the best answer because “trick” refers to the method of “bioengineering pioneered by Anthony Sinskey” (lines 42-43) that allows the bacteria to “produce isopropanol” (line 45). Since this method creates something useful that “can be burned in an engine much like the gasoline additive ethanol” (lines 45-46), the “method” or “technique” is considered “clever” or “intelligent.”

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they contain negative implications, but the “trick” was a good thing that allowed the bionic leaf to create a usable fuel, isopropanol. In Choice B, “mischievous” refers to a playful intent to cause trouble, and “prank” is an act done by someone with the idea of creating a joke. Choice C is incorrect because “fleeting” means “temporary” and “illusion” refers to something that only looks real but is not. However, the method of producing isopropanol is a real thing which continues to exist. Choice D is incorrect because “deliberate” means “done with intent” and “deception” is an act that “deceives” or causes someone to believe something that is not true.

29

Choice D is the best answer because Colón’s remarks include the fact that the bionic leaf offers an “unprecedented platform” (line 48) or “never-before seen opportunity.” In other words, it is “innovative” or “creative and new.” The remarks also highlight the “great potential” or “range of possibilities” of the bionic leaf because it says that it could “open the door to making many of the natural compounds we rely on every day” (lines 56-57).

Choice A is incorrect because “technological sophistication” refers to the advanced nature of the engineering, and “intricate design” refers to the complexity of the system. However, Colón does not describe the mechanics of the leaf at all. He only describes the advantages and possibilities of using the leaf. Choice B is incorrect because Colón praises the leaf, but he does not mention the “collaborative spirit” or “desire to work together” of the inventors. In fact, he does not mention the inventors and their hard work at all. Choice C is incorrect because there is no mention about the “careful testing” or “precise experimenting” that went into creating the leaf. Also, “continuous improvement” refers to ongoing changes for the better, and although Colón discusses possibilities of the leaf, he does not describe any specific changes that are now being made.

30

Choice B is the best answer because the question is asking for an “assumption” or “belief” that has yet to be “substantiated” or “proved.” Choice B is something which the researchers believe to be true, but which they have not yet proved. The “if” in line 55 shows a possibility: “If you can use enzymes for building chemicals, you open the door to making many of the natural compounds we rely on every day” (lines 55-57). Therefore, the scientists assume that other chemicals can be “built” or “produced” by the leaf, but they have not yet made any.

Choice A is incorrect because lines 62-64 say, “in its first iteration, the bionic leaf matched the efficiency of photosynthesis in plants.” In other words, the leaf already is able to produce energy “equal” to or “the same as” a plant can. Choice A is proven to be true, so has been “substantiated.” Choice C is incorrect because there is no discussion of changing the catalysts in the leaf from artificial to natural ones. The “catalysts” are described as being part of the artificial leaf (lines 16-19, “Nocera’s…catalysts”). The catalysts are “inorganic” (line 47), and although there is discussion of changing biological elements that are in the leaf, there is no discussion of replacing the catalysts with natural parts. Choice D is incorrect because the passage says that the leaf produces “isopropanol (rubbing alcohol), which can be burned in an engine much like the gasoline additive ethanol” (lines 45-46). Therefore, the fact that such a fuel can be “generated” or “made” is proved rather than unsubstantiated.

31

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the researchers have made the unsubstantiated assumption that the leaf can be used to produce chemical compounds other than isopropanol. The “if” in line 55 shows that the following explanation of making a variety of chemical compounds other than isopropanol is only a possibility. Therefore, Choice D shows that the idea is not “substantiated” or “proved.”

Choice A is incorrect because it shows that the leaf can generate isopropanol, but it does not show that there is an unproven assumption that the leaf can generate other chemical compounds. Choice B is incorrect because it says that the technology in the leaf is “unprecedented” or “creative and new,” and can create chemical synthesis. However, it does not show that the researchers assume but have not proved that other compounds can be made. Choice C is incorrect because it does not refer to the leaf’s capacities at all. It describes chemical reactions in nature.

32

Choice A is the best answer because lines 7-11 say, “It cannot in honesty be claimed that she is yet really democratic, when only about a third of her people enjoy democratic rights, and the rest— notwithstanding the fact that they constitute the majority—are still subjected to apartheid rule.” Therefore, Luthuli feels that the country is not fully democratic because only “a third of her people,” referring to white South Africans, have rights. This implies that to become fully democratic, the rest of the citizens, the black South Africans, must also have those rights. He emphasizes that point by saying, “Apartheid rule is the antithesis of democracy” (line 14). Since “antithesis” is the “exact opposite,” he is saying that democracy can only exist when Apartheid is gone; when whites no longer have greater freedoms and powers than blacks do.

Choice B is incorrect because Luthuli argues that blacks do not have political power yet, so he is not arguing for economic power “as well as” or “in addition to” something that does not yet exist. Choice C is incorrect because Luthuli is not saying that blacks need “their own” or “separate” political organizations. Instead, he is arguing that everyone needs the same “right to develop” (line 29) in the same way as the white South Africans. Choice D is incorrect because he does not say that blacks need to “constitute” or “form” the “majority” or “largest part” of the government. He is just saying that blacks should to have the same right to participate as whites do.

33

Choice B is the best answer because Luthuli says the “very nice and pretty phrases” are “used to justify this diversion from the democratic road” (lines 17-18). In other words, the phrases “justify” or “are reasons for” a “diversion” or “change in direction” from taking a course towards democracy. Choice B says that the phrases are used to “obscure” or “hide” an “indefensible” or “completely wrong” system of government. Therefore, Choice B captures the meaning of the phrases: they hide the fact that the government is headed towards a bad system rather than taking the correct path to democracy.

None of the other choices are supported by evidence from the text. Choice A is incorrect because the phrases are not used to “rectify” or “fix” an “intolerable” or “bad” situation. They are used to explain a “diversion” from a good situation to a bad one. Choice C is incorrect because there is no hint that the phrases are used to “undermine” or “lessen the effectiveness” of “outspoken critics” or “people who protest in a very clear way.” Choice D is incorrect because the phrases do not “depict” or “describe” the daily experience of most of the citizens. The passage says that most of the citizens are black, and the “pretty” phrases are used to cover up the fact that the blacks’ rights are limited.

34

Choice C is the best answer because “realizable” is used to describe the “vision of a democratic society in South Africa” (lines 34-35). The “realizable vision” is given as one option, and the other is “merely a mirage” (line 36). A “mirage” is an “illusion,” so Luthuli is comparing something that is an illusion or not real to something that is real. In other words, the vision can be “achieved” or “reached.”

None of the other choices defines “realizable” as it is used in the context of describing a possible vision. Choice A is incorrect because it refers to something that is bought or learned. It is not used when discussing goals or visions. Choice B means “understood,” but it is possible to understand a goal without it actually becoming true. Choice D refers to the attempt to reach or get something. However, Luthuli is not talking about the process of moving towards the vision. He is discussing a vision that can be successfully reached.

35

Choice C is the best answer because “inevitable” means “certain to happen.” Macmillan says that the “growth of national consciousness is a political fact” (lines 45-46), meaning that it is an accepted truth that cannot be changed. The phrase “whether we like it or not” (line 45), which highlights the point because it is used to emphasize that something will happen or is true.

None of the other choices are supported by evidence from the passage. Choice A is incorrect because “baffling” means “confusing.” However, Macmillan does not say that the growth of national consciousness is hard to understand, nor does he say that most nations “function efficiently” or “get along well without strong nationalist movements. Choice B is incorrect because “invigorating” means “makes one feel full of energy.” Macmillan may feel that it is exciting, but he does not say that most African nations are “ready to embrace diversity” or “accepting of racial differences.” He only says that the British have tried to embrace diversity (lines 77-80, “Finally, in countries…various parts”), but does not describe the attitudes of the people from the countries themselves. Choice D is incorrect because “remarkable” means “notable” or “amazing.” However, there is no indication that Macmillan feels that people doubted that nationalism would take hold.

36

Choice A is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the growth of national consciousness in Africa is “inevitable” or “certain to happen,” because nationalism in Africa is a force that cannot be stopped. Choice A supports that claim because it says that the growth of national consciousness is a “political fact” (line 46) or “true event.” The phrase “whether we like it or not” (line 45) is used to emphasize the unchanging nature of a point, so further emphasizes the point that the growth of national consciousness is certain to happen.

Choice B is incorrect because it says that South Africa will be the first African country to push for nationalism. However, it does not say that the event is “inevitable” or “certain to happen.” Choice C is incorrect because it only hints at the causes of the growth of national consciousness. There is no evidence that the growth has to happen. Choice D is incorrect because it describes the goals of the British; it does not say that nationalism is inevitable.

37

Choice A is the best answer because lines 63-66 say, “Our judgement of right and wrong and of justice is rooted in the same soil as yours—in Christianity and in the rule of law as the basis of a free society.” In other words, he thinks that the moral values of “right and wrong” and “justice” are “rooted in the same soil” or “have the same basis.” That basis is Christian values and the belief that laws are important to a free society. Therefore, Macmillan is saying that Britain and South Africa share the important values of morality.

Choice B is incorrect because Macmillan does not say that the government should “take a leadership role” or “be in charge” of other African nations. He only asserts that South Africa is the first in facing the changes brought about by nationalism. Choice C is incorrect because Macmillan never “acknowledges” or “admits” that South Africa has larger challenges than Britain does. He only says that Britain has “long experience both of failure and success” (lines 61-62). Choice D is incorrect because Macmillan does not “lament” or “express sorrow” at Britain’s difficulties in “sustaining” or “upholding” free societies. If anything, he takes pride in Britain’s accomplishments in doing so.

38

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Macmillan presents his argument to the South African government by “asserting” or “claiming” that Britain and South Africa share certain important values. Choice D supports this claim because it explains the specific values that Macmillan feels that the countries have in common: the moral values of “judgement of right and wrong and justice” (line 64). He continues to explain why those values are the same, the both come from Christianity and the belief that law is important.

None of the other choices provides evidence in support of the claim that Macmillan argues that Britain and South Africa share certain important values. Choice A just says that the two countries are free but does not say that they have shared values. Choice B is incorrect because it says that everyone must decide for themselves what is right. It does not say that there are common grounds about what things are considered “right.” Choice C is incorrect because it discusses the British view but not the African view, so does not draw any comparisons between the countries.

39

Choice B is the best answer because Luthuli says that “Apartheid rule is the antithesis of democracy” (line 14). An “antithesis” is a “complete opposite.” Since democracy is a government in which all individuals have a “share in political power and responsibility,” then apartheid rule is the complete opposite of such a government. Therefore, Luthuli would say that Macmillan’s demand for democracy is impossible as long as apartheid exists because the two are opposites and cannot exist together.

Choice A is incorrect because Luthuli does not compare economic and political power. He therefore would probably not argue that one type of power is more important than the other when discussing a demand for democracy. Choice C is incorrect because the situation that Macmillan describes is an ideal that is not “corrupt” or “wrong.” Therefore, Luthuli would not respond by saying that blacks would not want to “participate” or “belong to” the proposed system. Choice D is incorrect because Luthuli says that blacks do not participate in politics under apartheid; they are “are still subjected to apartheid rule” (line 11). Therefore, blacks do not have “significant” or “great” responsibilities in politics.

40

Choice A is the best answer because Luthuli says that “the essence of development along your own lines is that you must have the right to develop, and the right to determine how to develop” (lines 28-30). In other words, he feels that freedom involves allowing people to develop as individuals. Macmillan claims that a free society is one “in which men are given the opportunity to grow to their full stature” (lines 70-71). Therefore, he agrees that that “individual development” or “the opportunity to grow” is important.

Choice B is incorrect because, while Luthuli would say that democracy cannot exist where freedom is in any way “compromised” or “limited,” Macmillan would object. He feels that it is acceptable to limit freedom “in the countries for which we have borne responsibility” (lines 67-68) if it is done “to raise the material standards of life” (lines 68-69). Choice C is incorrect because the two speakers do not differentiate between kinds of freedom. Choice D is incorrect because Luthuli declares freedom “the very apex of human achievement” (lines 41-42) and claims that “every human being struggles to reach that apex” (lines 42-43). Therefore, he would say that freedom is beyond “nationalism” or “love of one’s country.”

41

Choice B is the best answer because Luthuli says that “the germ of freedom is in every individual” (line 38). He continues with, “In fact, the history of mankind is the history of man struggling and striving for freedom” (lines 39-41). In other words, he feels that the move towards freedom, a “social change” away from apartheid, will be “initiated” or “started” by the people themselves because he feels that all attempts towards freedom come from within each person. By contrast, Macmillan emphasizes the role played by those in positions of power because he says that social change “is a fact, for which you and we…are ultimately responsible” (lines 55-57); “you and we” refers to the governments of South Africa and Britain. He points out that “in our own areas of responsibility we must each do what we think right” (lines 59-60), and that the governments need “to create a society that respects the rights of individuals” (lines 69-70). Macmillan, therefore, feels that the government is more important than the individual in creating a new social system.

Choice A is incorrect because Luthuli does not say when social change will occur; if anything, he implies that it will happen soon because every individual is “struggling and striving for freedom” (lines 40-41). Macmillan says that change is happening but does not argue that “significant” or “major” change is “imminent” or “will happen very soon.” He implies that the process will take time as he discusses the “opportunity of an increasing share in political power and responsibility” (lines 72-73). Choice C is incorrect because Luthuli does state that eliminating apartheid is only a step toward genuine social change. His claim that “the essence of development along your own lines is that you must have the right to develop, and the right to determine how to develop” (lines 28-30) indicate that after apartheid is eliminated, people will continue to “develop” or “change.” However, Macmillan does not “contend” or “argue” that eliminating apartheid is an “ultimate” or “final” goal. He indicates that the final goal is “a society finally in which individual merit and individual merit alone, is the criterion for a man’s advancement, whether political or economic” (lines 73-76). The ultimate goal is therefore achieved after apartheid is eliminated. Choice D is incorrect because Luthuli does not say that change is only a result of “collective” or “group” action; he stresses that the nature of every individual is to want freedom, so implies that the struggle will occur no matter if the people are unified or not. Macmillan argues the opposite of “the need for change at the individual level” because he feels that the government should be responsible for making the proper decisions “to create a society that respects the rights of individuals” (lines 69-70).

42

Choice D is the best answer because question is asking what the author feels will happen when “challenging” or “questioning” the “conventional wisdom” or “accepted facts.” The author says that “eventually someone will challenge what everyone else knows to be true, and once in a while something really interesting will be found” (lines 12-14). In other words, he feels that sometimes if the wisdom is questioned, it could lead to “significant” or “notable” new “insights” or “understandings.”

Choice A is incorrect because, although the author says that challenging conventional wisdom may have “unexpected outcomes” or “surprising results,” he does not say that it “usually” happens. Instead, he says that “once in a while” (line 13) something unexpected will be found. Choice B is incorrect because the author does not say who challenges conventional wisdom or not. In fact, his example of finding water on the moon occurred inside scientific circles rather than outside because the main study described was conducted by “Erik Hauri and his colleagues at the Carnegie Institution” (lines 34-35). The Carnegie Institution is a respected scientific establishment. Choice C is incorrect because the author is not discussing “technological innovations” or “developments in using applied science.” Instead, he brings up a discussion of changes in theories related to the presence of water on the Moon.

43

Choice C is the best answer because lines 14-18 describe the 1994 Clementine spacecraft mission: “In 1994 a single flyby of the Clementine spacecraft mission produced radar measurements that were consistent with water ice, though many planetary scientists were unconvinced.” Therefore, the mission found “preliminary indications” or “first signs” of water on the Moon; it found radar measurements that could have been created by water ice. However, those signs were not strong enough evidence for everyone to believe, so more evidence was needed.

Choice A is incorrect because the passage implies that the evidence that was featured in Science magazine came when “in October 2009 NASA smashed the upper stage of an Atlas rocket into one of the Moon’s craters…and scrutinized the plume of impact debris for signs of H2O” (lines 24-28). Since the articles in Science came “that same October” (lines 31-32), it is reasonable to assume that they reported about the new results from analyzing the debris of the Atlas rocket. Choice B is not possible to determine from the text. It is possible that the 1994 Clementine spacecraft mission was “specifically designed” or “specially created” to search for water on the moon. Choice D is incorrect because, while the passage describes later technology that is more advanced, it does not say that the data from the flyby was not “the most up-to-date radar technology” at the time of the flight.

44

Choice C is the best answer because the question is asking for a reason that people believed that the Moon was completely “arid” or “without water.” Choice C says that “evidence” or “data” that might have “contradicted this notion” or “gone against this idea” could be explained in another way. Therefore, Choice C accurately summarizes the fact that data about hydrogen atoms that could indicate water ice could be explained in a way that involved no water ice: “the Sun’s solar wind” (line 23) could have “implanted hydrogen ions” (line 22). Therefore, people still thought that the Moon might be “arid” because there was another reason for the hydrogen ions to be present on the Moon.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no evidence that scientists were “unfamiliar with” or “did not know how to use” some of the “powerful analytical tools” or “capable technology” that they had. Choice B is incorrect because the scientists who were willing to challenge the conventional wisdom about the Moon were the ones who felt that there was water on the Moon. Therefore, those people weakened rather than strengthened the idea that the Moon was arid or had no water. Choice D is incorrect because the study by Hauri indicates that there were “sufficient quantities” or “enough” Apollo Moon rocks to support “valid” or “legitimate” conclusions. His team conclusively determined that there was water within the beads.

45

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the idea that the Moon was completely arid was reinforced in part because evidence that might have “contradicted” or “gone against” this notion could be explained in another way. In other words, the answer is that data indicating that there was water on the Moon could be caused by something other than water. Choice D supports that conclusion because it says that the hydrogen ions which could indicate water might not have been caused by water. Instead, there was a possibility that the hydrogen ions were put there by the Sun’s solar winds.

Choice A is incorrect because it offers evidence that the Moon was arid or had no water. It does not mention any evidence that could indicate water on the Moon. Choice B only refers to challenging conventional wisdom. It does not discuss water on the Moon at all. Choice C is incorrect because it only says that some scientists doubted that water exists on the Moon. Choice C does not say that the reason for their doubt was that the data could be explained by something other than water.

46

Choice A is the best answer because “resolve” is used to show what the “ion microprobe’s ability” (line 43) did to “measurements at the scale of a millionth of an inch” (lines 43-44). The passage suggests that the ion microprobe was able to tell apart very subtle differences that previous scientists were unable to tell apart. Since Choice A means “to tell apart” or “notice differences,” it accurately describes what the ion microprobe can do.

None of the other choices correctly explains what the “ion microprobe’s ability” (line 43) did to “measurements at the scale of a millionth of an inch” (lines 43-44). Choices B and C mean “become,” but the ability did not become a measurement. Choice D refers to emptying or removing something rather than determining a difference between parts.

47

Choice B is the best answer because “drive” is used to describe what the water on the Moon did to “surface volcanism” (line 58). Choice B means “to provide power.” Therefore, it fits the context of saying that there was enough water to provide power for surface volcanoes to “disperse” or “expel” magma in the very distant past.

None of the other choices adequately explain what the water did to the surface volcanism. Choice A means “to persuade using threats,” but water cannot “persuade” or “argue.” Choice C means “move from one place to another.” However, “surface volcanism” is a description of a general action. The volcanism transports the magma; the water does not. Choice D is incorrect because it means “to carefully manipulate.” However, water is inanimate so does not try to do something with care or not.

48

Choice A is the best answer because the writer says, “since the Moon formed primarily by the wholesale excavation of Earth’s primordial mantle during a collision with another massive object” (lines 64-66), he is saying that the Moon was formed mostly from material carved from the part of the Earth between the crust and the core when the Earth was hit by another large object. If the Moon is mostly made from Earth’s matter, then the implication is that any water on the Moon had its “primary source” or “originally came from” the Earth.

None of the other choices are supported by evidence from the passage. For Choice B, the writer says, “a great deal of water must still be locked somewhere inside the Moon’s frozen interior” (lines 62-63). Therefore, water is not just in glass beads collected from the surface. Choice C is incorrect because there is no indication that the water on the Moon will increase; the implication is that the water might decrease because “most of the glass beads’ original water has evaporated to space” (lines 50-51). Instead of being on the Moon, the water is lost to space. Choice D is incorrect because the passage refers to water “inside the Moon’s frozen interior” (line 63). If the water is frozen, it would be ice rather than in liquid form.

49

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that any water currently present on the Moon probably “had its primary source” or “originated” on Earth. Choice D supports that conclusion because it says that the Moon is mostly made from matter that came from the Earth when the Earth hit another large object. Therefore, it is implied that the water on the Moon also came from Earth at the time the Moon was formed.

Choice A is incorrect because it only says that scientists analyzed matter from the Moon. It does not refer to the origin of the Moon’s water in any way. Choices B and D are incorrect because they only say that the Moon probably had or has a lot of water. Choice B does not provide any evidence about where the water came from.

50

Choice D is the best answer because the entire chart refers to lunar glass bead green #5. The distance from the core is given on the x-axis, and the water concentration is given on the y-axis. Move up the y-axis until you reach 15 parts per million. Move across in a horizontal line until there is a point. Look at the number on the x-axis that the point is above. That point is “approximately” or “about” the “100 micrometers” label on the x-axis.

None of the other choices corresponds with a point for 15 parts per million (ppm) on the y-axis. Choice A is approximately 25 ppm. Choice B is about 23 ppm. Choice C is about 20 ppm.

51

Choice C is the best answer because the bead’s water concentration at 120 micrometers from the core is about 15 parts per million (ppm). The core is at the 0 on the x-axis; the x-axis gives the distance from the core and the core is the starting point of that scale. The point on the y-axis above the 0 is about 30 ppm. Since 15 is one half of 30, the water concentration at 120 micrometers is “approximately” or “about” half of the water concentration at its core.

None of the other choices are supported by data from the graph. Choice A is incorrect because there is one data point that is beyond100 micrometers from the bead’s core; that point is at 120 micrometers. The water concentration is given as just under 15 ppm. Therefore, there is a “detectable” or “measurable” amount of water at at least one point beyond 120 micrometers. Choice B is incorrect because the graph only shows the water concentration in the bead at the present (in 2008 when the chart was published). It does not show any changes in water concentration over time. Although now the water concentration does not exceed 30 ppm, it is possible that in the distant past there was significantly more water in the bead. Choice D is incorrect because there is no data showing what the past water content of the bead was. Therefore, it is impossible to tell the change in the water concentration over time.

52

Choice D is the best answer because the figure shows the water concentration at various distances from the core of one glass bead from the Moon. There is no data point given for the “rim” or “outer edge” of the bead, which could imply that it was “very dry” or had too little water to measure. The points increase in water concentration from less than 15 parts per million (ppm) at the farthest measured point from the core, 120 micrometers, and increases steadily to the core. The core has much more water, at about 30 ppm. The graph therefore supports the claim in Choice D that the outer edges of the beads are drier, and the core has more water.

Choice A is incorrect because it only refers to “aridity” or “dryness” on the Moon. However, the graph does not support that claim because it shows that there is at least some water on the Moon. Choice B is incorrect because it says that the Apollo rocks had no detectable water, but the graph counters that claim by showing that the rocks contained water. Choice C is incorrect because it refers to a study that does not relate to the lunar glass beads described in the figure.

1

Content: precision and concision

Choice A is the best answer because it concisely provides all of the necessary information. It shows that the thing that “ensures” or “guarantees” that the item is not damaged is the “cushiony material.”

All of the other choices can be eliminated as redundant. In Choice B, “shipments” in the non-underlined portion shows that the items are ones which are shipped. Therefore “that are shipped” can be eliminated. In Choice C, “commonly used” repeats the idea of “standard.” In Choice D, “guarantees” has the same meaning as “ensures.”

2

Content: introductions, conclusions, and supporting details

Choice D is the best answer because the following paragraph discusses how Pol’s team determined that the packing peanuts could be used to make battery anodes. The process is described in simple terms. Choice D effectively sets up that paragraph because it shows that the team came up with a solution to the problem of what to do with the packing peanuts, preparing the reader for a discussion of what that solution is.

Choice A is incorrect because it refers to the previous idea of curbside recycling, which is not mentioned in the following paragraph at all. Therefore, it does not prepare the reader for the discussion which follows. Choice B is incorrect because it refers to “environmental scientists” looking for a solution to the problem. However, Pol’s team is referred to as focused on chemical engineering, so does not fit the category described in Choice B. Choice C is incorrect because the following paragraph does not refer to landfills nor to a need to be alarmed. Instead, it offers a viable solution to the problem.

3

Content: misplaced modifiers

Choice B is the best answer because “By heating…atmosphere),” is a long modifier that shows the process used by Pol and his team. Therefore, the following noun needs to be “Pol and his team,” as it is in Choice B.

All of the other choices are incorrect because the main clause starts with a subject other than Pol and his team. As a result, the modifier “By heating…atmosphere),” illogically refers to something that is unable to perform the process of heating. In Choice A, it refers to “the carbon.” In Choice C, it refers to “the resulting chemical reaction.” In Choice D, it refers to “isolation.”

4

Content: punctuation

Choice C is the best answer because “that could be made into battery anodes” is an essential part of the main clause. It describes exactly what kind of carbon resulted. Therefore, no punctuation should divide the description from the noun that it refers to.

All of the other choices are incorrect because they separate “carbon” from the essential description which clarifies what type of carbon is being referred to, “that could be made into battery anodes.” Choice D is particularly problematic because a semicolon should divide two independent clauses, but the following portion cannot stand on its own.

5

Content: introductions, conclusions, and supporting details

Choice D is the best answer because the paragraph describes the qualities of the carbon resulting from Pol’s process. The paragraph also explains why those qualities are desirable for making batteries. Choice D sets up the paragraph well because it alerts the reader to the fact that the discussion will be about “effective” batteries, or ones that have desirable qualities, because of the carbon the researchers developed.

Choice A is incorrect because it refers to “further research,” but no additional studies or unanswered points are brought up in the paragraph. Instead, “potential applications” or “possible uses” are described as having been determined already. Choices B and C are incorrect because they bring up unsupported facts that are not discussed anywhere else in the passage. Therefore, these choices distract from the main point of the paragraph.

6

Content: transitions

Choice C is the best answer because the preceding portion of the sentence describes a characteristic of the anodes’ surfaces. The following portion is what happens because of that that characteristic: the batteries charged faster. Choice C clearly shows how the parts of the sentence relate because it shows that the following portion is a consequence or result of a prior claim.

None of the other choices correctly establishes the relationship between the parts of the sentence. Choice A is used to introduce a contrasting point rather than a result. Choices B and D are used to emphasize similarities between two things rather than show that one happens because of the other.

7

Content: pronouns

Choice C is the best answer because it clearly explains what the anodes retain.

All of the other choices can be eliminated as ambiguous. Choices A and B are incorrect because there are several plural words that the pronoun “them” or “these” could refer to: batteries, anodes, openings, or ions. Therefore, the noun needs to be established for the reader to know which is being referred to. Choice D is also incorrect because without a noun, the reader is left wondering “more what are retained?”

8

Content: subordination and coordination

Choice A is the best answer because “which” subordinates the following portion. Since the following portion is after a comma, it correctly describes the claim made in the previous sentence rather than just the preceding noun.

Choice B is incorrect because a semicolon needs to divide two independent clauses, but the following portion cannot stand on its own as a sentence. Choice C is incorrect because it is a run-on with two clauses joined by “and” but is not separated by a comma. Choice D is incorrect because it is a comma splice between two independent clauses.

9

Content: syntax

Choice B is the best answer because “for” is used to show what the purpose of a noun is. Therefore, it correctly indicates that the noun “process” has the purpose of “recycling packing peanuts.”

Choice A is incorrect because “as for” is a preposition that means “concerning.” It implies that the process is related to recycling, but that recycling is not necessarily the purpose of the process. Choice C is incorrect because it means “with an intention” and refers to the purpose of doing an action. It is not used with nouns. Choice D is incorrect because it implies that the process is the result of recycling.

10

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice C is the best answer because it means “usual,” so fits the context of describing a process of making lithium-ion batteries that is currently in common use. The word is professional, so it fits the tone established by the rest of the passage.

Choices A and D are incorrect because they are overly casual. They mean “boring” or “average” in conversation but are not appropriate for a formal written text. Choice B is incorrect because it refers to a “perfect” or “ideal” model to follow. Although it maintains the professional tone of the passage, it does not fit the description of a process of making lithium-ion batteries that is not as efficient as another being discussed.

11

Content: introductions, conclusions, and supporting details

Choice D is the best answer because the first paragraph sets up the problem that Pol and his team faced: a huge amount of packing peanuts that could not be recycled. The paragraph says that Pol’s group wanted to avoid contributing to the problem of creating waste. The second paragraph shows Pol’s group’s solution, and the third paragraph explains why that solution is good: it creates more efficient battery anodes than using current processes. The final paragraph says that the process is not complicated and uses less time and energy than the current processes. The paragraph explains that there may be even more potential for Pol’s process in the future because it could be adapted to recycle other materials. Therefore, Choice D provides a solid conclusion because it refers to Pol’s desire to eliminate “ubiquitous waste.” It summarizes how his process does that: it turns the waste into a useful item.

Choice A is incorrect because it only refers to a small detail about the speed of the process. It does not summarize main topic covered in the entire passage: waste can be turned into something useful. Choice B it incorrect because it only says that the resulting batteries are effective. It does not address the goal of eliminating waste from packing peanuts. Choice C is incorrect because it refers to a completely different method of disposing of packing peanuts. It does not mention Pol’s process nor the efficiency of the battery anodes his team created.

12

Content: tense, mood, and voice

Choice A is the best answer because it is used to describe an action that happened in the past. Therefore, it fits the context of saying that Lloyd looked at the scene until it was over.

Choice B is incorrect because it is used to describe something that happened in the past before another action in the past. However, the phrase “until the climber, a daredevil named Bill Strother, made it to safety” did not happen after Lloyd watched. Instead, it shows the final point of Lloyd’s watching. Choices C and D are incorrect because they are present tense verbs; Choice C shows something that is occurring now and Choice D shows something that started in the past and is still occurring now. They are not used to describe an action that occurred in 1922.

13

Content:

Choice XX is the best answer because

(Missing prompt)

14

Content: misplaced modifier

Choice B is the best answer because “having already made a few films in the vein of ‘thrill comedy’” is a modifier that describes Lloyd. Therefore, the word that follows “comedy” should be “Lloyd” as it is in Choice B. Otherwise, it is not clear what the modifier is referring to.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they make the modifier “having…comedy’” illogically refer to a subject other than Lloyd. In Choice A, the modifier refers to “event.” In Choice C, it refers to the generic “it.” In Choice D, it refers to “its inspiration.” None of these things could have made other comedies.

15

Content: punctuation

Choice B is the best answer because “a department store worker trying to impress his girlfriend” describes “Lloyd’s character.” It is not essential to understanding what the subject is because there is only one character played by Lloyd. Therefore, it should be divided from the sentence with the same punctuation at the start and finish. Choice B correctly does so by placing a comma before “a department” and after “girlfriend.”

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they do not have consistent punctuation at the start and end of the phrase describing “Lloyd’s character.” Choice A uses a semicolon and dash, and Choice C uses a comma and semicolon. Choice D does not have any punctuation after “girlfriend,” making it unclear where the phrase ends and the main clause resumes.

16

Content: pronouns

Choice D is the best answer because the subject is singular, and Choice D is a singular pronoun that correctly refers to it. The subject may appear to be plural because it is complex: “a full-scale replica of two floors of Los Angeles’s International Savings Building.” However, it can be simplified to the singular “a replica.”

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they are plural. Therefore, they cannot be used to refer to the singular subject, “a replica.”

17

Content: transitions

Choice A is the best answer because it is used to introduce a clarification about a previous statement. Therefore, it fits the context of describing more simply what is meant by the preceding idea of “set on the roofs of progressively taller buildings.”

None of the other choices correctly shows the relationship between the previous statement that Lloyd built a replica and put it on progressively taller buildings and the following statement that explains that the buildings used were two-, seven-, and then thirteen-stories tall. Choice B is used to show something that happens despite a previous claim. Choice C is used to add more points on the same topic rather than give a more specific example of what is meant. Choice D is used to show an alternative or different course of action.

18

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice B is the best answer because it means “illusion,” which fits the context of creating the illusion or appearance of climbing a tall building while really only using two stories. It fits the neutral tone of explaining a photographic method used in a movie.

All of the other choices are incorrect because they include the idea of an intent to deceive or cause harm. They imply that Lloyd was using illegal or unfair methods.

19

Content: introductions, conclusions, and supporting details

Choice Ð is the best answer because the paragraph describes how Lloyd used real city backgrounds rather than fake backdrops. Choice D introduces this topic well because it gives the reason that Lloyd did so: to make the stunt look real.

Choice A is incorrect because it brings up other actors doing risky stunts, but no other actors are mentioned in the paragraph. Therefore, it describes a point that is only tangentially related and not supported. Choice B is incorrect because it only describes the location of the building, so does not introduce why Lloyd went to special effort to create realistic scenes. Choice C is incorrect because it brings up events not related to the filming of the movie, so does not tie in to the paragraph at all.

20

Content: punctuation

Choice A is the best answer because “very precisely” are adverbs describing “focused,” and they should not be divided from each other using any punctuation. In addition, “cutting out…” is something done by the subject, “camera angles.” Therefore, a comma is needed before “cutting” to divide it from the end of the main clause.

Choice B is incorrect because there should be no comma after “focused.” A comma in that position makes it appear that the following adverbs refer following words instead of the previous verb. Choice C is incorrect because there should be a comma after “precisely” to make “cutting out…” refer to the subject of the sentence. With no comma, “cutting out…” appears to be a continuation of the description of the focus. Choice D is incorrect because a semicolon should divide two independent clauses, but the following idea cannot stand on its own.

21

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice C is the best answer because it means “to hold on tightly,” which fits the context of a climber worried about falling off the side of a building.

All of the other choices contain additional nuances that make them less appropriate in the context of describing the way a climber holds on to a building. Choice A includes the idea of holding tightly together, so gives the image of the climber’s body being completely flattened against the building rather than just holding tightly. Choice B includes the emotional aspect of welcoming or holding something closely because of affection. Choice D implies that the climber is physically attached, such as with glue.

22

Content: transitions

Choice B is the best answer because it is used to introduce a point that the reader probably already knows, but which is needed for the progress of the narrative. Choice B softens the following statement, so it does not appear that the writer is insulting the reader’s intelligence by saying something obvious. Therefore, Choice B fits the context of saying that Lloyd did not fall off the building.

Choice A is incorrect because it means “for that reason.” However, Lloyd’s not falling off is not because he encountered perils. His not falling off happened despite the perils. Choice C is incorrect because it introduces an alternative. Therefore, it does not fit the context of transitioning between a description of perils and the statement that Lloyd did not fall off. Choice D is incorrect because it is used to show a result or consequence. Not falling off was not a result of the perils.

23

Content: addition and deletion

Choice C is the best answer because the entire passage is about the Pentathlon of the Muses, but the underlined sentence is about a completely different event, the decathlon. There is no other mention of the decathlon in the passage, so the underlined sentence should be deleted as not relevant or related to the main point.

Choices A and B are incorrect because the underlined sentence should be deleted as unrelated. It does not set up the information in the following paragraph about the structure of the Pentathlon of the Muses because it refers to a different event. It also does not explain the origin of the term “pentathlon.” Choice D is incorrect because it does not matter to the passage who introduced the decathlon, so that is not the main reason to delete the sentence.

24

Content: subordination and coordination

Choice D is the best answer because by removing the long relative clause “which awarded Olympic medals for achievements in architecture, literature, music, painting, and sculpture,” it becomes clear that the underlined portion is part of the main clause. “Coubertin’s pentathlon” is the subject and “was” is the verb. Therefore, additional words should not be placed between the subject and verb.

All of the other choices are incorrect because they subordinate the following portion, “was a part….” As a result, the sentence is left incomplete without a main clause. There is only a noun and dependent clauses.

25

Content: syntax

Choice A is the best answer because it creates the passive form of “to prohibit,” showing that an unnamed agent prohibited or stopped the professional athletes from competing. “Were” is in the past tense, so the action occurred in the past.

Choice B is incorrect because “prohibitive” refers to forbidding or stopping something. However, the professional athletes did not do the action of stopping the competition. Instead, the received the action and were not allowed to compete. Choice C is incorrect because the structure “were to be” refers to an action that was planned but not carried out in the past. It does not fit the context because the athletes really were not allowed to compete, so the action of prohibiting was carried out. Choice D is incorrect because “competition” is a noun, so should not follow “to” when describing an action that is forbidden. In addition, “were being prohibited” refers to an action that occurred at the same time as another action, but there is no other action described as occurring simultaneously.

26

Content: introductions, conclusions, and supporting details

Choice C is the best answer because the paragraph gives a sequential description of the highlights related to the Pentathlon of the Muses. The paragraph starts by describing what events were included until 1948. Then it explains a technicality which reduced participation. Choice C rounds out the history by saying that the event was discontinued.

Choice A is incorrect because it brings up a minor detail about the founder in 1912 after changing the topic to a technicality in 1948 that reduced participation. Therefore, Choice A interrupts the logical time flow. Choice B is incorrect because there is no discussion about how much attention the Pentathlon of the Muses received or should receive, so bringing up appropriate levels of attention introduces a new topic. Choice D is incorrect because, like Choice A, it interrupts the logical time flow. It also weakens the claim that the reduction in participation was due to the rule change because it says that there never was high participation.

27

Content: subordination and coordination

Choice D is the best answer because “although” is a conjunction that turns the first portion of the sentence into a dependent clause. Therefore, the following portion needs to be an independent clause. Choice D correctly uses no conjunctions. “The International…at best” is a complete statement that can stand on its own.

Choice A is incorrect because “and” subordinates the following portion, leaving the sentence without a main clause. Choices B and C are incorrect because a semicolon should divide two independent clauses. However, the preceding portion cannot stand on its own.

28

Content: subject-verb agreement

Choice B is the best answer because the subject of the clause is “the International Olympic Committee (IOC)’s attempts to restore the arts competition.” This complex subject can be reduced to “attempts,” which is plural. Choice B agrees because it is also plural.

All the other choices can be eliminated because they are singular verbs, so they do not agree with the plural subject “attempts.”

29

Content: introductions, conclusions, and supporting details

Choice B is the best answer because the first sentence of the passage defines “Olympism” as “a philosophy of life that celebrates the mind as well as the body, the arts as well as athletics.” Choice B shows that the sculpture is consistent with the philosophy because Choice B says that the two key points of Olympism, athletics and arts, are represented.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they do not refer to the main philosophies of Olympism. Choice A describes the physical appearance of the statue. Choice C describes Linson’s style. Choice D indicates that the statue captures ideas of athletic achievement, but it does not touch on the other important aspect of Olympism, artistic achievement.

30

Content: precision and concision

Choice A is the best answer because it clearly explains what was consigned to obscurity: Linson’s sculpture. Choice A does not use any excess words, so it is easy to understand.

Choices B and C can be eliminated because they are redundant. Choice B repeats the idea of “consigned” with the word “relegated.” Choice C repeats the idea of “virtual obscurity” from the main sentence with the paraphrased, “since not many people had heard about it.” Choice D, on the other hand, is too brief. It does not explain what ended up in “virtual obscurity.” It appears that the contest itself, not Linson’s statue, remained unknown.

31

Content:

Choice XX is the best answer because

(Missing question prompt)

32

Content: tense, mood, and voice

Choice D is the best answer because the sentence uses “if” to describe possibilities that are not occurring now but could occur in the future. The possibilities are artists receiving medals and the competition being broadcast. Given these conditions, the following case, “talented artists such as Linson reach a much broader audience” might happen. Choice D is a conditional tense, which means it is a possibility that could occur if certain conditions are met. Therefore, it fits the context well.

Choice A is incorrect because it is a past progressive tense, which shows that something was occurring in the past while another action occurred. Choice A does not fit the context of describing a possibility that exists in the present. Choice B is used to show an action that occurred before another action in the past, but Linson’s work did not reach a broader audience. Choice C is incorrect because “will” indicates an action that is certainly going to happen in the future. It does not include any hint that conditions need to be met for it to occur.

33

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice A is the best answer because the context is describing a situation where people willingly accept sport and exercise. Choice A means “receive enthusiastically,” so fits the context well.

Choices B and C are incorrect because they refer to physically surrounding or wrapping something, so does not fit a description of an emotional acceptance of an activity. Choice D refers to declaring or agreeing that something is true. Therefore, it does not explain that sports are appreciated by people.

34

Content: transitions

Choice D is the best answer because it is used to show something that is a contrast with or happens in spite of the previous claim. In the context, the previous sentence says that zookeepers like interacting with animals. The following sentence says that most zookeepers spend most of their time doing activities other than interacting with animals. Therefore, Choice D sets up the transition well because it shows that the following activities occur even though they are not what is expected based on the previous sentence.

None of the other choices effectively sets up the contrast between the zookeepers’ favorite tasks and real duties. Choice A is used to add more detail in the same tone. Choice B is used to show the consequence of the previous statement. Choice C is used to paraphrase or say the same thing in a different way.

35

Content: parallel structure

Choice C is the best answer because the underlined portion is one of the activities that zookeepers do that does not involved contact with animals. The other activities are “cleaning cages” and “preparing food.” Things in a list joined by “and” should all have the same grammatical structure. Choice C does so because it is consistent with “cleaning” and “preparing.”

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they do not maintain the parallelism of the other items in the list, “cleaning” and “preparing.”

36

Content: sentence combination

Choice C is the best answer because it changes the second statement into a modifier that qualifies the main clause. It is clear that the study “demonstrates” or “shows” that the main clause is true.

Choice A is incorrect because “which are that most identify closely with their profession and consider their work morally important” is ambiguous. It appears to refer to the preceding noun, “zookeepers,” rather than the “findings.” If it does refer to “findings,” then “most” logically should also refer to “findings,” but that word refers to “zookeepers.” Choice B is incorrect because it is both redundant and ambiguous. There is no need to repeat “a study.” Furthermore, “a study that focused on zookeepers” appears to be an appositive that modifies the previous noun, but that is illogical because the previous noun is “Jeffery Thompson.” Choice D is incorrect because it appears that the zookeepers were “found” or “discovered” in a study by the business professors. In addition, the placement of “to identify closely with their profession” makes it appear to refer to either the study or the professors, not to the zookeepers.

37

Content: graphics

Choice C is the best answer because a main finding of the study is that “most zookeepers identify closely with their profession and consider their work morally important.” Choice C correctly gives the statistics about “moral duty to do a good job.” The high number supports the claim that the work is morally important.

Although the data in the other choices are true, the choices can be eliminated because they do not support a main finding from the study. Choice A says that the maximum number of points was not reached in any category, which could weaken the claim that zookeepers found certain qualities important. Choice B could potentially weaken the finding that zookeepers identify closely with their profession because it says that “occupational importance” is lower than other factors. Choice D indicates that zookeepers feel duty and sacrifice, but it only gives a difference rather than offers strong high numbers to support the claim that there is a high level of commitment to these traits.

38

Content: subordination and coordination

Choice D is the best answer because “Nemes” is a person’s name, and “a zookeeper at Capron Park Zoo in Attleboro, Massachusetts” is an appositive that explains who that person is. An appositive is considered additional information and should be divided from the main sentence with the same punctuation at the start and end. As there is a comma after “Massachusetts,” there should also be one after “Nemes.”

Choice A is incorrect because there is no comma after “Nemes” to show that the following information is an appositive that adds description. “A zookeeper…” appears to be part of the main clause. Choices B and C are incorrect because they do not have consistent punctuation with the comma after “Massachusetts.” A single semicolon or dash should follow an independent clause, which is not the case.

39

Content: possessive determiners

Choice A is the best answer because the “lives” belong to more than one animal. An apostrophe following an “s” is the correct possessive form of a plural noun.

Choices B and C are incorrect because the “lives” do not own anything, so they should not contain an apostrophe. Choice B is also incorrect because the proper possessive form for the plural “lives” is “lives’.” Choice C is also incorrect because “animal’s” is the possessive form for one animal. Choice D is incorrect because “animals” is just a plural noun. It does not indicate possession to show that the lives belong to the animals.

40

Content: graphics

Choice D is the best answer because the bottom row of the chart shows “willingness to sacrifice.” That number is 5.52, as given in Choice D.

None of the other choices correlates with the row for “willingness to sacrifice.” Choice A refers to ”work meaningfulness.” Choice B refers to “occupational importance.” Choice C refers to “moral duty.”

41

Content: punctuation

Choice D is the best answer because “she says…animals” is an explanation that clarifies the previous statement. A colon clearly divides a main clause from an explanation about it.

Choices A and C are incorrect because they form a comma splice between two independent clauses. Choices B and D are incorrect because there should be no comma after “says” when reporting indirect speech; what she says is considered the object of the verb and should not be divided with any punctuation. A comma is used when a direct quote is placed in quotation marks after “says.”

42

Content: transitions

Choice B is the best answer because the previous paragraph is about the sacrifices a zookeeper makes for his or her job; the examples are working holidays and getting no pay for some duties. Choice B summarizes those points. “In addition” also shows how those points relate to the following paragraph: the following paragraph will add more examples about sacrifices.

None of the other choices summarizes the topic of the previous paragraph, so they do not provide good transitions. Choice A is incorrect because the previous paragraph does not discuss interacting with visitors. Choice C is incorrect because the previous paragraph is not about the enjoyment of the job, but about what zookeepers are willing to do. Choice D is incorrect because there is no discussion of the number of different types of animals a zookeeper works with.

43

Content: style and tone

Choice A is the best answer because the passage uses a professional tone, and Choice A maintains that tone with neutral, formal word selections.

In Choice B, “super” is overly casual and in Choice C, “a whole bunch” is not professional. These terms are appropriate for conversations with friends but not for a published written passage. Choice D is stilted because it is convoluted. “Attainments of an educational nature” is not standard usage and is much longer than necessary, complicating the smooth flow of the rest of the passage.

44

Content: subject-verb agreement

Choice B is the best answer because the underlined portion is the active verb of the sentence. There are two subjects joined by “and” that do the action of “making.” These subjects are “a love of animals” and “a commitment to animal conservation.” Even though each one is singular, there are two things, so the subject is plural. Choice B is also plural, so it agrees.

All of the other choices are incorrect because they are singular verbs so should not be used with a plural subject.

1

Choice A is the best answer because the description starts by saying that the narrator “loved how full her home felt” (line 9), so the following description gives the reader a sense of the things that the narrator loved. The final sentence (lines 17-20, “the great…windows) serves to explain the importance of the clutter of things in the apartment: they hide the unpleasant parts, the cracks and scratches. Therefore, the description serves to show how the apartment is “cozy and comfortable” or “pleasant to be in” because of all the things that Celia has scattered around it.

Choice B is weak because there is nothing in the description to show that the items are placed in a “hectic” or “hurried” way. “Unpredictable” implies that things are always changing, but the description seems to indicate that the apartment always looks about the same. Choice C is incorrect because there is no evidence showing where the “goods” or “items” came from. Therefore, the purpose is not to “extol” or “praise” the fact that things can easily be bought. Choice D is incorrect because “avid collector” is usually used to describe someone who amasses all possible items related to a certain topic. However, the description of the apartment includes a wide range of things from cushions to plants to food items. In addition, food items like garlic and spices are used up, not kept, so they are not typically considered “collections.”

2

Choice D is the best answer because lines 45-46 say, “She said that Quisqueya dyed her hair, which was hardly news—I had assumed as much when I met her.” In other words, the narrator had already “assumed” or “made a guess” that the hair was dyed. If the fact were a surprise, then it would be “news.” Instead, the phrase “hardly news” suggests that the information was already known.

None of the other answers is supported by evidence from the passage. Lines 40-45 (“she told…years ago”) provide the other information, but there is no qualification that suggests that the narrator already knew any of it. “She told me…” (lines 40) implies that these points are all ones that the narrator learned only when Celia explained them.

3

Choice A is the best answer because “put someone off” is an idiom which means “make someone feel angry or upset.” “Offended” is a more formal way to say “put off.” Choice A is supported by the context, which says that Quisqueya “doesn’t know how to connect with people” (lines 50-51). “Connecting” with someone means that you have feelings in common and understand each other. Therefore, Quisqueya doesn’t know how to create a good understanding, but that the narrator should overlook that fault.

Choice B is incorrect because “deceive” is a deliberate attempt to trick someone. However, there is no indication that Quisqueya wants to trick people for her own advantage. Choice C is incorrect because Celia is not telling the narrator to do the opposite of “avoid,” or “try not to meet.” Instead, she is telling the narrator to ignore Quisqueya’s apparently rude manners. meaning, Choice D is incorrect because Celia never suggests that Quisqueya will “impose” or “demand attention.” If anything, she suggests the opposite, because Quisqueya is “insecure” (line 50) and doesn’t know how to “connect” (line 51) or “interact” well.

4

Choice C is the best answer because at first the narrator refers to “your son” (line 55), showing that she only thought that there was one son. She would not have said this if she had met both boys. Celia corrects the narrator in line 56, “I have two boys,” and line 58 directly says that the narrator has seen Mayor in person: “there’s Mayor, who you met.” Lines 66 reinforce this claim, because they say “Mayor, whom I recognized from the store,” showing that the narrator had seen Mayor at a store. On the other hand, Celia is describing her son Enrique, who is “away at college on a soccer scholarship” (lines 57-58). She then shows the narrator a photo of Enrique, since the narrator did not know what the boy looked like.

Choice A is incorrect because the narrator only knows about one son and needs to be told about the other. There is also no indication that the daughter is friends with either of them. Choice B is incorrect because the daughter goes to Evers (lines 76-78, “And she’s going . . .to Evers”). However, Mayor does not go there because Celia says, “I’ve heard it’s a good school” (line 86). If her son were attending, she would know more about the school than having “heard” about its reputation. Choice D is incorrect because the passage indicates that the narrator has only met one son, and that son is Mayor. Celia would not have to explain about Enrique if the narrator had seen him play soccer.

5

Choice B is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the narrator has seen Mayor in person, but she has seen Enrique only in Celia’s photo. Choice B supports that claim because Celia corrects the narrator about the number of sons she has; if the narrator had met both, she would already know that there are two. Choice B further says that the son the narrator had “met” or “seen in person” was Mayor. The description of Enrique as being different from Mayor reinforces the idea that the narrator has not Enrique and Celia is trying to explain what the boy is like.

None of the other choices supports the claim that the narrator has met Mayor but not Enrique. Choice A indicates that the narrator has only met one son, but it does not explain which son she met. Choice C does not describe the relationship of the boys with the narrator at all. Choice D only refers to the narrator’s family, not to Celia’s boys.

6

Choice C is the best answer because the joke immediately follows the claim that Mayor is “nothing at all like his brother” (line 59). The joke stresses the difference mentioned in the previous sentence. By saying that that Mayor is the “wrong baby,” Celia is emphasizing that the boys seem like they came from different parents and appear to have nothing in common.

Choice A is incorrect because “endear” means “to cause to be loved.” However, if someone says that his son is the “wrong baby,” it is easy to think that he doesn’t like his son. Therefore, the statement is not intended to make the narrator like Rafa more. Choice B is incorrect because the joke was made by Rafa, not Celia. Therefore, the joke would emphasize Rafa’s “quick wit” or “fast thinking.” Choice D is incorrect because there is no “tense” or “stressful” situation when the narrator is asking about the sons. Therefore, the joke is not mentioned to “defuse” or “ease” a strained part of the conversation.

7

Choice B is the best answer because Celia does not mention the name of the school, but starts a sentence that implies that she knows, but realizes that maybe she should not say it: ““And she’s going . . .” Celia trailed off, as though she didn’t want to say it out loud” (lines 76-77). When the narrator says the name of the school, Evers, “Celia nodded” (line 79). This shows agreement or acceptance of what is said; it is an action that someone does when they know the answer to a question.

None of the other choices are supported by evidence from the passage. In lines 71-72, Celia asks, “Do you have other children besides your daughter?” This implies that she doesn’t know how many children the narrator has, so Choice A can be eliminated. Choices C and D can be eliminated because there is no reference to the narrator’s “profession” or “job,” nor to how long the family has lived in the US, so there is no way to know what information Celia knows about these topics.

8

Choice A is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Celia knows where the narrator’s daughter goes to school before the narrator visits her apartment. Choice A supports this claim because it shows that Celia starts talking about the school, then “trails off” or “stops speaking” because she is unsure if she should say the name or not. Therefore, she most likely knows the name but is hesitant to say it.

Choice B is weak because on its own, the quoted portion doesn’t indicate that Celia knew where the narrator’s daughter went to school. It only shows that the narrator is embarrassed about the place. Choice C is incorrect because it describes Celia’s experiences, but gives no mention of the narrator’s daughter or school. Choice D only expresses empathy; it does not say Celia knew previously where the daughter goes to school.

9

Choice D is the best answer because the story about Panama gives Celia’s reason for leaving: “it would be better for the boys to grow up here” (lines 90-91). The story ends by expressing “empathy” or “shared feelings” by extending her experience to include that of the narrator. Therefore, Celia is “assuring” or “showing” that she understands the trials or “amazing things” that the narrator is going through for her daughter.

Choice A is incorrect because Celia does not “persuade” or “convince” the narrator to do anything. She ends the story by placing her hand on the narrator’s, a sign of connection that does not need a verbal answer. Choice B is incorrect because Celia is sharing the story for the first time. Therefore, she is not “reminding” or “causing the narrator to remember” the story. Choice C is incorrect because Celia does not mention how her family “prospered” or “succeeded” in the discussion about Panama. Therefore, she is not “consoling” or “comforting” the narrator with things that happened after she left.

10

Choice C is the best answer because a “benediction” is a “blessing.” The word is used to show that the gesture was almost “sacred” in its importance. In other words, the gesture was “meaningful” or “special” to the narrator.

Choice A is incorrect because the gesture is not specifically a religious one. Therefore, the word does not show how the women feel about religion. Instead, it emphasizes the significance of the gesture. Choice B is incorrect because an “authority figure” is a person in power. However, the gesture is one that binds two friends together, so it is not stressing that the narrator thinks that Celia is much more powerful than she is. Choice D is incorrect because the conversation was not necessarily “eloquent” or “extremely persuasive and expressive.” Celia used very simple words to convey a deep idea, so it is the idea behind the words that is more important.

11

Choice B is the best answer because the passage begins with a thesis statement: “Voters need to understand the prosaic details of complex policies” (lines 1-2). The first two paragraph discuss “the illusion of explanatory depth” (lines 8-9), meaning the tendency to think one knows more about a subject than he really does. The third paragraph introduces a study designed to test the idea that “forcing people to explain complex policies in detail…might force them to confront their ignorance and thus weaken their extremist stands on issues” (lines 18-23). The remainder of the paragraph describes the methodology and results of the study; the conclusion is that people become more “moderate” or “less extreme” when they are forced to describe the issue in detail. This is the central idea offered in support of the thesis of the passage.

Choice A is incorrect because the study does not show that “articulating” or “stating” reasons for holding an opinion made people think they were wrong. In fact, the passage indicates the opposite: “talking about one’s views can often strengthen them” (lines 53-54). Choice C is incorrect because the passage does not discuss “true” or “real” interest in a topic. It only says what happens when people are asked to describe complex ideas. Choice D is incorrect because there is no discussion about the desire to “avoid offending” or “not upset” others. If anything, the passage implies that people are more likely to “overstate” or “exaggerate” about positions that they are “passionate about” or “extremely in favor of.”

12

Choice B is the best answer because paragraphs 1-2 discuss the “phenomenon” or “situation” of “the illusion of explanatory depth” (lines 8-9). From paragraph 3, the main focus changes from the general discussion to the introduction of specific experiments led by Philip Fernbach. Line 60 changes to an analysis of the results, “The results were clear….” In the final paragraph, the passage makes “recommendations” or “suggestions” based on the results: it would be good to try “forcing the candidates to provide concrete and elaborate plans” (lines 73-74).

Choice A is incorrect because, while “the illusion of explanatory depth” could be considered a “long-standing problem,” the passage does not “discredits” or “disprove” any attempts to “address” or “fix” the problem. Choice C is incorrect because only one theory about the behavior of accepting simplistic explanations, so there are not two “competing” or “opposing” theories. The study therefore does not prove one of two theories correct; it provides empirical support of an idea that explaining views would make someone more moderate. Finally, there is no “account” or “discussion” of the “field’s future.” The “field’s future” would refer to trends in research about human opinions. Choice D is incorrect because, while there is an “observation” or “description” of the “trend” or “habit” of accepting simplistic explanations, there is no detailed analysis of its “causes” or the reasons that people form such opinions. Finally, there is no “proposal” or suggestion” about more research to “validate” or “prove” the point; the discussion is about completed experiments that proved the point that people are more moderate when they have to explain a policy.

13

Choice A is the best answer because in line 8, “illusion” refers to “explanatory depth.” Choice A refers to an “incorrect view,” so fits the context that people think they have “depth” or “deep understanding” about a subject, but really do not.

Choice A is incorrect because it refers to something unreal that occurs when a person is sleeping, but the “illusion” of depth is something that occurs in the otherwise rational mind. Choice C refers to a deliberate pretense, so does not accurately describe something that people do without realizing it. Choice D refers to something that is not real, so does not accurately describe a psychological situation which really does occur.

14

Choice C is the best answer because “shape” is used to describe what the “false and extreme beliefs” (line 11) do to “our preferences, judgments, and actions—including our votes” (lines 11-12). Choice C refers to the power to affect or sway something. Therefore, it accurately describes the writer’s concern that extreme beliefs might affect such things as votes.

None of the other choices adequately explains the relationship between the “false and extreme beliefs” and “our preferences, judgments, and actions.” Choice A refers to an active decision to organize or change something, but the beliefs are inanimate, so cannot actively decide to do anything. Choice B refers to providing an example to follow. However, the preferences, judgements, and actions do not decide to follow the pattern of beliefs; they instead are altered by the beliefs. Choice D relates to a deliberate attempt to make small changes to improve something. As with Choice A, this is not an action that can be done by inanimate beliefs.

15

Choice C is the best answer because the fourth paragraph “outlines” or “describes” the methods used by the experiment: a group of volunteers were gathered, they stated their opinions on and understanding of different issues, and then they wrote detailed reports about the issues. Therefore, Choice C describes the “specifics” or “details” of the way the experiment was conducted.

Choice A is incorrect because the fourth paragraph does not “provide support” or show that the theory is true. Instead, it only lists the process used to conduct the experiment. Choice B is incorrect because there is no “defense” or “argument in favor” of the “need” or “necessity” to do research. Choice D is incorrect because the main purpose of the paragraph is not to say that a “particular issue” or “specific topic” is “complex” or “has many parts.” The paragraph does say that complex issues were used in the experiment, but the reference to complexity is only to give the reader an understanding of the methods that the researchers used to test their theory.

16

Choice D is the best answer because Fernbach tested his idea that “such an exercise would force many to realize just how little they really know about cap and trade, and confronted with their own ignorance, they would dampen their own enthusiasm” (lines 41-45). Therefore, Fernbach would not be surprised that extreme opinions were held by people who didn’t understand the topics. By contrast, he probably would have been most surprised to find that people with extreme views were able to explain themselves clearly and well. People with a good understanding of the topic, according to his theory, should have more moderate views.

Choice A is incorrect because Fernbach was not trying to prove that people had stronger opinions about difficult or complex topics; rather, he was trying to prove that extreme views correlate with understanding of the issue. Choice B is incorrect because Fernbach’s theory was based on the expectation that people who were asked to explain an issue would realize that they did not understand the issue as much as they thought. Choice C is incorrect because Fernbach differentiated between “explaining” and “selling” a policy (lines 51-52, “Being forced…that policy”). Therefore, he would not be surprised that people did not change their views when told to “sell” or give reasons for “endorsing” or “approving of” a policy.

17

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Fernbach would have been most surprised if, when volunteers were asked questions about complex issues, those with the most extreme views were found to have the best overall understanding of them. Choice D supports this answer because it says that Fernbach based his experiment on the assumption that if people realize that they know little about a topic, they will moderate their views. In other words, the more people know, the more they will tend to be moderate. As a result, Fernbach would probably be surprised if people who are not moderate know a lot about the issues.

All of the other choices are incorrect because they only describe the methodology of the experiment. They do not refer to any of Fernbach’s assumptions, nor do they indicate what results would surprise him.

18

Choice B is the best answer because the passage indicates that “political extremism” occurs when “people are unaware of their own ignorance, and they seek out information that bolsters their views, often without knowing it. They process new information in biased ways, and they hang out with people like themselves” (lines 69-71). One solution to this problem is suggested in lines 73-74, “forcing the candidates to provide concrete and elaborate plans might be a start.” Since “candidates” are people who are running for political office, the passage is suggesting that those people explain their policies or plans.

None of the other choices are supported by evidence from the passage. Choice A is opposite from a solution that would reduce political extremism, as the passage says that “polarization tends to reinforce itself” (line 66). In other words, it strengthens rather than reduces extremism. Choice C is incorrect because there is no discussion of charities, donating money, worthy causes, or underfunded causes. Choice D is incorrect because the passage says that when people only defend or “sell” their views, it can reinforce their extremism: “In fact, talking about one’s views can often strengthen them” (lines 52-54). Therefore, “interaction” or “communicating” without any attempt to analyze the policy may have the opposite effect and increase extremism.

19

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that requiring that politicians explain their proposed policies in detail before an election is held would most likely reduce political extremism among the citizenry. Choice D almost directly paraphrases the same idea, since “candidates” is the word for “people running for election,” so it provides solid support for the claim.

Choice A is incorrect because it only says that people who did not understand details of a complex issue remained extreme. It does not show that if politicians explained their plans before an election, people might become less extreme. Choices B and C are incorrect because they say that extremists tend to remain together, but they do not provide any solution for making people change to less extreme views.

20

Choice C is the best answer because self-rating of understanding is given on the y-axis. The larger the number—the taller the column—the greater the self-rating. The columns for volunteers who were asked to analyze and explain a policy are on the left. The grey bar shows the confidence before the task was about 4. The black bar shows that the confidence after the task was about 3.4. The confidence level went down; in other words, they “became less confident.”

Choice A is incorrect because the volunteers’ “position” is not given in figure 1. Choice C is incorrect because, though the people are less confident in how they understand the policy, there is no discussion about whether they are “reluctant to justify it, which means, “hesitant to show that it is right.” Choice D is incorrect because there is no mention of interest level in the graph.

21

Choice A is the best answer because figure 2 shows “position on an issue” on the y-axis. The higher the number, the stronger the position. The volunteers asked to make a list of reasons for or against a policy are shown in the right-hand columns. The gray column for “before task” and black column for “after task” are almost identical in height, just over 1.5. Therefore, the task did not significantly change their stance. The passage also supports this view, because lines 60-62 state, “Those who simply listed reasons for their positions…were less shaken in their views.”

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they refer to topics that are not discussed in either the passage or the figure. Choice B discusses “interest,” which refers to how much people care about the issue. It does not refer to how strongly they feel one side is right or not. Choice C refers to what people think about the views of other people. Choice D refers to whether a person might vote or not.

22

Choice C is the best answer because the first paragraph discusses the concept of “camouflage to hide from predators” (line 2) in the animal kingdom, and questions whether such a thing could exist in the plant kingdom (lines 8-9, “who ever…same thing?”) The second paragraph introduces a study by Matthew Klooster designed to find out if plants also use camouflage to avoid predation. The third paragraph describes the characteristics of the plant studied. The fourth paragraph outlines the methodology and results. Finally, paragraphs five and six round out the passage by analyzing the findings and discussing the implications. Therefore, the passage focuses on the study that “illuminates” or “helps explain” a “defensive strategy” that protects against predators. The study focuses on one “particular species of plant,” Monotropsis odorata.

Choice A is incorrect because plants that rely on photosynthesis are introduced to explain why M. odorata is unique and was selected for the experiment: because it does not need color for photosynthesis, it could use color for other purposes. Therefore, Choice A is not a main purpose of the passage. Choice B is incorrect because the passage focuses on avoiding predation; attracting pollinators is a minor detail brought up in the last paragraph to address a possible counterargument about the coloration and reproduction. Choice D is incorrect because the passage is not about the function of color in animals. Animals are mentioned in the first paragraph (lines 1-9, “it is well...same thing?”) to give the reader a common analogy for understanding the following discussion about camouflage in plants.

23

Choice B is the best answer because an “evolutionary advantage” is something that increases the ability to reproduce and survive as a species. Choice B directly supports the claim that effective camouflage can be an evolutionary advantage because it says that “individuals that are able to blend in to their surroundings” (lines 2-3), meaning animals that can hide or camouflage themselves, “pass along their genes to the next generation” (lines 5-6). Not only does Choice B state that the animals have a better chance of reproducing, it also explains why: they are “able to survive longer, reproduce, and thus increase their fitness” (lines 4-5).

Choice A is incorrect because it only indicates that camouflage helps animals avoid predators. It does not offer any evidence that avoiding predators can increase their chances of surviving as a species. Choice C says that the strategy of camouflage is “good,” but does not explain why. Choice D explains some purposes of pigments but does not specifically relate to camouflage.

24

Choice D is the best answer because lines 10-15 (“in plants…little attention”) say that “coloration or pigmentation” (line 10) “has been well studied” (lines 12-13) in terms of photosynthesis and attracting pollinators. By contrast, camouflage “has received little attention” (lines 14-15), meaning that it has not been studied very much. Therefore, there have been a “smaller number” or “less” studies or investigations about camouflage than other uses of color.

Choice A is incorrect because “potential food sources” is not discussed in the passage; the scientists are not trying to find or learn more about plants that they can eat. Choice B is incorrect because the passage never says that camouflage uses “more” or a “wider variety” of “distinctive” or “unique” colors. Choice C is incorrect because camouflage is proved to be more effective against predators; the study shows that camouflaged plants “suffered only a quarter of the herbivore damage” (lines 47-48).

25

Choice A is the best answer because “analogous” means “comparable.” The characteristics that are being compared are the “the stripes on a tiger” (line 19) and “the grey coloration of the wings of the peppered moth” (line 19-20). These examples are common when discussing camouflage based on broken outlines, as with the tiger, or based on matching colors, as with the moth. Therefore, these examples give the reader a good understanding of the following discussion about how the coloration of the plant could be used “to hide” (line 20).

Choice B is incorrect because a similarity, the purpose of hiding, is emphasized. Therefore, the animals are not brought up to highlight a “contrast” or “difference.” Choice C is incorrect because the writer is not suggesting a “possibility” or “way” that the research about plants can be “applied” or “transferred” to animals. Choice D is incorrect because there is no “criticism” or “objection” about animals included in the “interpretation” or “analysis” of the findings. In fact, the “findings” or “results” of the study do not mention animals at all. Therefore, the animals are not included as a “defense” or “counterargument.”

26

Choice B is the best answer because the nutrient requirements of many plants are provided by photosynthetic pigmentation (lines 10-11, “use of coloration…photosynthesis”). The result is a green color (lines 25-26, “i.e., green coloration”). If the plant does not rely on photosynthesis, then it can use colors other than green. As a result, the “defensive options” or “ways of protecting against predators” are “limited” or “restricted” for photosynthetic plants to colors involving green.

None of the other choices correctly show what that the “nutrient requirements” of photosynthesis mean that the plant must have green coloration. Choice A says that the colors are “exaggerated” or “made more extreme.” However, the patterns are limited to greens, so are not necessarily “extreme.” Choices C and D are not discussed in the passage, There is no indication that plants “consume” or “use” more energy because they use photosynthesis, nor is there a discussion of “potential habitats” or “places they can live.”

27

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the nutrient requirements of many plants have the consequence of limiting the plants’ defensive options. Choice C indicates that the usual requirement of photosynthesis results in a green color. This requirement, therefore, “limits” or “restricts” any defensive coloration to shades of green. Without that restriction, any color camouflage could be used.

Choice A is incorrect because it does not refer to photosynthetic plants at all. Therefore, it does not show that they are restricted in their defense options. Choice B says that Monotropsis odorata does not rely on photosynthesis. However, it does not show that most other plants do, nor does it show how any plant’s nutrition is related to defenses. Choice D is incorrect because it does not refer to color or defense. It only describes the methodology of an experiment.

28

Choice A is the best answer because “broader” refers to the “range of possibilities in coloration” (line 27) that Monotropsis odorata can have because it does not rely on photosynthesis. Since photosynthesis limits the color to green, a “broader” range refers to a “larger” or “greater” variety of colors. Since Choice A means “large” or “sizeable,” it describes the range well.

None of the other choices adequately explain that the range allows for a “larger” or “greater” variety of colors. Choice B means “apparent” or “clear,” but the colors could be very subtle. Choice C refers to something that can endure, or which is very good-natured, neither of which describe “large.” Choice D refers to something that has a lot of space or large area rather than a range of color.

29

Choice C is the best answer because “worked” is used to show what the camouflage does “to hide the plant from its predators and increased its fitness” (lines 45-46). Choice C means “fulfilled a task,” which fits the context of saying that the camouflage fulfilled the task of hiding the plant.

Choice A means “altered.” However, the camouflage did not change to hide the plant; the coloration stayed the same. Choice B means “used its power to affect, but there is no object in the sentence to show what the camouflage affected. Choice D refers to controlling or operating something, but the camouflage is passive.

30

Choice A is the best answer because the percentage of reflectance is given on the y-axis. First look for a wavelength of 600 nanometers on the x-axis, then move up from that number to the heavy dashed line which represents the “flower petal.” That line is towards the bottom and crosses the line for “reproductive stem” at about the 600-nanometer point. Now move across to the y-axis. The closest percentage is 5, as indicated by Choice A.

None of the other choices corresponds to percent reflectance of the flower petal for a wavelength of 600 nanometers. Choice B is closer to the “flower petal” at about 650 nanometers. Choice C is closer to the reflectance for “leaf litter” or “bract” at 600 nanometers. Choice D does not correspond with “flower petal” or “600 nanometers” at all.

31

Choice D is the best answer because the pattern for “the reproductive stem reflectance” is given with a widely spaced dotted line and varies up and down between a percent reflectance of 5 and 10. By contrast, the “bract reflectance pattern” is given as a tightly spaced dotted line and starts at about 7 percent, then increases steadily to about 35 percent. These patterns are “substantially” or “extremely” different.

Choice A is incorrect because the “flower petal reflectance pattern” is the heavy dashed line which goes from 0 to about 20. By contrast, the “bract reflectance pattern” is given as a tightly spaced dotted line and starts at about 7 percent, then increases steadily to about 35 percent. These lines do not “track closely” or “follow almost the same way.” Choice B is incorrect because the “leaf litter reflectance pattern” is the solid line that goes steadily upward from just under 10 to over 35. It does not “decrease” or “get smaller” when the flower petal reflectance pattern increases or gets larger because the flower petal reflectance pattern also increases, although from a lower starting point and in a less consistent way. Choice C is incorrect because the leaf litter reflectance pattern, the solid line, is almost the same as the line for the bract resistance pattern, the closely spaced dotted line. Therefore, the reproductive stem reflectance pattern is not “most similar” to the leaf litter.

32

Choice B is the best answer because “the mean proportion of floral stems with herbivore damage per plant” is given on the y-axis. “Plants with intact bracts” are given in the light grey columns, and the columns for 2007 are on the right. The grey column for 2007 is above the .15 line but below the .2 line, so Choice B is the best estimate between the two.

None of the other choices corresponds with the data for plants with intact bracts in 2007. Choice A is closer to plants with intact bracts in 2006. Choice C is closer to plants with bracts removed for 2006, but it is also similar to plants with bracts removed for 2007. Choice D is the highest value on the y-axis, but none of the data points reach that proportion.

33

Choice C is the best answer because “seek the approval of the public” refers to an attempt to become popular. Burke scathingly calls this “bidders at an auction of popularity” (line 14) and says that when the Assembly tries to do this, “their talents…will be of no service” (lines 15-16). In other words, they will not help the people. Furthermore, he complains that this practice makes them “flatterers instead of legislators, the instruments, not the guides, of the people” (lines 16-18). Therefore, he is “upset” or “strongly disapproves” of the practice.

None of the other choices are supported by evidence from the text. Choice A is incorrect because Burke appears to approve of the idea of a legislative government; he suggests using “the example of the British constitution” (line 51-52) which limits the power of the monarchy. Choice B is incorrect because Burke does not comment on the size of the government, only on how it is run. Choice D is incorrect because, although Burke suggests that the Assembly takes his advice and uses the pattern of the British constitution, he does not say that the Assembly is ignoring the advice of “former” or “earlier” leaders from its own country.

34

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that it can be inferred that Burke is particularly upset with the National Assembly’s decision to “seek” or “gain” the approval of the public. Choice C strongly supports that claim because it shows that Burke feels that people who want approval—“bidders at an auction of popularity” (line 14)—do not help the country’s interest. He says that such people stop being “legislators” or “leaders” and instead become “flatterers” or “people who give insincere praise.”

None of the other choices supports the claim that Burke is particularly upset with the National Assembly’s decision to seek the approval of the public. Choice A describes the qualities needed by good legislators. It does not show any complaint that Burke has about the Assembly. Choices B and D say he does not approve of the Assembly in strong terms but do not explain what aspect or errors he does not like.

35

Choice B is the best answer because “instruments” is used to describe what will happen to leaders who seek approval. The word is used to say that such leaders will be the “instruments of the people" rather than the "guides of the people.” Therefore, the leaders are being used by the people rather than guiding or leading the people. Both “instruments” and “tools” can be used to refer to a person who is exploited or used by someone else. Therefore, Choice B accurately describes what leaders who seek approval become.

All of the other choices are the opposite of the intended meaning in Burke’s description. Choice A refers to a “spokesperson,” but in the context, the leaders do not stand for the people, the people use the leaders. Choice C means “advisors” and Choice D means “guide.”

36

Choice D is the best answer because Burke complains about the leaders who are not moderate, ones who try to be “splendidly popular” (line 22). He contrasts such people with those who “advocate” or “support” moderate positions, which he thinks are “sensible” or “reasonable.” He complains that people who hold moderate positions will be “undermined” or “weakened” because they will be called cowards or traitors (lines 23-25, “moderation…of traitors”). Finally, they will end up doing things that “undermine” or “weaken” their cause: they will be “obliged to become active in propagating doctrines and establishing powers that will afterwards defeat any sober purpose at which he ultimately might have aimed” (lines 27-30).

Choice A is incorrect because Burke does not call moderate leaders “brave,” he only says that others will call them cowards. He also does not say that people will “distrust” or “not believe” them; he only says that to retain their position, they will end up doing things that defeat their own goals. Choice B is incorrect because Burke says that “moderation will be stigmatized as the virtue of cowards” (lines 23-24). “Stigmatized” means “view as worthy of disgrace.” In other words, moderate leaders will not be praised, they will be called cowards. Choice C is incorrect because, while moderation might be “virtuous” or “good,” the moderate leaders will not be ignored. Instead, others will call them cowards and traitors.

37

Choice D is the best answer because “sober” describes the “purpose at which [a moderate politician] ultimately might have aimed” (lines 29-30). The passage says that such a purpose is “defeated” (line 29) by attempts to be popular. Burke is against leaders seeking popularity, so is saying that any “logical” or “decent” purpose is destroyed by seeking popularity. This interpretation is well represented by Choice D.

None of the other choices clearly shows what type of purpose is defeated by attempts to become popular. Choice A refers to something that causes alarm or worry because of its seriousness; it is used to describe such things as a serious illness. Choice B means “restored to normal.” Choice C means “not showy.”

38

Choice B is the best answer because Burke claims that the British system is “invaluable treasure” (line 54) to use as a model. He claims that the “happy situation” (line 57) resulting from the system is “owing in a great measure to what we have left standing in our several reviews and reformations as well as to what we have altered or superadded” (lines 59-62). In other words, he feels that the parts “left standing” or “not changed” are just as important as the changes and additions. Therefore, he feels that it was “wise” or “sensible” to only change what existed than to completely replace the existing structure.

None of the other choices are supported by evidence from the paragraph. Choice A is incorrect because lines 62-64 say, “Our people will find employment enough for a truly patriotic, free, and independent spirit in guarding what they possess from violation.” Therefore, they have “safeguarded” or “protected” their “freedoms” or “rights.” Choice C is incorrect because Burke does not say that the British have “tried” or “attempted” to “export” or “send” their government to other countries. He only suggests that the French use the British system as a pattern for theirs. Choice D is incorrect because the government was not “essentially unchanged” or “had nothing altered.” Line 62 says that there were parts “altered and superadded.”

39

Choice D is the best answer because the building analogy is used to provide an easy image to illustrate the claim in the previous sentence, “I should follow the example of our ancestors” (lines 67-68). He says that when fixing a building, “I would make the reparation as nearly as possible in the style of the building” (lines 68-69). In other words, he would make changes that match the original as closely as possible. A “government’s essential properties” are the core elements that define the government, which is what Burke is comparing to the “style” of the building.

Choice A is incorrect because “periodic” means “once in a while,” and “relevant” means “meaningful.” Burke does not say that buildings should be changed once in a while. He only states that when changes are made, they should be consistent with the way the building was before. Choice B is incorrect because “fundamental errors” refers to “core problems.” However, the analogy of the building does not refer to major problems. Furthermore, it does not say that such a building should be “replaced” or “completely rebuilt.” Choice C is incorrect because Burke does not say all buildings have “flaws” or “problems” that need corrected. He is not discussing “intervention” or “taking action to stop a problem.” He is only discussing the way changes should be made.

40

Choice B is the best answer because in lines 67-68, Burke says, “I should follow the example of our ancestors.” This statement shows that he feels that the “ancestors” or “leaders” came up with a good system that should not be replaced, only changed slightly to fit the modern times. He continues with praise, “let us preserve what they have left (line 61), showing that the leaders made something worthy of keeping forever. Therefore, Burke is showing great “respect” or “admiration” for the earlier British leaders.

Choice A is incorrect because Burke does not discuss the “voting public,” or “average person,” in detail. He only describes the freedoms given to the average person because of the wisdom of the leaders. Choice C is incorrect because Burke cautions not to be “inspired by” or “follow” the French: “let us be satisfied to admire rather than attempt to follow in their desperate flights the aeronauts of France” (lines 82-84). Choice D is incorrect because Burke does not discuss the former government of France at all. He only says that the new government has made a poor decision not to adapt some of the earlier methods.

41

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Burke displays the greatest respect for British leaders of past generations. Choice D supports this claim because it shows how much Burke values the contributions made those people: the contributions should be “retained” (line 79) and preserved” (line 81). The leaders are included in the description of their contributions to show that the leaders were the reason that the contributions exist.

Choice A is incorrect because it indicates that the British system is a “treasure,” but it does not indicate that Burke has the greatest respect for the people who created that system. Choice B is incorrect because it does not show “the greatest respect” because it mentions “some causes of apprehension and complaint” (line 55). It also does not refer directly to the leaders, only to the British system. Choice C is incorrect because it praises the British system and the benefits to people living under the system rather than the people who made it.

42

Choice A is the best answer because it means “expressing contempt” or “disrespectful.” He remarks that he is “not being illuminated with the light of which the gentlemen of France tell us they have got so abundant a share” (lines 73-75). This comment ironically shows that Burke does not feel that the “gentlemen” are at all “illuminated” or “enlightened” in their policies. Using sarcasm to point out a weakness is one way of showing a lack of respect.

Choice B is incorrect because it refers to having an understanding and approval of something, but Burke does not approve of the French policy. Choice C means “jealous,” but Burke does not want the system used by the “gentlemen of France.” He is very proud of his own country’s system. Choice D means “worried,” but even though Burke does not think the gentlemen are taking a wise policy, his tone is not one of fear or worry for himself.

43

Choice B is the best answer because it directly states another possible cause for the Younger Dryas, a period of “sudden change in Earth’s climate.” Choice B shows that “a change in ocean circulation” (lines 14-15) is an explanation that does not relate to the impact hypothesis.

Choice A is incorrect because it only relates to the impact hypothesis. It does not show that there are other ways to explain the observations listed in the quoted portion. Choice C is incorrect because the “new evidence” (line 22) refers to evidence that supports the impact hypothesis. It does not offer an alternate explanation. Choice D is also incorrect because it only refers to the impact hypothesis.

44

Choice D is the best answer because the impact hypothesis is based on the idea that an asteroid hit the planet “almost 13,000 years ago” (line 5). Therefore, if an element appears in the geological record after that time but not before that time, it could be related to such an impact. Since osmium is described as “rare on Earth but relatively common in asteroids,” that adds support to the idea that the osmium came from an asteroid rather than suddenly originating from a different source on Earth.

Choice A is incorrect because the iridium at different sites is supposedly linked to the impact that caused the Younger Dryas. If a crater with iridium were found that was dated well after the Younger Dryas started, then that crater could not have caused the Younger Dryas. Such evidence might indicate that the Younger Dryas had other causes, and the iridium at other sites was incorrectly dated. Choice B would weaken the impact hypothesis because iridium, glass, and carbon spherules are all thought to have been caused by an impact; they would have fallen from the sky as debris. If iridium were never found at the same sites as glass and carbon spherules, then they might not have been in the sky at the same time. Choice C is incorrect because the impact was supposed to have caused the temperature drops that led to the Younger Dryas. However, if temperatures were dropping starting 13,000 years before that time, the change was not caused by an impact 13,000 years later.

45

Choice C is the best answer because lines 30-32 say, “the rocks contain black layers of carbonized material, which the team says are the remains of wildfires that swept across the continent after the impact.” In other words, the “phenomenon” or “event” following the “cosmic collision” or “impact” was a series of fires that swept or spread rapidly.

None of the other choices are supported by evidence in the passage. All of the choices are described as related to the “cosmic collision” or “impact,” but they are not the cause of the black carbonized material.

46

Choice C is the best answer because “sharply” describes the way that the “specialists in the relevant fields” (line 40) “contested” (line 40) or “argued” the hypothesis. The content of argument was that the hypothesis was in error because the specialists “either did not detect such evidence or argued that the deposits had other causes than a cosmic impact” (lines 41-43). Therefore, the specialists were “intensely” or “strongly” arguing against the impact hypothesis.

None of the other choices adequately describes how the specialists contested the hypothesis. Choice A means “quickly and unexpectedly.” However, the specialists may have carefully planned their arguments and the impact hypothesis advocates were probably expecting a response. Choice B also means “quickly,” or “immediately,” so does not show that the arguments may have taken time to develop. Choice D does indicate that the specialists took care, but it does not convey any intensity.

47

Choice A is the best answer because the impact hypothesis states that an asteroid caused the Younger Dryas; this means that “evidence for a cosmic collision” (line 54) should have basically the same date at every site; otherwise, the evidence would relate to different sources. However, Meltzer points out that “only three of the 29 sites actually fall within the time frame of the Younger Dryas onset” (lines 61-62). Therefore, when the dates of the sites were “reevaluated” or “looked at again,” the difference shows that the “impact evidence” could not have occurred at the same time.

None of the other choices are reasons cited by Meltzer and his team in the passage. Choice B is incorrect because there is no discussion of additional sites; even if there were other sites with Clovis artifacts, they would not relate to the investigation because they did not show evidence of impact. Choice C is incorrect because the fact that nanodiamonds can occur on Earth—in places with no signs of an “extraterrestrial” or “celestial” impact—does not prove that the nanodiamonds in question did not come from outer space. Choice D is also not cited in the passage as a reason, but even if there were high concentrations of iridium from an earlier date—at a lower sedimentary layer—they could have come from a different impact and do not rule out the possibility that the current sites in question also contain iridium.

48

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Meltzer's team relied on a reevaluation of the dates assigned to sites thought to display signs of the proposed impact to challenge the Younger Dryas impact hypothesis. This answer is supported by Choice D, which explains that the sites believed to be evidence all were dated to very different time periods, and that most of those time periods were not associated with the start of the Younger Dryas. Meltzer and his team therefore argue that the evidence does not relate to one impact event, and so, such an event did not cause the Younger Dryas.

Choice A is incorrect because it explains evidence in favor of the hypothesis, but not evidence Meltzer used to disprove the hypothesis. Choice B is incorrect because it only says that people did not agree with the evidence for the Younger Dryas impact hypothesis. It does not say what evidence Meltzer used to disprove the hypothesis. Choice C is incorrect because it refers to the evidence cited by other critics of the hypothesis, not Meltzer’s evidence against it.

49

Choice B is the best answer because “more nuanced” describes the explanations that are not turned into exciting movies. Two examples he gives of “more nuanced” explanations are “Clovis points disappearing because early Americans turned to other forms of stone tool technology as the large mammals they were hunting went extinct as a result of the changing climate or hunting pressure” (lines 74-77). These complex, not dramatic theories are a contrast to the exciting, “simple,” or “straightforward” theory of an asteroid striking the Earth.

Choice A is incorrect because it means “not proven,” but none of the theories are proven. Choice C means “having many parts,” and refers to the complete problem of why the Younger Dryas started, so does not contrast with a “nuanced” theory with many factors to take into consideration. Choice D refers to “wide” or “extensive” appeal. However, the size of the theories is not being discussed.

50

Choice A is the best answer because Passage 1 offers the “central hypothesis” or “main theme” that a celestial impact caused the Younger Dryas; it cites various evidence such as the presence of iridium to support that theory. Passage 2 presents a “critique” or “evaluation” of that hypothesis by saying that many specialists do not agree. It offers evidence from a recent study by Meltzer that supports the idea that the theory is incorrect.

Choice B is incorrect because “the central hypothesis developed in Passage 1” is that a celestial impact caused the Younger Dryas. This hypothesis “addresses” or “tries to explain” the scientific question of how the Younger Dryas started. However, Passage 2 does not “explain” how the Younger Dryas started; it only brings up evidence that weakens the theory of a celestial impact. Choice C is incorrect because “possible implications” refers to “potential results” of something. However, the hypothesis that an asteroid hit the Earth does not generate consequences or results that may occur in the future. Choice D is incorrect because Passage 2 offers evidence against, not “in favor” or “for” the hypothesis of an asteroid impact as described in Passage 1.

51

Choice D is the best answer because “controversial” means “debatable” or “causing disagreements.” Both authors “characterize” or “describe” the impact hypothesis as causing disagreement. Passage 1, line 13 says, “Not all will be convinced,” showing that not everyone agrees. Passage 2, lines 39-40 also bring up arguments against the theory: “These claims were sharply contested by some specialists in the relevant fields.”

Choice A is incorrect because the author of Passage 1 implies that the evidence for the impact hypothesis, such as “geochemical analysis of sedimentary layers at 25 archaeological sites across North America” (lines 23-24) is “reliable” or “acceptable.” Passage 2, however, casts doubt on the reliability by bringing up a different study that challenges the results. Choice B is incorrect because “conclusively evaluate” refers to “proving something for certain.” However, both writers bring up evidence that they feel effective proves their respective points. Choice C is incorrect because only Passage 2 refers to the “appeal” or “interest” of the public. Furthermore, both authors cite evidence given by specialists, which indicate that the specialists were interested enough to do research on the project. Therefore, neither author says that the public is more interested than specialists in the theory.

52

Choice A is the best answer because Meltzer’s findings are that the “evidence” or “glass and carbon spherules” at the sites come from different time periods. He claims that only three of the sites were from the “onset” or “beginning” of the Younger Dryas. If that is true, the glass and carbon spherules could have been formed during the time period of the site rather than at the beginning of the Younger Dryas.

Choice B is incorrect because, if they were a “product” or “result” of the Younger Dryas cooling, then none would have formed before the onset of the Younger Dryas. However, Meltzer points out that the sites “were probably either earlier or later by hundreds (and in one case, thousands) of years” (lines 63-64). Choice B does not explain the presence of the earlier sites. Choice C is incorrect because the “concentration” or “relative amount” of the spherules is not given in either passage. Choice D is incorrect because there is no discussion of the purpose of the spherules. Neither passage can help establish a connection between the spherules and the technology of the people of the time.

1

Content: style and tone

Choice B is the best answer because it politely and concisely provides the necessary information, thereby maintaining the professional tone of the passage.

All the other choices can be eliminated because they do not maintain the formal tone established by the rest of the passage. Choice A uses “way more” and Choice C uses “whole bunch,” both of which are casual phrases suitable for a conversation with friends, but not for a formal written document. In addition, “unexpected people” can be misinterpreted as “unusual in some way” rather than “not anticipated to be present,” so Choice C is not precise. Choice D uses elaborate language that lengthens the passage but obscures the meaning. “Unparalleled” gives the idea that the crowd was unusual in some way, but it does not specifically show that the reason it was unusual was the size.

2

Content: addition and deletion

Choice C is the best answer because the added sentence is only tangentially related to the passage, so it should not be included. The paragraph is about the excitement caused by Dr. King’s visit, but the added sentence is a random fact about the location.

Choices A and B can be eliminated because the added sentence should not be included in the passage. It mentions the history of the place but is not necessary to understand the narrative that follows, so Choice A is incorrect. For Choice B, the newness of the commencement ceremonies is not related to the excitement at hearing Dr. King speak. Choice D is incorrect because the details in the added sentence are not given elsewhere in the passage.

3

Content: transition

Choice D is the best answer because the previous sentence says that people came to see Dr. King. The following sentence gives background about why people knew Dr. King and explains that seeing him in person was exciting. There is no need to add a transition word because the second sentence follows logically and develops the ideas from the first sentence.

Choice A is incorrect because it is used to bring up new ideas for consideration in an argument. It is not used to add more detail about the same point, nor is it used in a narrative about a sequence of events. Choice B is used to show the consequence of a preceding action, so it does not fit the context of offering a reason about why people attended the event. Choice C is used to highlight a difference, so does not make sense when adding more detail about the same topic.

4

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice C is the best answer because the underlined portion refers to what “inspired the audience” and furthered Dr. King’s aim.” Choice C means “events,” so clearly shows that the events motivated the people.

None of the other choices fits the context of explaining what inspired the audience. Choice A is an adjective, so grammatical cannot act as the subject that “inspired” and “furthered.” In addition, Choice A means “something that went before,” so does not logically make sense. Choice B refers to an earlier event that acts as a model or example, but the passage is only referring to one event. Choice D is a “method” or “system,” but the event itself, not the way the event was conducted, was inspiring.

5

Content: punctuation

Choice A is the best answer because “without even consulting notes” is a prepositional phrase describing the subject, Dr. King. Such a modifier needs to be divided from the main clause with a comma.

None of the other choices are standard usage when a prepositional phrase is placed at the start of a sentence. All of the other choices are incorrect because they need to follow an independent clause, but the preceding portion cannot stand on its own as a sentence.

6

Content: tense, mood, and voice

Choice D is the best answer because the underlined portion is the verb in a relative clause, “having…earlier,” that describes the subject, “Jamaica.” The active verb in the sentence is “was.” Choice D is not an active verb, so it is able to act as the start of a relative clause.

Choice A is incorrect because “would” turns the sentence into a conditional tense, meaning that it shows a possibility that could have, but did not, happen. However, the achieving of independence is an action which did occur, so the conditional tense is not appropriate. Choice B is incorrect because it is a present tense, but the action of achieving independence occurred in the past. Choice C also gives the incorrect time sequence for an action in the past because it a future tense. In addition, it is a conditional tense which erroneously shows a possibility that may occur, but only if certain conditions are met.

7

Content: addition and deletion

Choice B is the best answer because the claim made in the previous sentence is that “both countries were on the cusp of great change.” In other words, the US and Jamaica were both undergoing a lot of reforms. The revised sentence provides support for that claim because it explains one of the changes that Jamaica faced, decisions about whether blacks should vote or not.

Choice A is incorrect because the revised portion does not give any reason for the audience to have a “strong connection” or “intense feeling in common” with Dr. King’s speech. Choices C and D are incorrect because the revision should be made to the sentence. The revision follows logically, offering a reasonable flow to the paragraph, so Choice C is incorrect. Choice D is incorrect because the focus of the paragraph is about Dr. King’s speech, not about independence.

8

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice C is the best answer because “the need for XX in YY” is the standard structure for explaining that XX is something necessary for YY to be done. Therefore, Choice C properly uses the conventional structure for illustrating the point that “a spirit of love and worldwide brotherhood” was necessary for everyone to “face the challenges of the future.”

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they are not standard usage in the context. The “from” in Choice A makes it appear that the “challenges of the future” are causing the problem, not the goal. Choices B is overly wordy. The meaning of Choice C is unclear.

9

Content: sentence combination

Choice D is the best answer because it effectively shows the relationship between the original sentences. The second sentence is made slightly more important because of the phrase “did not just….” As a result, Choice D highlights the inspirational nature of Dr. King’s discussion of unity.

Choice A is incorrect because it appears that unity was only inspired “that day,” rather than being an ongoing feeling that the audience experienced for a long time. In addition, the process of “inspiring unity” is not the method that Dr. King used to speak, as implied by “by.” His speaking caused the feeling of inspiration. Choice B is incorrect because “though” means “despite the fact,” but the inspiration was a direct result of the speaking, not something that happened despite the fact that he spoke. Choice C is incorrect because “however” is used to introduce a contrast or opposite idea. Therefore, it does not fit the context that his speaking about unity led to a feeling of unity.

10

Content: punctuation

Choice B is the best answer because “building a new nation” is an essential part of the description of what kind of people the sentence is referring to. Therefore, there should be no punctuation between the modifier and the word it describes.

Choice A is incorrect because it turns “building a new nation” into a non-essential clause. As a result, the sentence erroneously refers to all people, and says that all people are building a new nation. Choice C is incorrect because it divides the object “a new nation” from its verb “building.” Choice D is incorrect because a semicolon should divide two independent clauses, but the preceding portion cannot stand on its own, and the following portion is illogical because it appears that “building a new nation” was an action of “these words.”

11

Content: transition

Choice C is the best answer because the previous paragraph is about the moment of the speech that audience members remembered the most. The paragraph says that all the people, who were in the process of building a new nation, remembered the same part of the speech. Choice C says that the speech had a “profound” or “deep” effect on the audience, which accurately ties into the group discussing the moving part of the speech.

Choice A is incorrect because the previous paragraph is not about “historians,” or “people analyzing an event after it has occurred;” it is about the people who listened to the speech. Choice B is incorrect because, although the paragraph refers to “reporters,” they are only mentioned in the context of gathering information from the audience about the speech. There is no indication that the speech had a “profound” or “deep” effect on the reporters. Choice D is incorrect because it describes people who “spoke” or “talked” with Dr. King. However, there is no indication that the audience shared a conversation; they only listened to the words spoken by Dr. King to the large group.

12

Content: punctuation

Choice B is the best answer because “duke of a small German principality called Saxe-Meiningen” is an appositive, or noun that describes the subject, “Georg II” in more detail. It is not an essential part of the time clause, “when Georg II established a local theater in 1866.” Therefore, it should be divided from that clause with the same punctuation at both ends. Since there is a dash after “George II,” there should also be a dash after “Saxe-Meiningen.”

Choice A is incorrect because it includes “established” in the appositive, leaving the time clause without a verb. The result is the illogical “when Georg II a local theater in 1866.” Choice C is incorrect because it does not use consistent punctuation at the start and end of the appositive. A comma at the end does not agree with a dash at the start. Choice D is incorrect because there is no indication where the appositive ends and the clause resumes. In Choices C and D, there is only one dash. If there is only one, it should be placed after an independent clause, so both Choices C and D violate this rule.

13

Content: introduction and conclusion

Choice A is the best answer because the information that follows is that a duke usually was not in charge of plays; he would instead appoint a director. Choice A says that Georg II had an unusual level of “involvement” or “participation,” so it sets up a strong contrast with the idea that most other dukes did not.

None of the other choices directly relates to the idea that someone other than a duke was in charge of plays in the court theaters. Choices B refers to Georg II’s interest in the arts. However, the sentence does not explain whether other dukes were interested or not, so there is no logical contrast nor reason why other dukes did not act as directors. Choice C refers to Saxe-Meiningen rather than the role of the ruler. Choice D refers to Georg II’s involvement in other arts, so does not relate to directing plays.

14

Content: transition

Choice D is the best answer because the previous paragraph is about Georg II’s very active involvement in the theater. The paragraph outlines the many tasks he took on to ensure a good production. Choice D provides a good introduction to the following paragraph because it ties in Georg II’s “work as a director.” Choice D also links to the following discussion of a performance in Berlin by referring to his work being “on full display.”

Choice A is incorrect because neither the previous nor the following paragraph discusses the fame of the actors. Choice A therefore diverges from the main discussion of Georg II’s role in the theater. Choice B does not refer to any information from the previous paragraph, so does not provide a smooth transition. In addition, it offers information that can be assumed by the following sentence which says that the performance was May 1. Choice C is weak because it only says that Georg II had to make changes for the performance. This does not effectively refer to the diverse roles he took on as director, as it only mentions one detail.

15

Content: possession and possessive pronouns

Choice D is the best answer because the paragraph is describing one production, Shakespeare’s Julius Caesar. “Production’s” is the singular possessive form of “production,” so correctly shows that the “elaborate sets” belong to one production.

Choice A is incorrect because “productions’” is the possessive plural form, but there is only one production being discussed. Choice B is incorrect because there are no apostrophes indicating possession, so “productions” is just a plural noun. Choice C is incorrect because the sets do not own anything, so the word should not have an apostrophe of possession.

16

Content: addition and deletion

Choice B is the best answer because a “spectacle” is an “impressive show.” The revision “illustrates” or “shows” that the production was very impressive because it adds more detail about the realistic appearance of the stage.

Choice A is incorrect because the revised portion does not specifically refer to Roman details; it could describe a stage from other eras. Choices C and D are incorrect because the revision enriches the passage and should be made. There is no repetition of information, so C is incorrect. For Choice D, the revision does not need to add more detail, so the description is “sufficient” or “enough.”

17

Content: parallelism

Choice D is the best answer because the underlined portion is part of a list of distinctive things “bedecking” or “worn by” the actors. The items in a list joined by “and” should all have the same grammatical structure. The first two items in the list, “clothing” and “footwear,” are simple nouns. Choice D is parallel because it is also a simple noun.

All the other choices can be eliminated because they do not have the same grammatical structure as the rest of the list of simple nouns.

18

Content: sentence combination

Choice C is the best answer because “who” concisely turns the second sentence into a relative clause describing the preceding noun, Caesar.

Choice A is incorrect because the passive structure needlessly elongates the sentence and makes it hard to follow. The subject of the second sentence is the generic “it,” which refers to “his glittering toga and armor.” Therefore, it is not immediately clear who “his” and “him” refer to, as they do not refer to the subject. Choice B is incorrect because “being” is incorrectly used. It appears to be the start of a participle phrase, but if that is the case, the sentence illogically means that the trumpet signals that the act of Caesar being distinguishable makes an entrance, rather than signaling the entrance of someone who has a notable appearance. Choice D is incorrect because it changes the meaning of the original sentence so that the toga and armor were what were distinguishable. There is no discussion about the impression made by Caesar himself. However, the original meaning was that the toga and armor made Caesar distinguishable.

19

Content: introduction and conclusion

Choice C is the best answer because the paragraph gives examples of how Georg II staged the play’s action: he arranged the characters in the murder scene to symbolize fate, and he created a chaotic scene by determining where individuals stood and what they said. Choice C introduces these specific examples well because it starts with the general statement that Georg II “choreographed” or “planned” the action of the play “intricately” or “in great detail.”

Choice A is incorrect because it refers to the “venue” or “place” that the performance was held. However, the paragraph does not refer to the location; it refers to the actions. Choice B says that some people did not like the new style, but the paragraph does not offer any evidence to show why people might not. Choice D also does not relate to the following content because the discussion is about Caesar’s fate and murder, so it does not discuss the “influence” or “power” that Caesar had over his people.

20

Content: fragment and run-on

Choice B is the best answer because the main clause is “Georg split the crowd into smaller units.” “Assigning” correctly turns the following portion into another action done by the subject, Georg.

Choice A is incorrect because it creates a comma splice between two independent clauses. Choice C is incorrect because a semicolon should divide two independent clauses, but the following portion cannot stand on its own as a sentence. Choice D is incorrect because “and” should join two elements with the same grammatical structure. Since the preceding portion is an independent clause, the following portion should also be a clause, but there is no noun or active verb.

21

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice D is the best answer because the underlined portion is an action of the theater critic about “this climactic scene.” Choice D can mean “commented” or “remarked,” so perfectly fits the context that the critic made a remark about the scene.

None of the other choices adequately describes what the critic did about the scene. Choice A refers to feeling curious about something and does not indicate that the critic shared his opinion with others. Choice B refers to guessing or assuming something without all the necessary information to know for certain. However, the critic certainly knew how he felt. Choice C refers to understanding or discovering something rather than stating an opinion about it.

22

Content: misplaced modifier

Choice D is the best answer because “inspiring directors around the continent to design and execute more unified, detailed productions” is a modifier that refers to Georg II. Therefore, it should be immediately followed by the duke’s name to make that relationship clear.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because “inspiring…productions” refers to something other than Georg II. In Choices A and B, it refers to “title.” In Choice C, the modifier refers to “The Theater Duke.”

23

Content: possession and possessive pronouns

Choice C is the best answer because the underlined portion is a pronoun that needs to show who the “plumage” belongs to. The referent is the plural “white-rumped munias.” Choice C fits because it is a plural pronoun. If there is any doubt about whether “munias” is singular or plural, later in the passage the birds are referred to in the singular as “munia.” Also, the sentence in question describes them using the plural word “finches.”

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they are singular, so do not accurately refer to the plural “white-rumped munias.”

24

Content: fragment and run-on

Choice B is the best answer because “which” turns the following portion into a relative clause that describes the preceding noun, “Bengalese finch.”

Choices A and D are incorrect because a semicolon needs to divide two independent clauses, but the following portion cannot stand on its own as a sentence. Choice C is incorrect because it is a comma splice between two independent clauses.

25

Content: fragment and run-on

Choice B is the best answer because a colon is used to add explanation about a claim made in the main sentence. This punctuation fits the context because the first portion is the claim that there was an “unintended consequence,” meaning “a result that was not expected.” The following portion explains that claim because it describes the unexpected result: a more complex song.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no punctuation separating the clause “but it also…consequence” from the added information. Therefore, “increased” appears to be an active verb rather than an adjective modifying “song complexity,” confusing the structure of the sentence. Choice C is incorrect because a semicolon needs to divide two independent clauses, but the following portion cannot stand on its own; there is no subject and verb. Choice D is also incorrect because the following portion is not a complete sentence.

26

Content: logical comparison

Choice A is the best answer because the underlined portion is comparing two things; one is “increased” compared to the other. The first part of the comparison is “song complexity in the Bengalese finch.” In Choice A, “that” refers to the “song complexity.” Therefore, Choice A logically compares the song complexity of one finch to the song complexity of another kind of finch.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they create illogical comparisons with the “song complexity” of the Bengalese finch. Choice B uses the plural “those,” but “complexity” is singular. The white-rumped munia does not have more than one “complexity.” Choices C and D compare the song complexity of the Bengalese finch to the white-rumped munia. However, “complexity” is not more increased than “a bird.”

27

Content: sentence combination

Choice A is the best answer because it concisely joins the two sentences by eliminating the repetition of “these males.” The resulting sentence uses “choose over” to compare one type of bird, “males with loud, high-pitched, improvisational songs” with another type, “those with soft, low-pitched, predictable songs.”

Choice B is weak because the passive verb form lengthens the sentence and makes it harder to understand. Choice B unnecessarily uses the pronoun “ones” to describe the preceding noun. Choice C is incorrect because “those” is ambiguous. It typically is used to refer to the subject of the clause, but the subject is “songs,” and “those” actually refers to “males.” Choice D also lengthens the sentence using a passive verb form and pronoun “what” which could be eliminated.

28

Content: transition

Choice C is the best answer because it is used to introduce a conclusion drawn from a previously stated argument. Choice C accurately shows the relationship between the parts of the sentence because the previous portion is an argument “song complexity should occur when there is pressure to identify a mate of the same species” saying why “this idea” has “a contradiction.” The following portion is the conclusion of that argument, there is lower pressure, so there should not be song complexity in birds in captivity.

None of the other choices effectively show that the following portion is a conclusion drawn from the preceding argument. Choice A is used to show that something happens despite any signs that it might not. Choice B is used to show an alternative to a previously stated case. Choice D is used to emphasize a point in common between the previous and following ideas.

29

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice D is the best answer because the underlined portion needs to explain what Okanoya’s team did to the flock composition. Choice D means “research” or “examine.” Therefore, it accurately shows that the team tried to examine the flock composition to figure out the percentage that were mixed or not.

None of the other choices adequately explains what Okanoya’s team did to the flock composition. Choice A refers to examining symptoms or outward signs to determine the nature of something, usually an illness. Choice B means “cut into parts to study.” Choice C refers to finding something by following its path.

30

Content: graphics

Choice A is the best answer because the “linearity index” is given on the y-axis. The paragraph says that linearity is “a calculation based on the number of elements in a song, where 1 is simple and 0 is complex.” The data for the mountainous site is the first column on the left, and it reaches just under the .6 mark. The sentence is describing something that indicates “greater song complexity.” Both the columns for the urban site and the agricultural site, the second and third columns, are around .7. Therefore, Choice A accurately states that the figure for the mountainous site is “more than 0.1 point lower,” which means that it is more than .1 more complex.

Choice B is incorrect because the data for the mountainous site is about .6. If it were “more than 0.2 point lower” than the other sites, the other sites would have to have indexes of over .8. However, those sites only have indexes around .7. Choice C is incorrect because the column for the mountainous site is significantly shorter than the other sites. In addition, if it were “about the same,” then the song complexity would be about the same, not “greater.” Choice D is incorrect because the urban site and the agricultural site have complexities of about .7. Therefore, Choice D does not subtract the index for the mountainous site from these to find the difference between the sites.

31

Content: graphics

Choice B is the best answer because the “percentage of flocks that were mixed” is given on the y-axis, with the greater percentages at the top and the lower percentages at the bottom. The column for the mountainous site, the column on the far left, is the shortest. Therefore, it has the lowest percentage. Choice B summarizes this information correctly by saying that the other two sites had “greater” percentages of mixed flocks.

Choice A is incorrect because a higher, not lower, percentage of urban flocks were mixed because the column is taller than the one for the mountainous site. Choice C is incorrect because none of the bars reach the mark for 40% on the y-axis; in fact, the percentage for the agricultural site, on the far right, is less than 20%. Therefore, “over 40% mixed” does not describe any site. Choice D is incorrect because there is no data in the chart about change in flock composition over time. Therefore, it is impossible to determine if the percentage changed at all.

32

Content: punctuation

Choice D is the best answer because in the context, “that” is used to introduce the result of the study. The results are an essential part of the sentence that act as the object of what is “indicated,” so no punctuation is needed.

Choices A and C are incorrect because the commas illogically separate essential parts of the sentence from each other, making them appear to be parts of different ideas. Choice B is incorrect because a single dash should follow and add information about a complete clause, which is not the case.

33

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice A is the best answer because the passage explores the unusual situation in which a domestic species of bird evolved a more complex song than its wild ancestors. This situation contradicts the initial logic that songs need to be complex to compete for mates. However, the passage continues with a study about bird songs in mixed flocks involving the same species that showed that pressure to find mates rendered the songs simpler. Choice A summarizes these findings by discussing the “complex interaction of selective pressures” which affects complexity. It also places the passage’s discussion “within a larger scientific context” or “makes general claims” by indicating that the results about the specific species might be extrapolated to other species of birds.

Choice B is incorrect because the passage refers to a specific species that is domesticated, but main point of the passage is about why songs are complex or not. It is not trying to prove that wild birds can also have complex songs. Choice C is incorrect because the passage concludes that there are multiple factors that change birdsong complexity. The cause is not specifically habitat; it also includes the element of flock composition and mate preference. Choice D is incorrect because other species of birds are not discussed in the passage at all. Therefore, it is impossible to conclude from the information given that white-rumped munias have songs that are more complex.

34

Content: introduction and conclusion

Choice C is the best answer because the passage focuses on the advantages that drones can provide to farmers. These advantages include “critical information about harvests”: Paragraph 2 discusses “detailed data about crop health” such as “indicating differences in growth rates or the prevalence of weeds, pests, or weather damage.”

Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not discuss drones in the film industry at all, so it provides an irrelevant detail. Choice B is incorrect because, while there is discussion about safe operation, the passage does not discuss training methods. Choice D is incorrect because the only critics of drones mentioned in the passage are “pilots who fly planes for crop dusting and other purposes” (Paragraph 4). There is no mention of “consumer advocates.”

35

Content: syntax

Choice B is the best answer because the phrases “when to irrigate” and “whether to use chemical treatments” offer examples of “crucial decisions for farmers.” The main sentence is a statement that can be simplified to: “data about crop health can guide decisions.” Therefore, the sentence should end with a period.

Choices A and C are incorrect because the sentence is a statement with examples about decisions for farmers. Therefore, it should not end with a question mark. Choice C and D are incorrect because “should they irrigate” and “should they use chemical treatments” are questions. If they are given as examples of decisions for farmers, they should not directly follow “such as” without more clarification or punctuation such as quotation marks. As the sentence is written, “they” is ambiguous and could refer to the subject “data,” or the other plural nouns, “drones” and “decisions.”

36

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice A is the best answer because the information that follows in the sentence includes a specific example of a service provided by drone companies: analyzing data from digital files to create maps indicating crop conditions. Choice A succinctly introduces this idea by showing the benefit offered, “analysis services,” preparing the reader for the specific discussion that follows.

Choice B is incorrect because the following portion does not refer to making a “considerable profit” or “a large amount of money.” The entire passage discusses the benefits to farmers, so bringing up advantages for the drone company diverges from the main point. Choice C is incorrect because there is no discussion of controlling the drone, only of how the data is used. Choice D is incorrect because there is no reference to the type of crop that the analysis service is used for.

37

Content: parallelism

Choice D is the best answer because it creates a complete and logical sentence including three actions joined by “and” that are done by the subject “drones.” The actions are “are less expensive,” “provide finer-grained images,” and “can take pictures even on cloudy days.” “They fly low to the ground” is not one of the items in this list because it does not have the same grammatical structure; the “they” makes it not parallel with the other actions. However, “because” effectively subordinates that clause and makes it a reason for the last item, “can take pictures even on cloudy days.”

None of the other choices creates a parallel list of actions. Choice A is incorrect because “they” turns the following portion into a dependent clause, but if that were the case, “drones are less expensive, provide finer-grained images” cannot stand as the main clause because it needs a conjunction before “provide.” Also, “can take…” needs to be subordinated in some way to the previous clause. Choice B is incorrect because, while it turns “fly low to the ground” into the final action of the list of things done by “drones,” it leaves “can take pictures even on cloudy days” dangling. Choice C also leaves “can take pictures even on cloudy days” dangling.” Furthermore, “therefore” subordinates the following portion into a clause, leaving the first idea “drones are less expensive, provide finer-grained images” incomplete because it needs a conjunction before “provide.”

38

Content: transition

Choice A is the best answer because the previous sentence says that Hediger can “attest to” or “provide evidence” about the advantages of “the technology,” drones. The following sentence is a discussion about how drones can help “identify problems faster” and “use less weed killer.” Choice A provides a solid transition between these ideas because it explains that without a drone, she lost half of her crop. This example sets up a logical comparison for why now she can identify “faster” and “use less.”

None of the other choices explain why Hediger can “attest” or “prove” that drones are advantageous. They also do not provide a logical basis for the following comparative words identify “faster” and “use less.” Instead, they only bring up tangentially related details that are not developed in the passage.

39

Content: tense, mood and voice

Choice A is the best answer because the underlined portion is referring to an event that has not happened yet, but which Hediger expects will happen in “future years.” Therefore, the future tense is necessary.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they do not refer to an action that might happen in the future. Choice B is a past tense. Choice C is used to describe something which is occurring now. Choice D is used to describe something which started in the past and has continued to the present.

40

Content: fragment and run-on

Choice B is the best answer because a dash can follow an independent clause and add more information about that clause. Therefore, Choice B fits the context of adding the information that the cost of the drone is far less than the savings described in the first half of the sentence.

Choice A is incorrect because “considerably…images” does not have a subject and verb, so cannot stand on its own as a sentence. Choice C is incorrect because it is a comma splice between two independent clauses. Choice D is incorrect because a semicolon should divide two independent clauses, but the following portion cannot stand on its own.

41

Content: style and tone

Choice D is the best answer because it clearly and professionally conveys the idea that the pilots have concerns. It fits the relatively formal tone established by the rest of the passage.

None of the other choices fits the tone of the passage. Choice A is not as precise because “disquiet” implies a sense of unease but does not necessarily show that the pilots are actively thinking about the problem. The overly elaborate wording obscures the intended meaning. Choices B and C are casual phrases that may be acceptable in conversations with friends, but which are not appropriate for formal written passages.

42

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice B is the best answer because the underlined portion should explain the relationship between “regulations” and “objections.” Choice B refers to dealing with or solving a problem. Therefore, it effectively shows that the objections might be dealt with by creating regulations.

None of the other choices adequately explains the relationship between “regulations” and “objections.” Choice A refers to becoming involved with something, but the objections do not participate in regulations. Choice C refers to meeting; it does not show that the regulations might offer a solution. Choice D refers to proving something wrong. However, the objections are not wrong; they just need to be solved for the pilots to stop worrying.

43

Content: syntax

Choice C is the best answer because “to” is used in the context as an infinitive marker which shows that the following verb is a desired action. It fits the meaning that becoming integrated is a desired action for the drones.

Choice A is incorrect because “being” turns the following portion into a modifier that describes a certain type of drones. However, that leaves the sentence dangling because there is no desired action showing what it is important for those drones to do. Choices B and D are not standard usage in the context because they do not indicate that the action is desirable. The reader does not know what it is “important to do.”

44

Content: logical sequence

Choice C is the best answer because the added sentence refers to the “concerns” or “negative points” of drones. This topic is developed in paragraph 4, which discusses the dangers that drones pose to pilots, making Choice C the most logical placement.

All of the other choices interrupt the natural flow of the passage. Choices A and B are incorrect because they discuss benefits of drones, so it does not make sense to start them with a reference to negative points. Choice D is a summary that argues that drones are good for agriculture. Therefore, it should not be started with a negative comment about a specific aspect of problems about drones.

1

Choice B is the best answer because “idle” describes Mrs. Manstey when she is sitting at the window. The paragraph continues to say that “she read a little, and knitted numberless stockings” (lines 2-3). In other words, she is doing things that “occupy” or “fill up” her time. Therefore, she is occupied rather than “unoccupied” when sitting at the window.

Choice A is incorrect because it means “not interested” or “not concerned.” However, the following description shows that “idle” is the opposite of activities such as reading and knitting, so Choice A does not accurately fit the context. Choices C and D also are not supported by the claim that Mrs. Manstey “read a little, and knitted numberless stockings” (lines 2-3). Choice C means “not deep,” and Choice D means “sleepy” or “slow.”

2

Choice B is the best answer because up until line 18, the passage describes Mrs. Manstey’s general personality: she sits by her window and is “surrounded and shaped” (line 4) by the view from her window. The first paragraph explains that she prefers the scene outside her window to visits from “rare callers” (line 5). However, at line 18 the focus changes from this “general” or “broad” description to a “sustained narration” or “long story” about one “episode” or “event”: the time when her landlady told Mrs. Manstey that the neighbor was building a new extension.

Choice A is incorrect because the part preceding line 18 is not a “portrayal” or “description” of a daily routine because it does not outline her regular activities from morning to evening. The part after line 18 does not explain why a routine is important to Mrs. Manstey; it only stresses her love of the view outside her window. Choice C is incorrect because before line 18 there is no “overview” or “outline” of a “dilemma” or “problem.” Before line 18, there is only a description of Mrs. Manstey’s love of her view. After line 18, there is a “reaction” or “response” of horror at the announcement that there will be an extension. However, that announcement of that “dilemma” comes at lines 47-48: "speaking of Mrs. Black reminds me that the work on the extension is to begin next week." Choice D is incorrect because, while the lines up to 18 do discuss Mrs. Manstey’s “pastime” or “hobby” of looking out the window, there is no suggestion in the passage that she is “attempting” or “trying” to “develop” or “get” a new hobby.

3

Choice C is the best answer because the exchange shows that Mrs. Manstey loves the magnolia. It is part of “the absorbing interest of her life” (lines 31-32) and was so moving to her that she “could not have given utterance to her feelings had she wished to” (lines 35-36). By contrast, Mrs. Sampson says, “I didn't know there was a magnolia there” (lines 42-43), and her “careless” (line 43) tone suggests that she also is not interested in whether a tree is there or not. Therefore, lines 29-45 show the “marked divergence” or “extreme difference” in the attitudes of the two women towards the view outside the window. That view is the area directly around the women, namely, their “immediate surroundings.”

Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication in the exchange about the true “significance” or “meaning” of the event of the magnolia’s blooming. The exchange only shows how deeply Mrs. Manstey cares about the plant. Choice B is incorrect because a “sensitive issue” is a subject that needs to be dealt with carefully because it might make people upset. However, a magnolia is not really a “sensitive issue” because it is just a plant. Mrs. Manstey is very aware of the plant and Mrs. Sampson is not, so they do have “contrasting” views, but not of something that is likely to cause an argument. Choice D is incorrect because a “point of contention” is something that people argue over. However, the women are not arguing about the plant. Mrs. Manstey makes an observation and Mrs. Sampson says she didn’t notice. There is not “realization” or “understanding” about an argument.

4

Choice C is the best answer because "absorbing" is a description of the view, the “interest of her life” (line 32). The passage points out many times that the view attracts and occupies Mrs. Manstey’s interest and attention. The view, for example, “surrounded and shaped her life as the sea does a lonely island” (lines 4-5). Choice C refers to something that attracts and occupies attention, so describes the view well.

None of the other choices adequately describe what the view is for Mrs. Manstey. Choice A means “reducing anxiety or tension,” but there is no evidence that Mrs. Manstey is calmer because of the view. Choice B means “funny” or “entertaining,” so does not capture the idea that the view takes a large amount of Mrs. Manstey’s time and attention. Choice D means “changing,” but there is no evidence that Mrs. Manstey changes because of the view.

5

Choice A is the best answer because the change next door is the building of an “extension”: Mrs. Sampson says that “the work on the extension is to begin next week” (lines 47-48). An “extension” is an “addition” to a building. In other words, the neighbor is making the house larger or “expanding” it.

None of the other choices are supported by evidence from the passage. There is no reference to “tearing down” or “removing” a building, as stated in Choice B. There is no discussion of selling a “portion” or “part” of a property, as stated in Choice C. For Choice D, Mrs. Sampson does say that the neighbor had boarders, but that was in the past: “She used to keep a boarding-house in Seventeenth Street” (lines 56-57). Therefore, the neighbor is not “beginning” or “starting” to have boarders.

6

Choice B is the best answer because lines 60-62 say that Mrs. Manstey was “pale” or “upset” about the news. The lines then say that Mrs. Manstey always spoke slowly, so the landlady did not “heed” or “notice” the long pause. However, the mention of a long pause indicates that Mrs. Manstey spoke even slower than usual, meaning that she was probably in shock and it took time to find the proper words. Since Mrs. Manstey had a physical reaction (going pale) to the news, the lines show the “strength” or “force” of the “impression” or “feeling” of hearing the news.

Choice A is incorrect because, while the lines show Mrs. Manstey’s “aversion” or “dislike” of news about the extension, there is no hint in the lines about what Mrs. Sampson feels about it. In addition, the news is not really a “discovery” or “something found.” Mrs. Sampson is reporting something she heard. Choice C is incorrect because there is no hint that Mrs. Manstey “misinterprets” or “understands incorrectly” the news about the extension. Mrs. Sampson does not notice Mrs. Manstey’s reaction is different, but that reaction is not because Mrs. Manstey heard the news wrong. Choice D is incorrect because the lines do not “dramatize” or “exaggerate” Mrs. Manstey’s “unwillingness” or “desire not to” talk. Instead, it shows that Mrs. Manstey was too surprised or upset to talk. The extension is not “personal” or “affecting only Mrs. Manstey,” it affects other people in the neighborhood.

7

Choice C is the best answer because it means “enduring without complaining.” She agrees that it may be a “great annoyance” (line 68) because she responds, “I should say it would. But there's no help for it” (lines 69-70). She is, in other words, “putting up with” or “accepting” the extension because she thinks that there is nothing she can do to change it.

None of the other choices are supported by evidence in the passage. For Choice A, there is no sign of “growing” or “increasing” anger; Mrs. Sampson thinks that the extension is annoying but doesn’t plan to do anything about it. For Choice B, “denial” means “refusing to accept that something is true.” However, there is no sign that Mrs. Sampson is pretending that the extension won’t be built or that it won’t be an annoyance. For Choice D, Mrs. Sampson is not “satisfied” or “pleased” in any way. She agrees that the extension would be an annoyance but doesn’t know how to stop it from being built.

8

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the attitude of Mrs. Sampson toward Mrs. Black's extension is best described as one of “stoical acceptance” or “enduring without complaining.” Choice D supports this claim because it shows that she feels there is “no help” or “no solution” to the problem because there is no “law to prevent 'em” (line 71) or “way to stop them.” Therefore, she is putting up with the problem rather than fighting back or trying to change the situation.

None of the other choices supports the claim that Mrs. Sampson has an attitude of “stoical acceptance” about Mrs. Black's extension. Choices A and B say that the extension will be built, but they contain no indication of Mrs. Sampson’s opinion about it. Choice C explains Mrs. Sampson’s view of Mrs. Black, but it doesn’t say what she feels about the extension.

9

Choice A is the best answer because Mrs. Manstey feels that “all her radiant world be blotted out” (lines 87-88). In other words, she feels that her “world” or “life she has constructed” will “be blotted out” or “be erased;” this is an eloquent way of saying that it will come to an end.

Choice B is incorrect because “taking solace in nature” refers to “finding comfort in natural things.” Although Mrs. Manstey’s initial reaction is to enjoy the view, “How lovely… horse-chestnut” (lines 79-84). However, the reason she does so is because she knows that the view is going away, it is “not for her” (lines 84-85). Therefore, her reaction is one of sadness at the loss rather than comfort. Choice C is incorrect because there is no reference to “expressing her opposition,” meaning “stating her “disapproval,” of the plan to build the extension. Therefore, there is no suggestion that she regrets that she was not more forceful or strong about giving her opinion. Choice D is incorrect because “resolves” means “decides.” However, there is no indication that she makes any decision about the plans, let alone one to “address the difficulties” or “solve the problems.”

10

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Mrs. Manstey feels that the life she has constructed for herself is about to come to an end because of Mrs. Black's plans. Choice D supports that claim because it says that the plans for an extension, “a barrier of brick and mortar” (lines 85-86), would cause her “radiant world [to] be blotted out” (lines 87-88). Since “blotted out” is another way of saying “erased” or “destroyed,” it effectively indicates that the “world” or “view” will come to an end.

None of the other choices provide evidence that Mrs. Manstey feels that the life she has constructed for herself is about to come to an end. Choice A is a question about whether Mrs. Sampson will be bothered by the plans; such a question could be asked even if Mrs. Manstey approved of the plans. Choices B and C indicate that the view is lovely; they do not show that Mrs. Manstey feels the view will be taken away.

11

Choice B is the best answer because the “harmful practice” that Roosevelt discusses is “gross and reckless assaults on character, whether on the stump or in newspaper, magazine, or book” (lines 63-64). He first states this problem with an analogy of Man with the Muck Rake, meaning “the man who never does anything else, who never thinks or speaks or writes, save of his feats with the muck rake” (lines 13-14). After “identifying” or “naming” the problem, Roosevelt strongly “denounces” or “publicly rejects” it, claiming that “such a man “speedily becomes, not a help ... but one of the most potent forces for evil” (lines 14-15).

Choice A is incorrect because the practice of exaggerating the truth is not a “discovery,” or “new thing that is found.” Roosevelt indicates that the concept has been around a long time; for example, it is discussed in the novel Pilgrim's Progress (lines 1-4, “In the novel…things”). Choice C is incorrect because “solicit support” means “try to get approval.” However, Roosevelt is not trying to get anyone to approve a “political initiative,” meaning “an attempt to create a law.” Instead, Roosevelt is complaining about people who slander others. Choice D is incorrect because Roosevelt is very cautious in his “praise” or “approval.” He does say that he approves of people who “reveal social ills” in a completely honest way, but he tempers this approval by saying that most people who “seek” or “try” to reveal social ills end up with “epidemic of indiscriminate assault upon character” (lines 33-34) which “does no good, but very great harm” (lines 34-35).

12

Choice A is the best answer because the main “claim” or “message” of the passage is summarized in the final paragraph: “expose the crime, and hunt down the criminal; but remember that even in the case of crime, if it is attacked in sensational, lurid, and untruthful fashion, the attack may do more damage to the public mind than the crime itself” (lines 83-88). In other words, it is important to “expose corruption” or “hunt down the criminal.” However, that effort is “valuable” or “useful” only when “conducted” or “done” in a truthful and responsible way.

Choice B is incorrect because Roosevelt does not discuss “measures” or “policies” to protect people who have been “unjustly” or “unfairly” accused of a crime. He only states that people need to be careful to avoid unjust accusations. Choice C is incorrect because Roosevelt does not say what is “crucial” or “essential” to a successful presidency. He is referring to society and politics in general, not only to the president. Choice D is incorrect because, while Roosevelt criticizes the manner in which some scandals are “disclosed or “revealed,” he does not say that the act of criticizing protects the guilty. Instead, he says that the manner itself can protect the guilty.

13

Choice C is the best answer because in Roosevelt’s discussion of Man with the Muck Rake, he says that the service of finding corruption, meaning “social criticism,” is important: “Now, it is very necessary that we should not flinch from seeing what is vile and debasing” (lines 7-10). However, he finds a fault in social criticism: it is often taken to an extreme which is harmful: “But the man who never does anything else, who never thinks or speaks or writes, save of his feats with the muck rake, speedily becomes, not a help ... but one of the most potent forces for evil” (lines 13-16).

Choice A is incorrect because Roosevelt does not say that problems are difficult to identify or name. He implies that such problems are easy to find: “there is filth on the floor, and it must be scraped up with the muck rake” (lines 9-10). Choice B is incorrect because, while the Man with the Muck Rake is not focused on spiritual matters, Roosevelt does not argue that such matters are “neglected” or “ignored.” Instead, he emphasizes the point that care should be taken when performing the task of social criticism. Choice D is incorrect because, while Roosevelt presents the “pitfall” or “problem” of social criticism, a public service, he does not claim that this problem is “inevitable” or “must happen.” He suggests that by taking care, the problem can be avoided.

14

Choice D is the best answer because “service” refers to the action that is performed by the Man with the Muck Rake. There are times and places when this “service” is “the most needed” (line 12). In other words, the “task” of revealing corruption is extremely important. Since Choice D means “task,” it fits the context well.

None of the other choices fit the context of describing the action performed by the Man with the Muck Rake. Choice A refers either to a natural ability or a place. Choice B refers to a fight or conflict, but the Man with the Muck Rake only reveals a problem, he does not fight it. Choice C refers to a formal ritual rather than a task or chore.

15

Choice A is the best answer because "every" is used in front of “evil man” (line 21) and “evil practice” (line 22). The context is that “there should be relentless exposure of and attack” (lines 19-20) upon these things. The repetition of “every,” therefore, emphasizes the claim that “all,” or “every,” bad act should be exposed and attacked. In Choice A, “wrongdoing” means “bad act,” and “condemned” means “criticize” or “attack,” so it aptly summarizes the claim that “all,” or “every,” bad act should be exposed and attacked.

Choice B is incorrect because “every” does not refer to the “audience” or “reader.” Instead, it refers to evil acts and people. Therefore, the repetition of “every” is not meant to “appeal” or “get the interest of” the reader. Choice C is incorrect because “every” does not relate to “certain” or “specific” groups compared to other groups. Instead, it “reinforces” or “strengthens” that all evil things should be treated the same way. The sentence in question is describing people who do bad acts, not people who become involved in “scandals” or “gossip that hurts others.” Choice D is incorrect because “every” does not say how “widespread” or “common” evil deeds are. Instead, it means that any such deed should be criticized.

16

Choice B is the best answer because the question is asking about what “approach to journalistic coverage” or “method of reporting” Roosevelt would like the least. Lines 23-28 (“I hail…truthful”) shows that Roosevelt most values truthful attacks against evil. He further asserts that “the liar is no whit better than the thief” (lines 28-29), showing that he thinks that lying should be considered as serious an offense and other crimes. Therefore, he would greatly “object to” or “disagree with” anyone who “distorts” or “exaggerates” details so they are not absolutely truthful when reporting a story.

Choice A is incorrect because Roosevelt never mentions his opinion of photographs. Furthermore, if the pictures are “incriminating” or “show a crime,” then he might approve because they help show the truth about something bad. Choice C is incorrect because, if the “technical” or “specialized” information is true, it would be acceptable, even if it “fails to clarify” the topic, meaning “does not make it understandable.” Choice D is incorrect because Roosevelt never discusses the motivations behind criminal acts. He says that “every evil practice” (line 22) should be exposed, so that indicates that even evil practices done with good intentions should be exposed.

17

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Roosevelt would be most likely to object to “distorting” or “changing” certain details to heighten the effect of the story. Choice D shows what Roosevelt values: complete accuracy in reporting. Therefore, it can be assumed that he disagrees with the opposite. In other words, he disagrees with practices that are not completely accurate, such as changing details.

Choice A is incorrect because it only says that people who only criticize may turn evil. It does not explain that Roosevelt would particularly disagree with the policy of distorting facts. Choices B and C only say that there are bad people that need to be exposed. There is no suggestion of a right or wrong way to do so.

18

Choice A is the best answer because “deliberate misrepresentation” means “changing the meaning on purpose.” Roosevelt says that his argument is “subject” or “open to” risk because “it is easy to twist out of shape what I have just said” (lines 38-39). Therefore, he feels that the argument is open to an intentional desire to “twist” or “change” the meaning. He further adds that “both the interested individuals who need whitewashing and those others who practice mud slinging like to encourage such confusion of ideas” (lines 44-47). People who “needs whitewashing” are public figures that have done wrong, and “others who practice mud slinging” are journalists.

Choice B is incorrect because “unintentional” means “not on purpose.” However, Roosevelt specifically says that certain people “like to encourage such confusion of ideas” (lines 46-47). These people are trying to cause confusion on purpose. In addition, Choice B is weak because it refers only to “aspiring government employees,” whereas Roosevelt thinks his argument can be attacked by any “interested individual” (line 45). Choice C is incorrect because Roosevelt does not refer to “financial profit” or “earning money.” He also does not discuss “unauthorized” or “not approved” printing of his argument. Choice D is incorrect because Roosevelt does not refer to criminals who “endorse” or “approve of” his argument. Therefore, he does not think the argument is at risk because of approval, either “wanted” or “unwanted.”

19

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Roosevelt believes that his argument about efforts to expose wrongdoing is subject to the risk of “deliberate misrepresentation” or “changing the meaning on purpose” by corrupt public figures and journalists. Choice C supports this conclusion because it gives two groups of people who want to “encourage such confusion of ideas” (line 47). One group is “interested individuals who need whitewashing” (line 45), meaning public figures who do wrong and want to cover it up. The other group is “those others who practice mud slinging” (line 46), meaning the journalists who deliberately report exaggerated news.

Choice A says that it “puts a premium upon knavery” (line 31), meaning it is extremely bad, to not be truthful in reporting what has happened. However, it does not say what risks Roosevelt feels his argument is exposed to. Choice B is also part of Roosevelt’s argument, and like Choice A, does not explain that the argument could be misinterpreted. Choice D discusses the consequences of incorrect reporting. It does not refer to risks to the argument.

20

Choice B is the best answer because Roosevelt claims that “gross and reckless assaults on character...create a morbid and vicious public sentiment” (lines 63-66). Therefore, he is assuming that critics can use their “influence” or “power” to “shape” or “affect” public opinion. If critics could not affect public opinion, then any “gross and reckless assault on character” would not affect public “sentiment” or “opinion” at all.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no evidence that Roosevelt thinks that critics are “immune” or “not affected by” political pressure. Choice C is incorrect because, while Roosevelt may think that critics should expose guilty officials, he never claims that they should “prosecute” or “pursue legal proceedings against” the guilty officials. There is no mention about who is responsible for ensuring that the crime is punished. Choice D is incorrect because Roosevelt implies the opposite: critics are able to investigate and report properly. The implication is clear because he “hails as a benefactor” (line 23) the people who report things accurately. Therefore, he feels critics are able to investigate and report accurately, though many do not choose to do so.

21

Choice C is the best answer because the first sentence of the paragraph, “at the risk of repetition let me say again” (line 77), indicates that Roosevelt is “restating” or “saying one more time” an important concern. He is doing so because he “anticipates” or “expects” that there may be a “potential” or “possible” confusion about his meaning. He clarifies that he does not want corrupt people to get “immunity” (line 78) or “protection.” Instead, he is arguing “for the most unsparing exposure of” (lines 78-79) of corrupt people.

Choice A is incorrect because Roosevelt does not offer an “alternate” or “different” solution to the problems he is discussing. Instead, he is summarizing his main point again. Choice B is incorrect because Roosevelt never wavers of shows doubt about the “practicality” or “ability to make his suggestions work.” Choice D is incorrect because the final paragraph does not “analyze” or “review” a possible “shortcoming” or “problem” in his “overall analysis” or “argument.” As a result, he does not “ultimately dismiss” or “finally set aside” such an analysis. He only tries to clarify a point so there is no misunderstanding.

22

Choice C is the best answer because “drove” is used to describe what the microbes did to the “decomposition of the animal” (line 23). The intended meaning is that the microbes made the decomposition happen. Since Choice C means “to make happen,” it fits the context well.

None of the other choices adequately shows what the microbes did to the “decomposition of the animal” (line 23). Choice A means “to follow and try to catch up with,” but the microbes were on the animal, so did not have to follow it. Choice B means to “push” or “poke,” usually with a pointed object such as a finger. Choice D means “carried.”

23

Choice A is the best answer because lines 31-32 say, “chickens are one of the closest living relatives to both dinosaurs and ancient birds.” Therefore, it can be assumed that the study used the chicken feathers because of that relationship. If the creatures are closely related, the scientists probably assumed that research about chicken feathers might “inform understanding” or “contribute to conclusions” about dinosaurs.

Choice B is incorrect because lines 33-34 say that “Moyer grew bacteria over them to replicate what we see in the fossil record.” Therefore, chicken feathers are not “resistant” or “unaffected” by the bacteria. Also, there is no indication that the bacteria “hampers” or “creates obstacles” to research. Bacteria is just one possible explanation for certain findings. Choice C is incorrect because there is no comparison between melanosomes from different tissues. Presumably, chicken feathers were used because they were being compared to fossilized feathers. Choice D is incorrect because there is no discussion about the “documentation” or “proof” of chicken feather coloration from any source.

24

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Moyer’s study used chicken feathers because conclusions drawn from research on chicken feather pigmentation might “inform understanding of” or “shed light on” the pigmentation of avian dinosaurs. Choice C mentions the close relationship between chickens and dinosaurs, implying that the relationship is the reason that the feathers were chosen.

None of the other choices support the conclusion that Moyer’s study used chicken feathers because they could help with the understanding of dinosaur coloring. Choice A only refers to a theory about coloration in dinosaurs; it does not explain why chicken feathers were used in a study. Choice B explains what melanosomes are. Choice D says that Moyer compared the results from the chicken feathers to dinosaur feathers but does not explain why she used chicken feathers.

25

Choice C is the best answer because “determined” is an action done by “Johan Lindgren of Lund University and his team” (lines 61-62). The verb describes what they did with the pigments. Choice C means “prove using facts.” It fits the context because the team concluded that the coloration of three marine reptiles “probably had blackish skin like the modern-day leatherback turtle” (lines 68-69). Therefore, the team “proved” what the pigments were.

None of the other choices adequately explains what the team did with the pigments. Choice A means “limited,” but the team did not change what the pigments could do or not. Choice B means “control” or “supervise,” but the pigments were not doing anything that needed monitoring. Choice D means “act as a judge or referee,” but the pigments were not in a conflict that needed a decision to be made.

26

Choice B is the best answer because McNamara says, “It was enough to provide the first unequivocal evidence of pigmentation in the skin of a fossilized animal” (lines76-78). Since “unequivocal” means “leaving no doubt,” McNamara’s statement means that she feels that the “evidence” or “proof” is very clear and “persuasive” or “convincing.”

None of the other choices are supported by evidence from the passage. McNamara calls the evidence “unequivocal,” which means that there is no doubt. Therefore, her view is the opposite of Choice A, which says there is doubt. Choice C means “unimportant and not to be trusted.” However, McNamara says that it is the “first” evidence of its kind, implying that it is very important. The fact that it is “unequivocal” indicates that it is reliable, because there is no doubt about how trustworthy it is. Choice D is incorrect because “promising” means that there is a chance of success in the future, but the results are complete. There is also no evidence to support the conclusion that she thought the results were “unexpected” or “a surprise.”

27

Choice D is the best answer because lines 87-91 say, “Lindgren's team showed that concentrations of eumelanin peaked in areas with the highest density of the tiny egg-shaped structures—suggesting the structures were indeed melanosomes, not bacterial cells.” This statement shows that the most “convincing” or “persuasive” piece of evidence was the location of the eumelanin: it was concentrated near the egg-shaped structures.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no explanation of the condition of the melanosomes, which are the egg-shaped structures. The only reference to condition is that the “eumelanin had degraded over time but remained largely intact” (lines 75-76). Choice B is incorrect because there is no connection drawn between the age of the fossils and the presence of melanosomes. Different fossils are mentioned to explain what sources the team used. Choice C is incorrect because the dark appearance is not enough to identify what the egg-shaped structures are. Lines 53-59 (“lots of…be bacteria”) say that the structures could be melanosomes or bacteria.

28

Choice A is the best answer because the “specific laboratory observations” are tests conducted by Moyer and Lindgren, in Passage 1 and 2 respectively. Both passages describe the “methods” or “ways of conducting the research” as well as the “findings” or “results.” In Passage 1, the method is described in paragraph 4 (lines 27-44, “Alison Moyer…more questions”). The findings are described in paragraph 5 (lines 45-51, “these structures…chemical data”). In Passage 2, the method is described in detail. The materials that were used are discussed in lines 64-67 (“they say…turtle”). The technique is mentioned in lines 72-74, “Lindgren's team went a step further by analyzing the chemistry of the structures and pigments in the samples.” Details of the technique are given in lines 81-91 (“to identify…bacterial cells). The conclusions are also spread throughout the passage. Lines 64-69 (“they say…turtle”) explain the probable coloring of the animals. Lines 89-91 say, “the structures were indeed melanosomes, not bacterial cells.”

Choice B is incorrect because, while both passages do deal with “micropaleontology,” the study of fossils using a microscope, they do not give “broad surveys” or “general overviews.” Instead, they focus on very specific cases. Choice C is incorrect because the articles are not trying to “dispute” or “disagree with” an assumption. Instead, the passages are trying to determine which of two interpretations—bacteria or melanosomes —of the “anatomy” or “physical structures” is correct. Choice D is incorrect because the passages are not trying to persuade the reader that “adopting” or “using” new technologies is good for science. The passages are only reporting the results of two studies.

29

Choice B is the best answer because “plausibly be deduced” means “reasonably be concluded.” Both scientists conduct experiments on microscopic structures—melanosomes. Since melanosomes are responsible for color, it can be assumed that the scientists believe that learning about the melanosomes will help them learn about the color of the dinosaurs that the fossils came from.

Choice A is incorrect because both teams do research on fossils, so even though soft tissue “degrades” or “breaks apart,” there is still enough evidence left to learn about the structures that create color. Choice C is incorrect because there is no evidence to say what colors the scientists think that dinosaurs might be. Passage 2 refers to the dark shades of some dinosaurs (lines 64-69, they say…turtle”) but that does not mean that all dinosaurs must have those colors. Choice D is incorrect because Lindgren's team comes up with solid conclusions about coloration based on the skin of certain fossils. Therefore, at least Lindgren believes that color leaves “identifiable traces” or “visible signs” in fossilized skin.

30

Choice A is the best answer because Moyer “identifies” or “describes” a need for chemical analysis in lines 49-51, “It's impossible to say with certainty what these structures are without more data, including fine scale chemical data.” Lindgren's team supplies that data “by studying the molecular composition of the pigments” (lines 60-61).

Choice B is incorrect because the members of Lindgren's team use fossilized skin; they do not use fossilized feathers or data from the modern chicken feather analyses that Moyer did. Choice C is incorrect because Moyer does not come up with a “preliminary conclusion” or “initial theory.” Instead, she admits, “it's impossible to say with certainty what these structures are” (lines 49-50). Lindgren's team therefore cannot “challenge” or “disagree” because there is no solution to disagree with. Choice D is incorrect because Lindgren does not “question the appropriateness” or “disagree with the suitability” of the “methodology” or “procedure” that Moyer uses. He only takes the previous studies further, rather than just visual identification, he gives a molecular analysis (lines 70-74, “previous studies…samples”).

31

Choice C is the best answer because “an important feature of the research methodology” refers to a key part of Moyer’s process of doing research. Passage 1 says Moyer used “microscopy to examine the patterns of biofilm growth” (lines 35-36) and then compared the results to other data. “Microscopy” is using a microscope to look at structures. Choice C summarizes this key part of Moyer’s research as relying “on a visual identification” (lines 70-71).

Choice A describes many fossils but does not mention how Moyer conducted her research. Choice B gives one possible theory for certain structures but does not explain the method Moyer used to determine what the structures are. Choice D describes Lindgren’s methodology, not that used by Moyer.

32

Choice D is the best answer because lines 5-6 say that “Often we use it to humorously convey disapproval or scorn.” The given example is a boss complaining about performance: “’Pat, don't work so hard!’ a boss might say, for example, on catching his assistant surfing the Web.” (lines 6-8). Therefore, sarcasm is commonly used to communicate “negative feedback,” another term for “criticism.”

None of the other choices are supported by any evidence from the passage. While they might be conveyed with sarcasm, they are not discussed as common uses.

33

Choice C is the best answer because "serious" in line 40 is used to describe half of a list of statements. The other half of the statements are sarcastic. Therefore, “serious” refers to the opposite of sarcastic. Line 32 calls them “literal,” which means that the statements are taken at their most basic, word-for-word meaning. Choice C also refers to statements that are not sarcastic, so it has the same basic meaning in the context.

None of the other words means “literal” or the opposite of sarcastic. Choice A is used to mean “surprising.” Choice B refers to having original ideas. Choice D means “too sure about one’s abilities.”

34

Choice A is the best answer because “badly” is used to describe how much the participants “overestimated their ability to communicate the tenor of these statements via e-mail” (lines 50-51). The data shows that the people did a very poor job in estimating, because they estimated way too high. Choice A means “extremely,” which accurately indicates that they overestimated in an extreme way.

Choice B is incorrect because it means “not with the quantity or quality desired.” However, the “overestimate” did not need to be greater. Choice C means “to the disadvantage of someone.” The overestimate did not really cause any damage, though. It was just greatly inaccurate. Choice D means refers to showing sorrow about something, but the people were not sad as they made the overestimate. They were just too confident that the estimate was correct.

35

Choice B is the best answer because the "negative picture of sarcasm" refers to the previous discussion about how seriously people overestimate their ability to “interpret the tone of the e-mail messages” (line 54). Since the people were unable to tell if the messages were sarcastic or not, they “actual intentions” or “real meanings” of the “communication” or “messages” were “obscured,” meaning “hidden.”

Choice A is incorrect because the discussion about overestimating the ability to interpret the tone of messages does not refer to the things that make people different or similar. Instead, the “negative picture” describes the problem of communicating sarcasm through a written medium such as e-mails. Choice C is incorrect because there is no comparison in the passage about how much sarcasm is used in different cultures. Therefore, the phrase does not refer to the “prevalence” or “how common” sarcasm is. Choice D is incorrect because the studies discussed do not describe the situation, so it is unknown whether they were funny or solemn. As a result, it is unclear whether sarcasm introduces or causes “inappropriate” or “not suitable” humor.

36

Choice D is the best answer because the part of the research that is “not surprising” is that “the participants exposed to sarcasm reported more interpersonal conflict than those in other groups” (lines 70-72). This claim is supported by Choice D, which says that in previous studies, people felt that sarcasm was “more condemning” (lines 31-32) than statements that were not sarcastic. Since “condemn” refers to criticizing or expressing disapproval, it is not surprising that people felt that sarcasm caused “interpersonal conflict” or the feeling that people were attacking or disapproving of them.

Choice A is incorrect because it does not explain why the research results were not surprising. It says words have their opposite meaning, but that does not directly lead to the idea that people who hear sarcasm feel that they are being criticized. Choice B, if anything, weakens the claim that it was not surprising that people felt conflict because of sarcasm. Choice B offers positive benefits of sarcasm, so might imply that people feel more positive or happy to be around each other. Choice C only describes the methods used by one study but does not explain the conclusions.

37

Choice A is the best answer because the study discovered that “pairs who had engaged in a sarcastic conversation fared better on the creativity tasks” (lines 73-74). However, the presence of sarcasm alone does not necessarily mean that someone is creative. This point is stressed in lines 76-77: people listening to sarcasm did well on creativity tasks “only when the recipient had picked up on the sarcasm in the script.” In other words, if they “perceived” or “understood” the sarcasm, they did well on creativity tasks. Therefore, it can be “interpreted” or “assumed” from the data that people who understand sarcasm are creative.

Choice B is incorrect because the study assigned roles to the participants, so the choice of using sarcasm or not was dictated by the researchers. There is no evidence showing what type of person prefers to “employ” or “use” sarcasm. Choice C is incorrect because there is no discussion about the preferences of the participants. The recipients of sarcasm tend to do well on creative tasks and also feel more conflict. However, there is no evidence that they are “combative,” meaning “wanting to engage in an argument,” or that the actually “enjoy” creative tasks. Choice C makes an associative link which is not supported by the data. Choice D is incorrect because “conversational” means “likes to talk.” There is no discussion about how much the participants like to talk; there is only a series of prepared scenarios that the people react to. Therefore, there is no data about whether people who “seek” or “look for” logical connections like to talk or not.

38

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that one possible interpretation of the 2015 study is that people who “perceive” or “understand” sarcasm well tend to be creative. Choice D supports this answer because it says that people who understood the sarcasm in the scripts also did well on creative tasks. However, they did not do well on those tasks if they did not understand the scripts. Therefore, there appears to be a link between understanding sarcasm and being creative.

Choice A is incorrect because it only describes a creative task. It does not explain what kind of person did well on the task. Choice B is incorrect because it does not refer to creativity or sarcasm at all. It only refers to a portion of the study related to the feeling of conflict. Choice C is incorrect because it only shows a link between sarcasm and feeling conflict; it does not show a link between sarcasm and creativity.

39

Choice C is the best answer because the last paragraph starts with a question, “Why might verbal irony enhance creativity?” (line 78). The paragraph then answers this question with a possible reason: people need to “think outside the box to generate and decipher ironic comments” (lines 83-84). “Think outside the box” refers to coming up with ideas or solutions that are not the most common or accepted ones. In other words, creative ways of thinking. Therefore, the paragraph is set up with a question that asks why the study revealed certain results, then gives a “potential” or “possible” answer to that question.

Choice A is incorrect because a “practical application” is a method of using the results for a purpose. However, the paragraph does not offer any way that sarcasm can be used to help in any way. For example, it does not show how using sarcasm can improve creativity; it only says why sarcasm and creativity may be linked. Choice B is incorrect because a “possible challenge” is an argument against the research. However, there is no information in the final paragraph that opposes the research in the passage. Choice D is incorrect because the passage does not give “two interpretations” or “two possible explanations” for the data in the passage. Therefore, the final paragraph does not give a “compromise” or “balance” between anything.

40

Choice B is the best answer because the “mean perceived conflict rating” is given on the y-axis. The column for “participants expressing sincerity” is given in the central column, the third from the left. That column reaches the line for the rating marked “5” on the y-axis, as shown by Choice B.

None of the other choices correlates with the mean perceived conflict rating for participants expressing sincerity. Choices A and C do not match data for any of the columns. Choice D matches the data for “receiving sarcasm” and “expressing sarcasm.”

41

Choice A is the best answer because “participants receiving sarcasm” and “participants expressing sarcasm” both have columns that are about the same height; they both are about 7 on the mean perceived conflict rating. Therefore, they have “approximately” or “about” the same rating.

Choice B is incorrect because “participants receiving sincerity” had a rating of about 4, and “participants expressing sincerity” had a rating of about 5, so these ratings are not “approximately” or “about” the same. Choice C is incorrect because “participants expressing sarcasm” have a conflict rating of about 7, whereas “participants expressing sincerity” have a conflict rating of about 5. Therefore, the rating for expressing sarcasm is higher rather than lower. Choice D is incorrect because “participants receiving sincerity” had a conflict rating of about 4, whereas “participants receiving sarcasm” had a conflict rating of about 7. Therefore, the rating for receiving sincerity is lower rather than higher.

42

Choice B is the best answer because an “analogy” is a comparison used to explain a point. The first paragraph describes the houses on a road trip, comparing the intervals between buildings. This image is used as an analogy for rabbit houses: “European rabbits, it turns out, build their homes in a similar way” (lines 10-11). Therefore, if readers understand the description of the houses on the road trip, they can “visualize” or “imagine” the “habitation” or “housing” of rabbits.

Choice A is incorrect because, although the paragraph “depicts” or “describes” an imaginary journey, the purpose is not to “transport” or “carry the reader to an “exotic setting” or “unusual place.” The reader is only asked to think about the place—which is common scenery—to get an idea of the way rabbit burrows are spaced. Choice C is incorrect because the passage is not about the “tediousness” or “boredom” of traveling by car. Therefore, the first paragraph is not trying to “evoke” or “create” that mood—it is trying to establish the contrast between houses that are far apart and houses that are together. Choice D is incorrect because the first paragraph does not “persuade” or “convince” the reader about anything. Furthermore, the passage itself does not say that “rural habitats” or “country environments” areas are “more suitable” for rabbits. The final sentence, in fact, suggests the opposite: “country life may mean hunger and hunting ferrets, but for urban rabbits, life is (so far) good” (lines 72-74).

43

Choice D is the best answer because "regular" describes the “intervals” (line 7) for the city houses. The “regular intervals” are contrasted with the “clumping” (line 8) of houses in the country. “Clumping” refers to “in uneven groups.” Therefore, “regular” is referring to “even” or “consistent” intervals between houses in a city.

All of the other choices are incorrect because they refer to “common” or “accepted” ways. However, the clumping of houses in the country is common or accepted, so that is not the aspect that is being contrasted with “regular.”

44

Choice A is the best answer because the question is asking about a way that rabbits' burrowing patterns could “aid” or “help.” Lines 12-14 say, “understanding their urban planning strategy matters to humans trying to conserve them.” Therefore, understanding the “patterns” or “strategies” for building burrows in the city—an urban environment—can help with “conservation” or “preservation.”

None of the other choices are supported by any evidence from the passage. Choice B is incorrect because there is no discussion of “constructing” or “building” burrows for rabbits. The rabbits build their own burrows; the people just want to make sure there are appropriate places for the rabbits to live. Choice C is incorrect because there is no discussion of “transferring” or “moving” rabbit populations from one place to another. Choice D is incorrect because the passage does not say that natural habitats need to be “urbanized” or “made more like a city.”

45

Choice D is the best answer because the question is asking for evidence that shows that it is “predict” or “guess accurately” the “relative positions,” meaning, “locations” of burrows for rabbits in urban areas. Choice D supports that claim because it says that urban burrows are “spaced out more evenly” (lines 52-53) than rural burrows, meaning that the urban burrows are basically the same distance apart from each other. If that is true, it is easier to guess where the burrows are because you can look for another burrow the same distance away as the first two burrows are. By contrast, you can’t accurately predict the position of the next rural burrow because some are really close, but some are far apart.

None of the other choices adequately explains why it is harder to find the location of a second rural burrow than it is to find the location of a second urban burrow. Choice A only says that the rabbit population is lower. Choice B only explains the factors used to determine “urbanity.” Choice C says that urban burrows are more common but does not provide evidence showing why it is easier to predict the location of the burrows.

46

Choice D is the best answer because “artificial” is used to describe a ground covering, and the examples in the sentence are “pavement or playground turf” (line 35). Choice D means “man-made” rather than “natural,” so fits the context of describing ground that is covered by something that is not natural.

Choice A is incorrect because it refers to a substitute or replacement. However, the “artificial” thing is not a substitute for real ground, it is just a covering over the ground. Choice B refers to an imitation that is meant to deceive people into thinking it is the real thing. However, pavement and playground turf are not designed to trick people into thinking they are real ground. They are just coverings made for specific purposes. Choice C refers to something that is designed to impress, but pavement and playground turf are not trying to appear more important than they really are.

47

Choice A is the best answer because an “assumption” refers to something that is accepted as true without necessarily having specific proof. In the study, the researchers made assumptions about certain “aspects” or “parts” of the “burrow's outward appearance,” meaning “what the burrow looked like from the surface.” The researchers used the “outward appearance” of the number of entrances to determine the size: “they also counted burrow entrances to estimate how big each home was” (lines 43-45).

Choice B is incorrect because the researchers did not rely on any “experimental settings,” or situations which were created in a laboratory rather than in the wild. Therefore, it does not matter if behaviors are different in experimental conditions. Choice C is incorrect because, while the researchers did watch the burrows at dawn and dusk (lines 41-43, “the researchers…and went”), it does not matter if the activities the rabbits “engaged in,” meaning “did,” were different or not. It does not matter if the actions were “identical” or “the same,” because the number of rabbits was all that was monitored. Choice D is incorrect because the researchers did not assume that the populations were “equivalent” or “the same.” Lines 15-19 (“Hunting…hopping”) indicate that the researchers knew that there would be more rabbits in the city.

48

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the researchers' data-collection methods depended on an assumption that the size of a burrow can be estimated by certain aspects of the burrow's “outward appearance,” or the way the borrow looks. Choice D supports that claim because it says that the researchers determined the size of the burrow based on the “appearance” of numbers of entrances. If the outward appearance—the numbers of entrances—did not relate to the size of the burrow, then their guess about the size would be in error. Therefore, Choice D isolates an important assumption that the researchers made.

None of the other choices provides evidence that the researchers made assumptions about the outward appearance of the burrows. Choice A says where the researchers found burrows. Choices B and C offer methods the researchers used to count numbers of rabbits that were not based on the outward appearance of burrows.

49

Choice A is the best answer because lines 61-65 discuss the role of heat in rabbit burrows: “big groups of rabbits keep their burrows toastier in the winter—but cities are a little warmer to begin with, so living with a lot of warm bodies might not be as important.” Therefore, “clusters” or “big groups” may be advantageous to make the burrow “toastier” or “warmer.”

None of the other choices are supported by evidence from the text. For Choice B, there is no reference as to whether the rabbits leave their burrow at different times due to different temperatures. For Choice C, larger burrows are good for helping avoid predation because they have escape routes (lines 65-68, “in the countryside…fewer predators”). However, there is no mention that avoiding predators is only a strategy for the winter or lower temperatures. Choice D is incorrect because the breeding season is not discussed in the passage at all.

50

Choice C is the best answer because an “inverse relationship” is a correlation in which, as one variable goes up, another other goes down. The “abundance” or “amount” of food is an inverse relationship because, as the amount of food increases, there are fewer rabbits in each burrow.

Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not describe genetic diversity at all. Therefore, there is no evidence in the passage to determine if there is a relationship between genetics and burrow size at all. Choice B is incorrect because, if number of entrances is a measure of complexity, there is a direct rather than inverse relationship between complexity and the threat of predation. That is because there are more entrances when there is more threat, and less entrances when there is less threat. Choice D is incorrect because “uncovered ground” is one factor of “urbanity.” If there is “widespread,” meaning “a lot,” of uncovered ground, the burrow size is not limited, it is expanded. Therefore, the relationship is direct rather than inverse.

51

Choice C is the best answer because in Figure 1, the “urbanity rating” is given on the x-axis. Since negative values are also given, “1” is to the right-hand side of the scale. The site with a rating closest to one—the site directly above the 1—is at a point that matches about 3.5 on the y-axis, which shows burrows per hectare. 3.5 is between 3 and 4.

None of the other choices is supported by data from the graph. Choice A includes values for an urbanity rating of about 0. Choices C and D are numbers of burrows for values close to 1, but not the closest point that is directly over the 1.

52

Choice C is the best answer because the urbanity rating is given on the x-axis. Values to the left of 1 are less than 1, and values to the right of 1 are greater than 1. Since there are no points on the chart to the right of the 1, it is clear that none of the sites had an urbanity rating of greater than 1.

Choice A is incorrect because burrow population is given on the y-axis. A population of 4 is towards the bottom; all points lower than 4 are “less than” 4. There are about 15 dots under the 4 mark, so there is not just “only one site” with a population less than 4. Choice B is incorrect because burrow population over 16 would be given as dots over 16 on the y-axis. However, the y-axis stops at 16, so there are no points listed above it. Therefore, “a majority” or “the largest” number of the sites is not above that number. Choice D is incorrect because the “most common urbanity rating” is the number on the x-axis with the greatest number of points above it. That number is just under 0, at about -2. By contrast, there are no points above the -1 rating. Therefore, -1 is not the “most common” rating.

1

Content: introduction and conclusion

Choice C is the best answer because the passage is about “movable” books. The concept is illustrated by a lengthy discussion of the works of Lothar Meggendorfer. Since “movable” means “not static,” Choice C introduces the topic by saying that bookmakers “challenge” or “try to show” that books do not have to be non-moving things.

Choice A is incorrect because it refers to “numerous inventions,” but the passage only describes one type of innovation, books that have moving parts. In addition, Choice A refers to “revolutionizing the technology,” meaning “radically changing the application of scientific knowledge,” but there is no indication that the moving books changed any other equipment or theories related to practical science. Choice B is incorrect because it introduces the idea of “various types of media,” which refers to different forms of art. However, only one form of art, movable books, is discussed in the passage, while Choice B implies that there will be a much wider variety of subjects covered. Choice D is incorrect because it refers to the reader’s “interpretation” or “view” of a book, whereas the passage does not deal with the meaning of books or how people view books.

2

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice B is the best answer because “some…illustrations” is an independent clause. “While” subordinates the following clause, “others…page” so it refers to the main clause and creates a sentence with a main clause and a dependent clause.

Choice A is incorrect because it is a comma splice between two independent clauses. Choice C is incorrect because it is a run-on between two independent clauses. Choice D is incorrect because “with” is not preceded by a comma, so the following information, “others…pages” refers to the preceding noun, “illustrations.” However, “other…pages” is a complete idea that refers to other pages, not the illustrations found under the flaps.

3

Content: style and tone

Choice B is the best answer because the two examples already in the sentence are elements that books with moving pieces contained: “tabs that linked dynamic parts on a page” and “interconnected slats of paper that morphed one illustration into another as they were pulled.” Choice B offers another specific element of a moving part of a book, foldout displays. Therefore, Choice B is most in keeping with the existing examples.

Choice A is incorrect because it refers to the skill of the artist rather than a technical aspect of a book. Choices C and D refer to the theme and wording, so they do not provide another example of a specific way that moveable books worked.

4

Content: subject-verb agreement

Choice B is the best answer because the subject of the sentence is singular, “one.” The one master described is “German artist and illustrator Lothar Meggendorfer.”

Choices A and C are incorrect because, despite a reference to “the early masters,” the subject is singular. Since Choices A and C are plural, they do not agree. Choice D is incorrect because it is used to show an action that started in the past and is still occurring at the time of the passage. However, the passage is discussing a person from the past, as Meggendorfer lived from 1847 to 1925. Therefore, he is not still “an early master.”

5

Content: addition and deletion

Choice C is the best answer because the paragraph is about the ways that illustrations could be manipulated or moved, not about techniques used to print them. The added sentence brings up an application of printing techniques—using them on fabric—that is not developed anywhere else in the passage, so is only tangentially related. Furthermore, the following sentence starts with “for example,” which means that the following information should be a specific illustration of the previous point. The example that follows is a specific image that moves in one of Meggendorfer’s books. Therefore, it better follows the existing sentence about Meggendorfer’s methods than about printing on fabric.

Choices A and B are incorrect because the added sentence should not be included in the paragraph. The discussion of printing on fabric does not relate to the example of a butterfly net, and the sentence does not include an example of hidden parts in books. Choice D is incorrect because the added sentence does not “contradict” or “go against” any other information. It should not be included because it interrupts the flow of the paragraph.

6

Content: possession and possessive pronouns

Choice A is the best answer because the “arm” belongs to the “naturalist.” An apostrophe followed by an “s” after “naturalist” is the correct way to show possession by one naturalist. None of the other words needs an apostrophe because they do not own anything.

Choices B and D are incorrect because “naturalists’” is the possessive plural form, but there is only one naturalist, as can be confirmed by the singular “lepidopterist’s mouth” and singular pronoun “his eyes.” Choice B is also incorrect because “swings” is a verb, so should not contain an apostrophe indicating possession. Choice C is incorrect because “naturalists” is a plural pronoun, so does not show that the arm belongs to one person.

7

Content: sentence combination

Choice A is the best answer because it turns the second sentence into a modifier that describes the previous clause. Choice A is concise and does not contain any ambiguous pronouns.

Choice B is incorrect because “it” is ambiguous. With no clear antecedent, it could refer to “one tab,” “Always Jolly,” “naturalist’s arm,” “a butterfly net,” “the butterfly,” or “a flower.” Likewise, the “something” in Choice C and the “this” in Choice D are also ambiguous.

8

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice C is the best answer because the underlined portion refers to how the “eight poems” relate to the “eight movable figures.” Choice C refers to being with an added feature that enhances. Therefore, Choice C clearly expresses the connection that the movable figures enhance the experience of reading the poems.

None of the other choices adequately describes the relationship between the “eight poems” and the “eight movable figures.” Choice A means “having the same opinion,” but poems and figures are inanimate, so do not think or have opinions. Choice B means “immediately” or “at the same moment.” However, the poems and illustrations can be repeated many times, and not necessarily rapidly. Choice D is incorrect because it refers to something moving at the same rate or speed, so does not apply to two things which function in completely different ways.

9

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice B is the best answer because “with…fangs” is a dependent clause, so should be divided from the main clause, “the line…harm” with a comma.

Choice A is incorrect because “with…fangs” is a dependent clause that cannot stand on its own as a sentence. Choice C is incorrect because a semicolon should divide two independent clauses, but the preceding portion cannot stand on its own. Furthermore, Choice C includes two semicolons, which is a stylistically unacceptable. Choice D is also incorrect because, when there is only one dash in a sentence, it needs to be preceded by an independent clause.

10

Content: tense, mood and voice

Choice C is the best answer because it is the simple past tense, so accurately shows that the action of providing occurred in the past. The simple past tense is correctly used when a sequence of events is given in chronological order, which fits the context of saying that first he was satisfied, then he provided the artisans with instructions.

Choices A and D are incorrect because they are present tenses, so should not be used to describe an event that occurred in the past. Choice B is incorrect because it is used to indicate that the action occurred before another action in the sentence. However, the action of providing occurred after the action of being satisfied.

11

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice C is the best answer because the final paragraph discusses how Meggendorfer’s books are rare because the complex parts made them too expensive to produce many. The paragraph then continues to say that the books are still available on the internet. Choice C summarizes the paragraph by highlighting the contrast between the modern technology of the internet and the primitive tools used by Meggendorfer. The “ingenuity” or “creativity” links to the passage’s main topic of the innovative techniques that Meggendorfer used to make the books.

Choices A and B are incorrect because they develop unrelated details about the internet rather than adding any more detail about the preservation of Meggendorfer’s books or about the main topic of Meggendorfer’s creativity. Choice D is incorrect because it discusses “modern engineers,” but people inspired by Meggendorfer’s books are not discussed in the passage. Therefore, it introduces a new and undeveloped idea rather than summarizing the passage.

12

Content: punctuation

Choice B is the best answer because “to buy and develop properties on a game board” is the reason that “Monopoly players use colorful play money.” It is essential to the understanding of the sentence, so should not be divided from the main clause using any punctuation.

All of the other choices are incorrect because they divide important parts of the sentence from each other. In Choices A and D, the comma after “money” separates the reason, “to buy…,” that the play money is used. In Choices C and D, a comma after “properties” divides the important point of “on a game board” from “properties.” Without that phrase, it is unclear what properties are being referred to.

13

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice D is the best answer because the underlined portion shows what happens to the property owner after other players are charged rent for landing on the property. The result is that the property owner can “buy and develop more properties.” Choice D means “adding wealth to,” which accurately shows that the owner gains wealth from collecting the rent money.

None of the other choices accurately shows what happens to the property owner as a result of other players being charged rent for landing on the property. Choice A refers to physically raising something. Choice B refers to praising or honoring someone. Choice C means “making better.” None of these interpretations explains why the owner gains the ability to “buy and develop more properties.”

14

Content: transitions

Choice D is the best answer because the previous sentence is describing the basic method of playing a game. The following sentence shows how the game is won. Choice D means “in the end,” so accurately shows that the winning happens at the end of the game.

None of the other choices adequately signals the relationship between the previous sentence and the following information. Choice A means “at the start,” so does not fit a description of the end of the game. Choice B means “at the same time,” so does not show that the action of winning comes after the action of playing the game. Choice C means “in addition,” and is used to add more detail about the same topic, so would be used to comment about the rules already discussed. It should not be used to introduce a new point.

15

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice A is the best answer because the claim that is made later in the sentence is that “Monopoly seems to celebrate the cutthroat, winner-take-all competition that many associate with modern capitalism.” Choice A gives a specific example of the game’s “cutthroat” or “ruthless” competition—taking a lot of money for oneself. Taking money is often associated with “modern capitalism,” the economic system in the US today. Therefore, Choice A effectively introduces the following claim.

All of the other choices refer to strategies for playing the game, but they do not discuss any “cutthroat” actions; they do not show ways that the player hurts others in the attempt to gain wealth. Therefore, they do not adequately set up the following claim that the game seems like a “winner-take-all competition” that is like “modern capitalism.”

16

Content: transitions

Choice B is the best answer because the paragraph discusses the “winner-take-all competition” that is like “modern capitalism” which Monopoly seems to represent. The following paragraph says that Magie wanted to “to spread George’s ideas” that private ownership is not good for society. In other words, Magie’s goal was not to create a game that is not a “winner-take-all competition.” Choice B clearly indicates that Magie had a different idea than the one described in the previous paragraph, effectively setting up the following description of the idea that she really had when designing the game.

Choice A is weak because it says that Magie “wanted to change the world,” but there is no indication that her goal was different from the one described in the previous paragraph. Also, there is no indication in the following paragraph that Magie wanted to make drastic changes in the entire world, only teach others about a certain belief system. Choice C is weak because it does not explain what Magie’s views are. Therefore, it does not set up a contrast between the previous and following discussions. Choice D is weak because there is no discussion of what Magie did with her game, so Choice D does not tie in any information from either the previous or following paragraphs.

17

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice D is the best answer because “although…radicals” is a dependent clause, so the following portion needs to be an independent clause. Choice D eliminates all transition words so that the following portion can stand on its own as a sentence.

All the other choices are incorrect because they turn the following portion into a dependent clause. The result is a fragment rather than a complete sentence with a main clause.

18

Content: possession and possessive pronouns

Choice B is the best answer because “properties” is a plural noun. The properties belong to the game, and this possession is correctly shown by putting an apostrophe and “s” after the singular word “game.”

Choices A and D are incorrect because the property does not possess anything, so should not have an apostrophe of possession. In addition, the game has more than one property, but “property” is singular rather than plural. Choice C is incorrect because “games’” is the possessive form of the plural “games,” but only one game is being discussed, “Magie’s original game.”

19

Content: addition and deletion

Choice A is the best answer because the following sentence refers to “all this variety.” However, the only variety in the passage up to that point is the discussion in the previous paragraph about the additional set of rules. Choice A offers another example of a way the rules changed, so makes the claim about “all this variety” more logical.

Choice B is incorrect because the added sentence refers to players, who are people other than Magie, so the sentence does not support any claims made about Magie. Choices C and D are incorrect because the added sentence should be kept to enhance the logical flow of the passage. The sentence does not repeat information about the history and does not distract from the focus about standardization. If anything, the added sentence about different rules offers a logical reason to discuss why the rules were made standard.

20

Content: parallelism

Choice B is the best answer because “sensing a moneymaking opportunity” is a modifier that describes Darrow. The following portion includes a list of actions that Darrow did. All of the verbs in a list of actions joined by “and” should have the same tense. “And enlisted” is in the past tense, so the other verbs should also be in the past tense: “designed” and “penned.”

None of the other choices maintains the parallelism of the list of actions joined by “and.” In Choice A, “sensed” becomes the main action of the sentence, so “designing” should also be in the past tense to create a list of four actions that are all in the past tense. In Choices C and D, “penning” is not parallel with “enlisted.” In Choice D, “designing” is also not the same verb tense as “enlisted."

21

Content: punctuation

Choice C is the best answer because “effectively illustrating the very point her game was attempting to teach” refers to the subject of the sentence; it is another action caused by “the deal.” Therefore, that portion should be divided from the main sentence with a comma.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication that the main clause ends; “effectively illustrating…” appears to refer to the previous noun, “Magie,” rather than the subject of the sentence, “the deal.” Choice B is weak because a dash should be used to add an aside that adds detail but does not change the understanding of the main sentence, but in this case, “effectively…” is an important element that shows the profound repercussions of the deal. Therefore, Choice B does not clearly establish the relationship between the parts of the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because “effectively…teach” does not have both a subject and verb, so cannot not stand on its own as a sentence.

22

Content: style and tone

Choice C is the best answer because it clearly and professionally conveys the intended meaning of “a lot of money.” Therefore, it is in keeping with the relatively formal tone established by the rest of the passage.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they do not maintain the tone of the passage. The other choices are casual options that are acceptable in conversation, but not in a written essay. In Choice A, “remuneration” is a formal term for “money paid for a service,” so does not include all the ways that “a few” gain wealth. “Ridiculous” is extremely casual when used to mean “a lot”; its formal meaning is “very funny,” so the sharp contrast between the very formal words and casual usage is particularly notable.

23

Content: punctuation

Choice C is the best answer because the underlined portion is a list of places joined by “and.” The items are “inside walls,” “under floors” and “around pipes.” All items in such a list need to be separated by commas, so there should be a comma after “walls” and “floors.”

None of the other choices are standard punctuation for separating items in a list joined by “and.” Choices A and D contain semicolons, which should only be used in a list if the items are complex and contain commas. All items in such a list need to be followed by a semicolon, so the punctuation is not consistent. Choice B contains no punctuation, so it is difficult for the reader to determine where one idea ends and the next begins.

24

Content: parallelism

Choice D is the best answer because the underlined portion is part of the subject of the sentence. The subject is a list of nouns joined by “and.” In such a list, each item should contain the same grammatical structure. Choice D is a simple noun, just like “homeowners” and “business owners.”

None of the other choices maintains the parallelism of the list. Choice A erroneously places the pronoun “they” directly after the list of things it refers to. Choice B includes “also,” which is redundant when used with “and.” Choice C contains the ambiguous “those.” None of the other nouns possess anything, so it is unclear what is possessed by the “municipalities.” “Those” should not be included.

25

Content: style and tone

Choice C is the best answer because it concisely explains what will happen to both types of insulation jobs in the coming years. Choice C is clear and professional, in keeping with the tone established by the passage.

Choice A is weak because in the context, “happening” is extremely casual and not precise. It means “occurring” or “taking place,” but the jobs do not “take place.” Instead, the jobs are created. Choice B is also casual or not precise, because it doesn’t explain that the jobs should increase in number. Choice D uses overly pompous language that is not in keeping with the style of the passage. In addition, Choice D is not totally accurate, as it refers to the “burgeoning” or “growth” of “employment” in general. However, the passage is referring to the growth of employment in specific fields.

26

Content: graphics

Choice A is the best answer because the number of floor, ceiling, and wall insulator jobs is given in the top row of the table. The number for 2012 is in the first column, 23.3. The number for 2022 is in the second column, 29.4. The headings of the table say that these numbers represent thousands of jobs. Choice A accurately reports that these statistics show a “rise” or “increase” in numbers of jobs.

Choice B is incorrect because there is a rise, not a “decline” or “drop” in numbers of jobs. Choice C is incorrect because 42,400 is the number of mechanical insulation workers anticipated in 2022; it is the number in the row below the one for floor, ceiling, and wall insulator jobs. Choice D incorrectly says that the number of jobs in 2012 is an “increase” or “rise” to the level in 2022. However, the rise is only 6,100 jobs, to a total of 29,400 in 2022.

27

Content: graphics

Choice A is the best answer because the sentence is referring to a group that has an expected growth rate of 38%. The only box on the chart that says 38% is in the bottom right-hand corner. This number is the percent increase (as shown in the label for the column) of the row labeled “total.” In other words, it is the total of all the different types of insulation jobs listed, both “floor, ceiling, and wall” and “mechanical.” Choice A summarizes this by saying “as a whole,” meaning “all.”

Choice B is incorrect because the percentage is for the “total” rather than “other.” Choices C and D are incorrect because the location of the job is not mentioned in the table. The only information given is the type of work done.

28

Content: transitions

Choice C is the best answer because the previous sentence says that a certain type of insulation, “sprayable polyurethane foam,” has been used for years because it is inexpensive and easy to use: these are positive reasons to use the spray. The following sentence offers negative points or disadvantages of the spray: it is not renewable and is not environmentally friendly. Choice C is used to introduce a contrasting idea, so works very well to show that there is a shift in tone from positive to negative.

None of the other choices effectively establishes the relationship between the previous and following information. Choice A means “at the same time,” but it is usually used for actions that occur simultaneously. It is not used to show two opposing features of a product. In addition, the use of the spray for years slightly precedes the decision that it is unsuitable for the environment, so there is a slight difference rather than “at the same time.” Choice B is used to show a result or conclusion of a previous argument, not the opposing view. Choice D creates a very abrupt change because the previous sentence is about good points of the spray, so without a transition word of warning, the reader is expecting another good point.

29

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice A is the best answer because the underlined word shows what the environmental groups have “deemed” or “declared” the use of the spray to be. The following sentence offers two alternatives to the spray that “safe, low in toxins, and sustainable.” Choice A means “not acceptable.” Therefore, it fits the context in describing a spray that is not acceptable for use because it is not safe, contains toxins, and is not sustainable.

None of the other choices adequately describe what environmentalists think about the use of the spray. Choice B means “not a good time,” but the environmentalists do not think that there is a better time to use the spray. Choice C means “confusing” or “unclear.” Choice D means “not likely to succeed” or “not lucky.”

30

Content: tense, mood, and voice

Choice A is the best answer because the passage is in the present tense (“these groups are instead recommending”) and describes a general recommendation that is valid today. Therefore, the present tense should be used. The verb also needs to agree with the singular subject, “cotton denim insulation.” Choice A is the singular present form of “to be,” so fits the context correctly.

Choices B and C are incorrect because they are plural, so do not agree with the singular noun “cotton denim insulation.” Choices C and D are incorrect because they are past tense verbs, so do not fit a discussion in the present tense.

31

Content: syntax

Choice B is the best answer because the groups are recommending two different things, “cotton denim insulation” and “cellulose insulation.” These things are best joined by “or,” as it indicates that one option of the two, but not both, should be used. The first item, “cotton denim insulation,” is modified by the relative clause, “which is made from industrial scraps.” A relative clause that is not essential needs to be separated from the main clause with a comma at both ends. Since there is a comma before the clause after “insulation,” there should also be a comma at the end of the clause, after “scraps.”

Choices A and C are incorrect because a single semicolon is used to divide two independent clauses, but the portion after the semicolon cannot stand on its own as a sentence. Choice D is incorrect because it does not contain any conjunction to join the two nouns that are recommended by the groups. “And” or “or” is needed. With no conjunction, the final portion of the sentence appears to be all part of a description of what cotton denim insulation is made of. However, that is not correct because “industrial scraps, “cellulose insulation,” “composed of recycled paper,” and “natural fibers” are not parallel in grammatical structure.

32

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice D is the best answer because the following information is that the materials require “specialized equipment and additional workers.” Choice D says that the materials are “more labor-intensive,” meaning that they require more time and effort to install. Therefore, Choice D creates a logical sentence with a general statement that the materials require effort, followed by the specific reasons why.

Choice A is incorrect because it refers to “removing” rather than “installing” the insulation, so it does not relate to the second half of the sentence. Choice B is incorrect because it refers to only one of the two options for environmentally safe insulation, but the paragraph is describing the features of both. Choice B also does not make sense; there is no reason why the spray needs additional workers to mix and apply it. Choice C is incorrect because it refers to energy efficiency, which is not related to the effort involved in installing the insulation.

33

Content: punctuation

Choice B is the best answer because “owner of a New York insulation company” is an appositive that renames the subject of the sentence, “Devin O’Brien.” Appositives need to be divided from the main clause with a comma at both ends. Since there is a comma in front of “owner,” there should also be one after “company.”

Choices A and C are incorrect because a single dash and a semicolon should both follow an independent clause, but the preceding portion has no verb. Choice D is incorrect because it does not indicate where the appositive ends and the main sentence resumes, creating a confusing sentence.

34

Content: punctuation

Choice C is the best answer because the underlined portion is part of a list of nouns that Mount Washington experiences: “hurricane-force winds,” “below-zero temperatures,” and “year-round snow.” Items in a list joined by “and” should be separated by commas, as in Choice C.

None of the other choices are standard usage when joining items in a list. In addition, the punctuation in all of the choices needs to be preceded by a complete sentence. However, there is no conjunction such as “and” between ““hurricane-force winds” and “below-zero temperatures,” so the preceding portion is not a complete sentence.

35

Content: pronouns

Choice D is the best answer because the underlined portion is a pronoun that refers to “observers.” Choice D is plural, so correctly refers to the plural noun.

Choices A and B are incorrect because they are singular, so do not agree with the plural subject “observers.” Choice C is plural, but it does not fit the context because it is used to refer to a specific group that is being seen by the speaker and listener, such as “look at those people.”

36

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice B is the best answer because the information that follows is a description of rapidly worsening weather conditions: pressure differences that caused extreme wind and ice. This description is a contrast to the first half of the sentence, which describes clear skies. Choice B says that the weather conditions worsened and offers the reason, “two weather systems collided.” Therefore, Choice B prepares the reader for a description of bad weather to follow.

Choice A is incorrect because it brings up a detail about a person who is not mentioned anywhere else in the passage. Since the person and his injury are not connected to the discussion of the weather, Choice A is unrelated and does not set up the following information. Choice C is incorrect because, although it mentions an “important finding” that relates to later discussions, it does not set up the discussion in the paragraph. The paragraph is about the changing weather, not about the record-breaking wind speed or creating a permanent weather station. Choice D is incorrect because it only refers to the previous information, not to the following discussion.

37

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice C is the best answer because “driving…rime” is a second action done by the subject, “a steep pressure difference.” Therefore, it needs to be separated from the main clause with a comma.

Choice A is incorrect because a semicolon should divide two independent clauses, but the following portion cannot stand on its own as a sentence. Choice B is incorrect because a colon should be used to add more explanation that clarifies the main clause. However, the following portion is a separate action that occurs, not a clarification. Choice D is incorrect because “driving…” does not have a subject and active verb, so cannot stand on its own as a sentence.

38

Content: transitions

Choice B is the best answer because the previous sentence says that the weather was getting worse. The following information is a description of why the anemometer had sometimes not worked correctly because of such weather conditions. Choice B creates a solid transition because it refers to the conditions described in the previous sentence and explains why they might be a problem: they might interfere with monitoring the weather. Therefore, it gives the reader a warning that the following information is more detail about how the conditions might cause problems.

Choice A is incorrect because “and” creates an illogical relationship between the parts of the sentence. It gives equal importance to the idea of waiting and the idea that the anemometer had not worked in the past but does not explain in any way how these points are related. The reader does not know how the malfunctioning machine relates to the discussion at all. Choice C is incorrect because it brings up a point, safety, that is not mentioned in either the previous or following discussions. Choice D is incorrect because it only refers to the previous discussion. A colon should be followed by more explanation of the sentence’s main clause, but the malfunctioning anemometer does not explain the falling pressure and increasing wind speed at all.

39

Content: precision and concision

Choice A is the best answer because it concisely provides all of the necessary information: the equipment had “malfunctioned” or “not worked correctly” before.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they are redundant. The main sentence includes previously, so “before” in Choice B and “at another point in time” are not needed. In Choice C, “failing to operate correctly” is the definition of “malfunctioned,” so both are not needed.

40

Content: parallelism

Choice C is the best answer because the sentence describes three actions that the subject “he,” meaning “Wendell Stephenson,” did. The verbs in a list of actions joined by “and” should all be in the same tense. The verbs in the main sentence are “put on” and “picked up,” so the underlined portion should also be in the simple past.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they are not in the simple past tense. Therefore, they do not maintain parallelism with “put on” and “picked up,” the other verbs in the list of actions.

41

Content: misplaced modifier

Choice D is the best answer because the modifier “back inside” should describe the following word. In Choice D, the following word is the subject “he,” which correctly indicates that the person had been outside and was now inside again.

All of the other choices create illogical sentences because “back inside” does not refer to the person who went outside. In Choices A and B the modifier refers to “his efforts.” In Choice C, it refers to “success.”

42

Content: logical sequence

Choice C is the best answer because the added sentence refers to an action that occurred after “he,” meaning “Wendell Stephenson,” left the building; the wind knocked him to the ground, so he was outside and moving towards the anemometer. Sentence 4 refers to preparing to go outside, and sentence 5 refers to what happened when Stephenson came back inside. Therefore, the added sentence makes most sense between these sentences.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they interrupt the chronological flow of the paragraph. Choices A and B place the added sentence about Stephenson did outside before telling the reader that he went outside. Choice D discusses his actions outside after saying that he had come back in.

43

Content: sentence combination

Choice A is the best answer because it most concisely joins the sentences. It effectively turns the second sentence into a prepositional phrase adding detail to the main clause.

All the other choices can be eliminated as convoluted. They include extra words that repeat ideas from the main sentence, so are not necessary to convey the author’s intended point.

44

Content: transition

Choice D is the best answer because the relationship between the previous and following sentence is clear without any transitional words.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they do not indicate the correct relationship between the preceding and following sentences. The preceding sentence claims that the discussed event at the observatory resulted in the highest wind speed recorded by humans. The following sentence says that the observatory continues to operate. Choice A is a transition that introduces a contradictory or unexpected idea, but there is no reason that the continued operation of the observatory is a surprise or opposite of what was mentioned earlier. Choice B is used to highlight two similar features, but the topic changes so there is no comparison given. Choice C is used to paraphrase the previous information, but the ideas are different, not the same using different wording.

1

Choice D is the best answer because the first paragraph begins with the discussion of Henry’s conversations about “suitable” or “appropriate” properties with Mr. Milson. Mr. Milson assures Henry that his attempts to find a home are genuine, “he had not forgotten, he insisted” (line 22). The second paragraph indicates that Henry really assumed that the conversations were idle, “a form of play” (line 29). However, when he gets a letter from Mr. Milson about a property for sale, Henry shows how deep his interest is: “the establishment he had glanced at so achingly and covetously on his many tours of Rye” (lines 47-49). The final paragraph changes from Mr. Milson’s attempts to find a house to Henry’s “musings” or “thoughts” about a home: it would give him a “necessary shell” (line 83) to protect him from the world.

Choice A is incorrect because Henry is happy in Rye, not unhappy; he likes being there enough to want to live there. His “attempts to find happiness” are not because he is unhappy in Rye. Rather, he wants to flee his unhappiness elsewhere to find comfort in a home. Choice B is incorrect because the “town life” or “daily events” of Rye are not discussed in the passage. The passage recounts discussions between two men, but not other residents. The second portion of the passage could be a “meditation” or “reflection” about why Henry wants a home, but it does not specifically indicate why he wants to live in Rye compared to other places. Choice C is incorrect because, although differences are listed about the two men, (lines 10-14, “since he was not interested…was rudimentary”), they only provide the reason that the men talk about houses more than other topics. If anything, the “personalities” or “natures” of the men might be considered similar because they enjoy sitting and chatting together. All mention of Mr. Milson ends at line 56; after that point, the conversation is solely about Henry and his desire for the house. Therefore, the end of the passage is not about an “important similarity” between the men.

2

Choice B is the best answer because lines 10-14 (“since Mr. Milson…was rudimentary”), show that the men have little in common and therefore discuss houses. Mr. Milson is not interested in literary matters or America, subjects that Henry knows, and Henry is not interested in ironmongery, the subject Mr. Milson knows.

Choice A is incorrect because the first paragraph only says that Henry only expresses an interest in living in Rye, “he observed that he longed for a permanent spot in the area, in the countryside, or indeed in the town itself” (lines 7-9). The paragraph does not emphasize any “desperation” or “distress” because he didn’t have a house. Furthermore, Mr. Milson talks about “choice properties,” but none of them are available. Choice C is incorrect because there is no indication that Mr. Milson is “not fond of” or “dislikes” new arrivals. He enjoys talking and comes up with a topic that is accessible, so appears to enjoy being together. There is no indication in the first paragraph that the discussions about houses are “insincere” or “not honest.” His assurances that he had “not forgotten” (line 22) suggest that he is honest in wanting to help. Choice D is incorrect because Mr. Milson is not new to Rye; he has lived there apparently a long time and has a place to live “as a resident of Point Hill” (line 7). Therefore, the two men do not “collaborate” or “help each other” to find homes.

3

Choice C is the best answer because “flavors” refers to the “turns of speech and local references” (lines 33-34) in different conversations such as “fishermen about the sea, or with farmers about the harvest” (lines 30-31) Therefore, he is enjoying the “aspects” or “parts” that make each area or conversation unique and allow him to enjoy the differences in the places he goes.

Choice A is incorrect because “flavors” does not refer to “objects” at all. Henry is more interested in the sound of the words that evoke a sense of place, so “flavors” does not describe “qualities” or “characteristics” of specific things. Choice B is incorrect because “flavors” does not literally mean that there are “features” or “parts” of the environment that “appeal directly to the senses” or “can be felt, touched, tasted, or heard.” “Flavors” refers to an impression rather than literally tasting something. Choice D is incorrect because the passage is not specifically referring to places that are “popular” or “liked by many people.” Instead, it is referring to average, everyday experiences that appeal to Henry.

4

Choice B is the best answer because when the letter first arrives, Henry is “puzzled by its provenance” (line 39), showing that he does not even realize who it is from, let alone what its content may be. He does not understand its “significance” or “importance” until he has read it twice: “only when he read it a second time did he realize who it was from and then, as though he had received a blow in the stomach, he understood what the letter said (lines 39-43). Therefore, “initially” or “at first” he “fails to appreciate” or “does not understand” the importance of the letter.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication that Henry hopes or wishes that someone else had sent the letter. The passage just shows that he doesn’t realize who sent it at first. Choice C is incorrect because he does not “suspect” or “guess” anything about the content at first; he does not assume that it is good or bad. Choice D is incorrect because there is no indication that Henry thinks that the letter will “communicate” or “explain” any “false” or “untrue” things.

5

Choice C is the best answer because “exclusively” means “only,” so the answer choice says that Henry “suspects” or “thinks” that Mr. Milson may not just be trying to help Henry. Lines 54-56 support this choice because they say, “He wondered if his ironmonger was freely broadcasting the news of this vacancy to all comers.” In other words, Henry wonders if Mr. Milson is “broadcasting” or “telling” everyone, not just Henry, about the house.

None of the other choices are supported by evidence from the passage. There is no suggestion that Mr. Milson does not know about the property, so Choice A can be eliminated. In reality, it does not matter if Mr. Milson knows the property well, as long as his information that it is for sale is true. Choice B is incorrect because Henry does not “regret” or “feel sorry” that he has not paid attention to the house. Lines 56-57 say, “This was, more than any other, the house he loved and longed for,” implying that he knew the house well. Choice D is incorrect because, while he wonders if Mr. Milson is telling everyone or just him, he knows that the reason for helping is because he was looking for a house. Mr. Milson’s “motivation” or “reason” for telling him was because Henry had asked him to tell him about vacant houses.

6

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that after reading and understanding Mr. Milson’s letter, Henry “suspects” or “thinks” that Mr. Milson may not be looking out “exclusively” or “only” for his best interests. Choice C supports this answer because it says that Henry wonders if Mr. Milson told everyone about the house for sale. That means that Henry wonders whether Mr. Milson was helping only Henry specifically, or whether he was just telling Henry as part of a larger project.

Choice A is incorrect because it refers to Henry’s thoughts before he had read the letter. Choice B is incorrect because it only says that Henry was shocked by the contents of the letter; it does not give any evidence that explains what Henry thinks of Mr. Milson’s motivations for sending the letter. Choice D is incorrect because it only says that Henry really wanted the house; it does not give any clue about Henry’s feelings towards Mr. Milson.

7

Choice B is the best answer because lines 57-58 say, “Nothing had ever come easily, magically like this.” These lines indicate that Henry assumes that this time, too, there will be problems or effort because he has never received anything without problems and effort before. “He remained sure that he would lose it” (lines 60-61) because he felt that it was too good to be true.

Choice A is incorrect because his “commitments” or “duties” did not stop his from leaving as fast as possible. Lines 70-71 support the sense of haste by saying, “he could not wait for Warren and he certainly could not work.” Choice C is incorrect because nothing in the passage indicates that Henry felt he “treated” or “dealt with” Mr. Milson in a bad way. Therefore, there is no indication that his behavior towards Mr. Milson was a reason for “compromising” or “reducing” his chances of getting the house. Choice D is incorrect because there is no indication that Henry is “innately indecisive,” meaning that he “naturally is not good at making decisions.” He does not “doubt his judgement” or “think he made a mistake.”

8

Choice A is the best answer because the prompt is asking for evidence that shows that Henry feels that his life has been “characterized” or “distinguished” by a “struggle” or “effort” to “attain” or “get” things that he desired. This claim is best supported by Choice A, which says that in the past, he had never gotten things “magically” or “easily.” In other words, he had to exert effort or work hard to get the things he wanted.

Choice B says that Henry is worried about the losing the house, but it does not show that his entire life has been filled with struggle when it came to getting things he “desired” or “wanted.” Choice C is incorrect because it only shows how important the trip to try to get the house was. It does not show that Henry felt that he usually faced difficulties getting the things he wanted. Choice D is incorrect because it shows that he feels other people get things with less worry and effort, but it does not say that Henry usually has to exert effort to get what he wants.

9

Choice B is the best answer because “Henry’s particular aspiration” is to buy the house. “Providing context” means giving a reason. The final paragraph gives the reason that Henry wants the house: so he can have a place of his own to be a “shell” (line 83) to protect him from the outside world. He felt that his life had been “exposed” (line 83), but that a home of his own would give him a place to relax.

Choice A is incorrect because the “logical conclusion” is that Henry arrives in Rye and either buys the house or does not. The final paragraph is not a “set of events,” it is a description of how the narrator feels as he sits on the train. The end of the “adventure” is not given; the reader is left to anticipate what the outcome will be. Choice C is incorrect because, while there is indeed a mood of “anticipation” or “expectation” about whether henry will be able to buy the house, there is no indication that Henry’s arrival in Rye will be “dramatic” or “exciting and impressive.” Most likely he will just get off the train and look for the agent selling the house. Choice D is incorrect because the final paragraph does not describe the “environment” or “place” at all. The final paragraph describes how Henry feels about not having a home and how important a home is to him, but it does not give any indication of the appearance of the house in Rye.

10

Choice A is the best answer because the words are used to describe Henry, not the property. He feels that he is “exposed” or “revealed” to the world because he does not have a home. The writer uses architectural terms to emphasize that the things he is missing in his “personality” or “inner self” can be provided by the house. It can surround and protect him with its “façade” and “frontage.”

Choice B is incorrect because there is no description of Lamb House except that it has “beautiful old windows” (lines 86-87). The words describe how Henry feels, not how the house looks. Choice C is incorrect because the passage stresses that up to now, there have been no other available houses in Rye. Therefore, the words do not show a “contrast” or “difference” between Lamb House and other properties for sale. Choice D is incorrect because, while the words use a “metaphor” or “image” related to architecture, the metaphor is not one of “pessimism” or “negative thinking,” which would in this case refer to thinking that he will not get the house. The metaphor is instead showing how he feels the house will protect him from the outside world.

11

Choice D is the best answer because the first paragraph discusses the “critical situation” or “important problem” that the city is facing: “70 percent of the city would be left without water if current water use was not reduced” (lines 8-9). The second paragraph discusses the city’s first attempt to reduce water use, which was not effective because “the city’s strategy increased water consumption” (lines 14-15). Starting from line 20, the topic shifts to a new “initiative” or “strategy” to address the problem. Paragraph 3 describes using stickers to remind people about water use. Paragraph 4 describes “entertaining campaigns” (line 37) involving slogans and volunteers. Paragraph 5 describes the third policy, publicizing “information about who was cooperating and who was not” (lines 48-49) and penalizing people who did not comply. The final paragraph (lines 66-78, “the assumption…been addressed”) summarizes how successful the policy was.

Choice A is incorrect because the “environmental challenges” are given as partially collapsed tunnels that caused a water shortage (lines 2-5, “when a…water shortage”). However, there is no “analysis” or “evaluation” of the “underlying reasons” or “causes” of this problem. Choice B is incorrect because, while two strategies are discussed, they are related to “managing” or “controlling” the same emergency, a water shortage. Choice C is incorrect because the passage is not “promoting technology” or “trying to convince everyone to buy equipment” related to the water crisis. Furthermore, the problem was not an “ongoing” or “continuing” difficulty; it was a situation that occurred once and was fixed.

12

Choice A is the best answer because paragraph 1 discusses the “complex problem” of damaged tunnels for transferring water to a city. Paragraph 2 “summarizes” or “describes” a “failed attempt,” meaning a method to solve the problem that did not work. Finally, starting with line 20, a “successful resolution” or “good solution” to the problem is explained with many details about how it was implemented.

Choice B is incorrect because the “dilemma” or “problem” is not “long-standing” or “existing for a long time.” It was a crisis that occurred suddenly when a tunnel collapsed. Two solutions are “explored” or “discussed,” but no study of the “cost” or “expense” of the solutions is given. Choice C is incorrect because the “conflict” or “problem” is not “recurrent” or “happening again and again.” One means of “addressing” or “solving” the problem is given, but it is not necessarily “popular” or “well-liked.” The final method given is not “seemingly outdated” or “apparently very old.” Instead, it is a very new and unexpected solution to the problem. Choice D is incorrect because the passage contrasts two programs; it does not just “outline” or “describe” one option. The “obstacles to the feasibility” or “problems affecting the success” refer to the first program. The final analysis is also not an argument that the program can “be articulated” or “may work;” it is a discussion about why the project did work.

13

Choice D is the best answer because “creative tactics” refers to “new and original ways” to encourage people to save water. Choice D supports this claim because it gives a specific example of a new and unexpected way—an ad of the mayor in a bathtub—to get attention so that people would pay attention to the water conservation campaign.

Choice A is incorrect because it explains the problem but does not show that “creative tactics” were used to solve it. Choice B gives the assumptions that the first strategy was based on but does not say what the strategy was. Choice C is incorrect because it describes one strategy, but not necessarily a “creative” or “innovative” one.

14

Choice B is the best answer because the question is asking why the first attempt to “address” or “fix” the water shortage problem was “inadequate” or “not good enough." The reason was that it “failed to” or “did not” explain how people should use the information that water needed to be conserved. As a result, residents “did not think they could make a difference and did not know which steps were most important” (lines 17-18) and “some people even started to stockpile water” (lines 18-19).

Choice A is incorrect because there is no discussion of how any measures were applied in the first plan; the city apparently only provided information about the problem. There is no reference to whether efforts were “consistent,” meaning “even,” or not. Choice C is incorrect because, although the second attempt used “mechanisms” or “methods” such as penalties and public announcements for people who did not comply, there is no evidence that the first attempt did not work because of a lack of such measures. Choice D is incorrect because the only thing that the city did during the first attempt was “instructing” or “telling” residents about the dangers of the situation. Choice D is not something that the city “failed to do.”

15

Choice A is the best answer because “steps” refers to what the residents did not know was important. Based on the context, they did not know what things to do to save water. Instead, they did things like stockpiling water. Since Choice A means “actions,” it effectively shows that the residents did not know what actions were important to save water.

None of the other choices adequately describes the thing that residents did not know was important. Choice B refers to progress towards a goal, but the context is referring to actions that went against the goal. Choice C refers to a physical structure that joins two floors of a building, not an intangible action. Choice D refers to words.

16

Choice A is the best answer because the passage says that “the stickers made the need to conserve water at all times salient” (lines 30-31). Since “salient” means “most important” or “very noticeable,” the lines explain that the goal of the stickers was to noticeably remind people of the need to conserve water at all times.

Choice B is incorrect because the stickers are not warning people about “future” or “possible” crises; they are pointing out that the crisis exists and will get worse if nothing is done. Choice C is incorrect because the goal is to save water; it does not really matter if the people are proud or not about the efforts as long as they save water. Therefore, the stickers are trying to get them to save rather than to be proud. Choice D is incorrect because the stickers are not an “award” or “present” for doing well. The stickers were given to everyone to post prominently as reminders to be careful.

17

Choice B is the best answer because water “cuts” is the penalty given to “squanderers” (line 59), meaning people who used too much water. Since the goal was to save water, people who wasted water were given “reductions” or “lowered amounts” for an extra day.

Choice A is incorrect because it refers to a trench for carrying water. However, people who wasted water were not given trenches for an extra day. Choice C is incorrect because it means “level,” but the people were not given levels of water. Choice D is opposite of the intended meaning. The people were not given more “shares” or “units” of water; they were given less.

18

Choice D is the best answer because the results of the campaign showed that “the assumption was correct” (lines 71-72). The assumption was that “conservation would improve if the city created a greater scope for social rewards and punishments that helped to reassure people that achieving the public good—continued access to water—was likely” (lines 67-71). Therefore, their idea of “incentives” or “motivations” in the form of social rewards and punishments was effective. The people “adopted new behaviors” of conservation.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication about which method of motivation worked best; it is implied that the combination of praises and punishments was needed. There is no evidence in the passage that people were “more responsive” or “reacted better” to praise. Choice B is incorrect because the passage is not about learning new subjects; it is about how the campaign managed to change behaviors based on punishments and rewards. Choice C s incorrect because the passage, though volunteer efforts are mentioned (lines 39-43, “the campaigns…reduce consumption”), that is only one portion of the entire campaign. The main stimulus for change was not solely “educating each other.”

19

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the conclusion best drawn from the results of the Bogotá city government’s campaign is that people are willing to “adopt” or “take on” new behaviors if “adequate incentives,” meaning “good enough motivations,” are provided. Choice C supports this claim because it says that the assumption that the city used was correct, and that the assumption was that people would conserve water if they were given the incentive of a system of social rewards and punishments.

Choice A is incorrect because it only says that there were reports publicized. It does not show that the people were willing to change their behavior when given enough incentives. Choice B is incorrect because it only describes one public reward that was given. It does not show that people were willing to change their behaviors because of this reward. Choice D shows that people changed their behavior enough to make incredible water savings, but it does not explain why people changed.

20

Choice B is the best answer because water demand in Bogotá in cubic meters/second is given on the y-axis. The year 2005 is on the x-axis; it is the second label from the right. The point above the 2005 label is about halfway between the line marked 14 on the y-axis and the next line, which has no label. Notice that the number 15 is on the line following the unlabeled one. Therefore, the unlabeled line is 14.5, halfway between 14 and 15. Knowing that information, it can be seen that the point is about halfway between 14 and 14.5, or about 14.25 cubic meters/second.

None of the other choices corresponds to the point for the year 2005. Choice A does not match any point on the graph. Choices C and D might be a result of incorrectly reading the line above 14 as “15” rather than “14.5”.

21

Choice C is the best answer because the years are given on the x-axis. Although every year is not numbered, there are lines given for each. The water demand is given on the y-axis. The figure for 2002 (the line to the right of 2001) is about 14.8. The figure for 2004 (the line to the left of 2005) is about 14.25. Notice that the line continues “steadily” or “consistently” downward; it does not go up at any point during that period. Therefore, the rate “declined” or “got less” during that time period.

None of the other choices accurately describe the data in the graph. Choice A is incorrect because the rate for 2000 was about 14.7, but the rate for 2002 is slightly higher, about 14.9. The line is rising upwards, so there is no “drop” or “decline,” let alone a “considerable” or “very large” decline. Choice B is incorrect because “dramatically” means “extremely.” There is a very slight rise from about 14.7 to about 14.8, which is almost steady. Therefore, “dramatically” does not describe the data well. Choice D is incorrect because “stable” means “unchanging.” However, there was a slight rise from about 14.75 to about 15.1 during that period.

22

Choice C is the best answer because the first paragraph describes what “disruptive camouflage” is: “high-contrast markings that disrupt telltale edges and create false ones” (lines 9-10). The second paragraph says that the theory remained mostly untested until 2005, when Innes Cuthill, Martin Stevens and their colleagues came up with a simple experiment to determine whether disruptive camouflage worked or not. The conclusion was that it did within limits: “high-contrast markings become less effective once their contrast exceeds that in the creatures’ natural environment” (lines 28-30). Paragraph 3 introduces a new study, one by Richard Webster in 2013, that “asked volunteers to search for virtual moths on a computer screen while an eye-tracker monitored their gaze” (lines 37-39). Paragraph 4 points out an important limitation of the study, the fact that disruptive coloration might not work the same for humans as it does for animals. Paragraphs 4 and 5 explains that Webster is conducting new trials using birds to determine if it does work the same; these paragraphs indicate that human spotters get better at finding the camouflaged birds over time. Paragraph 6 rounds out the discussion by presenting the hypothesis that “this concealment strategy is more likely to evolve in prey that face short-lived or generalist predators than long-lived or specialist ones” (lines 76-79). Therefore, the main purpose of the passage is to discuss several scientific studies about disruptive camouflage and explore their “implications” or “possible meanings.”

Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not explain how predators hunt; it says that they may get better at finding prey with disruptive camouflage over time but does not offer methods of catching that prey. Choice B is incorrect because the scientists were not “tracking” or “documenting” wing coloration patterns of real moths. Instead, they used fake moths in a few experiments to see how easy it was to find moths with certain coloration patterns. Choice D is incorrect because there is no “defense” or “argument” against any “critics” or “people objecting.” The passage readily accepts that there is a limitation to the study—humans and predators may not react to disruptive camouflage the same way—but it explains that now trials are being done to see if that is true.

23

Choice C is the best answer because “viable” means “able to work successfully.” The author claims that disruptive camouflage is a successful defense for “prey that face short-lived or generalist predators” (lines77-78). This is true because the studies concluded that “disruption was indeed a very good way of being hidden” (lines 24-25), but that predators “might be less easily fooled by disruptive markings as they become more familiar with them” (lines 64-65).

Choice A is incorrect because “neutralized” means “made ineffective.” However, scanning for outlines did not neutralize the disruptive camouflage; scanning for outlines was harder with disruptive camouflage. Choice B is incorrect because “obsolete” means “no longer effective.” The passage, though, indicates that many animals still use disruptive coloration because it is effective against predators that are not used to it. Choice D is incorrect because the passage says that “high-contrast markings become less effective once their contrast exceeds that in the creatures’ natural environment” (lines 28-30). Therefore, the coloration would be most useful when the colors are similar to the environment.

24

Choice A is the best answer because a “chronological account” is a sequence of events in the order that they happened. The time sequence in the passage describes the development of the disruptive coloration strategy of camouflage. It begins by describing Abbott Handerson Thayer’s first descriptions of disruptive camouflage in 1909. The passage says that the theory “remained largely untested until 2005” (lines 15-16). After that, in 2013, Richard Webster conducted another series of studies on the same subject, “adding to” or “increasing” understanding of disruptive coloration.

Choice B is incorrect because there is only one theory, disruptive coloration, discussed in the passage, so “successive” or “more than one in order” does not aptly describe the content. Furthermore, scientists did not “reject” or “dismiss” any of the details that they added to the theory. Choice C is incorrect because there is no mention of “losing interest” in research. Instead, the passage implies that people have become more interested in why disruptive coloration is effective and are now pursuing more experiments on the subject than in the past. Choice D is incorrect because “steadily” refers to a standard rate. However, the use of human subjects was a development primarily used in only one of the studies; the following study did not use humans except as guides to find the birds that would be used in the experiment about predators in a natural environment. Therefore, the human involvement varied over time.

25

Choice A is the best answer because Thayer’s work was a theory that he “reasoned” (line 8) but never seriously tested. “Empirical support” refers to specific facts or data. Cuthill and Stevens’s work provided specific data because they created a specific experiment using paper triangles pinned to trees to simulate moths to determine which patterns were easiest to see and which were the most effective camouflage.

Choice B is incorrect because “refined the logic” refers to “making adjustments to the reasoning.” However, Cuthill and Stevens did not change the “underlying” or “basic” principles of Thayer’s work. Instead, they created an experiment to show how the principles worked. Choice C is incorrect because Cuthill and Stevens came up with a new “procedure” or “method.” Thayer did not use paper triangles to study moth markings. Choice D is incorrect because “overlooked” means “not paid attention to.” However, lines 14-15 say, “disruptive camouflage was cited in countless textbooks,” implying that “countless” or “huge numbers” of people paid attention to Thayer’s theory.

26

Choice B is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Cuthill and Stevens provided “empirical” or “factual” support for Thayer’s theory. Choice B supports this claim because it says that before Cuthill and Stevens did their work, the theory was “largely untested” (line 16), meaning that no one tried to prove whether it was correct or not. Cuthill and Stevens provided facts and statistics to prove the theory by creating an experiment with specific variables, “fake moths made from paper triangles” (lines 19-20).

Choice A is incorrect because it only refers to Thayer. There is no reference to Cuthill and Stevens providing “empirical” or “factual” support for Thayer’s theory. Choice C is weak because it only says that Cuthill and Stevens conducted an experiment; it does not show that they found empirical in support of Thayer’s theory. Choice D shows one result of Cuthill and Stevens’s test but does not explain how that result relates to Thayer’s work at all.

27

Choice B is the best answer because “countless” means “too many to count.” In the passage, it refers to the number of textbooks that cited Thayer’s work on disruptive camouflage before the theory was tested in 2005. The word therefore emphasizes the huge number of people that believed Thayer’s theory was correct—the “widespread” or “extensive” acceptance of it—even though it was not tested.

Choice A is incorrect because “countless” refers to the number, not the “variety” or “range of topics” included in the textbooks. Furthermore, the citations were by people who did not test the theory, they only accepted what Thayer said. Therefore, the books in question did not include “contributed material” or “content” by any camouflage researchers. Choice C is incorrect because “countless” refers to the books, not to camouflage patterns. Choice D is incorrect because “countless” does not refer to “species.” Therefore, the word is not saying that it is “impractical” or “not reasonable” to study patterns in every “relevant” or “applicable” species that uses camouflage.

28

Choice C is the best answer because “uniform” refers to the markings of paper moths which are attacked more often than paper moths with “black markings on their edges” (lines 21-22). Therefore, “uniform” refers to markings which are more regular or have less “changes” or “variation” in the pattern, as is meant by Choice C.

None of the other choices as precisely explains the pattern on the moths that were attacked more often than moths with black edges were. Choice A means “identical” or “the same.” However, the colors were not necessarily the same on all of the “uniform” moths. Choice B means “not complex,” so does not indicate that the markings are even across the body. Choice D refers to “the same on both sides,” which could just as easily describe moths with black markings on their edges or ones with central markings.

29

Choice A is the best answer because the passage questions whether humans and nonhuman predators view disruptive camouflage the same way. It says that humans were fooled by the disruptive camouflage, but that more research needed to be done to “test whether disruptive colouring fools its intended audience” (lines 50-51), referring to whether it will fool predators or not. Since disruptive camouflage is a “visual” or “seen” pattern, the passage is referring to how humans and nonhumans “perceive” or “comprehend” images that are seen.

Choice B is incorrect because the research is based on the appearance of the disruptive camouflage. It does not refer to whether motion is “detected” or “noticed” differently. Choice C is incorrect because “locating” or “finding” ground-nesting birds is given as a method of determining if animals and humans see disruptive camouflage in the same way. Choice D is incorrect because the passage does not delve into ability to hear sounds at all.

30

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that that humans and nonhuman predators may differ in their ability to “perceive” or “understand” visual patterns. Choice D supports this claim because it says that “they,” meaning nonhuman predators, may not see the markings in the same way as “we,” meaning “humans,” do. Therefore, it shows that there may be a difference in how markings or patterns are seen.

Choice A is incorrect because it only describes how humans locate camouflage patterns; it does not mention nonhuman predators at all. Choice B is incorrect because it only isolates one problem with the trial: humans do not prey on moths. It does not explain that this may be an issue because nonhumans that prey on moths might see the markings differently. Choice C is incorrect because it only describes how humans deal with disruptive camouflage; it does not indicate that nonhuman predators may deal with the camouflage differently.

31

Choice D is the best answer because the mean probability of survival is given on the y-axis; the probability is higher at the top of the chart and lower at the bottom. The number of edge patches is on the x-axis, and it gets greater from left to right. The line showing probability steadily “increases” or “gets higher” because it slants upwards from the lowest values to the highest values.

Choice A is incorrect because the graph does not contain any information about the total number of virtual moths in the experiment. Therefore, it is impossible to tell if there is a “direct correlation” or “exact relationship” with this variable. Choice B is incorrect because the graph does not say how “easy” or “difficult” it is to “determine” or “figure out” any of the data. Choice C is incorrect because the graph does not show any “decrease” or “lowering” of the probability of survival with larger numbers of edge patches. If the graph “eventually” or “in the end” decreased, then the line would start to slope downwards.

32

Choice A is the best answer because the mean search time, in seconds, is listed on the y-axis. The number of edge patches is listed on the x-axis. “Exactly five edge patches” is at the far left-hand side of the x-axis where the x- and y-axes meet. The point on the line above the 5 is at the 2 on the y-axis.

None of the other choices corresponds to the data for 5 edge patches. Choice B is the mean search time for 15 edge patches. Choice C is the mean search time for about 22 edge patches. Choice D is about the mean search time for 30 edge patches.

33

Choice B is the best answer because the question is asking for evidence that shows that the fact that various nations worked together to “develop” or “create” the Declaration “marks” or “signifies” a major accomplishment. Choice B provides such evidence because it says that coming to an agreement was a “significant fact” (line 17), meaning that it is an “important thing that was achieved.” She emphasizes the point that “58 states” (line 17), which refers to “various nations,” participated and developed the declaration despite having many issues that they do not agree upon.

Choice A is incorrect because it explains the nature of the Declaration but does not say that it was a “major accomplishment” that many countries agreed on it. If anything, it could weaken the claim that the document is significant because it explains that the document does not have any binding power. Choice C is incorrect because it only describes the underlying belief of the document; it does not say that it was significant that many nations agreed upon it. Choice D is incorrect because it could potentially weaken the claim that the document is important because it says that there is much left to do; that statement could imply that the document is not very meaningful as it stands.

34

Choice A is the best answer because “testimony” refers to what the document “must be taken as” (lines 19-20). The fuller explanation of “testimony” describes “our common aspiration first voiced in the Charter of the United Nations to lift men everywhere to a higher standard of life and to a greater enjoyment of freedom” (lines 20-23). Therefore, the “testimony” refers to “showing others” or “explaining belief” in the desire to raise the standard of life for everyone in the world. Choice A captures that meaning because it describes a “statement” or “pronouncement” that is shared with everyone.

Choice B is incorrect because it only refers to officially documenting something so that it is binding by the law. However, legal records may be filed away and not be accessible to the public. Furthermore, Roosevelt explains that the document is not backed up by laws enforcing it. Choice C is incorrect because “personal” refers to the private or individual experiences of one person. However, the document reflects a decision passed by 58 countries. Choice D is incorrect because “divine” refers to things that relate to deities or gods. However, the document is not to be taken as instructions from a god.

35

Choice D is the best answer because Murray’s quote summarizes that “the ideal and fact of freedom—and not technology—are the true distinguishing marks of our civilization” (lines 39-40). This assertion that true freedom is the “distinguishing mark” or “defining trait” of “civilization” or the “most advanced levels of humanity.” The quote is followed by Roosevelt’s statement that the Declaration is based upon this freedom: “the spiritual fact that man must have freedom in which to develop his full stature and through common effort to raise the level of human dignity” (lines 42-45). Therefore, Murray’s quote introduces the idea that freedom is necessary to “develop” or “increase” man’s “potential” or “possibility of becoming the best he can be.”

Choice A is incorrect because neither Murray not Roosevelt mentions a difference between men and women. “Man” is used in the generic form to refer to “all mankind.” Choice B is incorrect because Roosevelt does not refer to possible problems with technology. Murray just uses the term “technology” to stress that freedom is more important than anything else, including technology, which many people think is a defining trait of a civilized culture. Choice C is incorrect because the quote says that “man’s status makes each individual an end in himself. No man is by nature simply the servant of the state” (lines 36-38). By selecting this quote, Roosevelt is not saying that “moral” or “good” people need to “exercise” or “use” their freedoms to help the state. She is saying that freedom for everyone is the ultimate goal.

36

Choice D is the best answer because “none of your business” is a casual phrase that means “don’t become involved.” Posner uses the phrase in a “wry” or “sarcastic” way to show what some governments mean when they refer to “sovereignty” (line 57). He disapproves of using the term “sovereignty”—which usually refers to “self-government”—as a way to prevent foreign powers from interfering or getting involved in humanitarian issues.

Choice A is incorrect because “thoughtful” means “showing careful consideration.” However, the casual phrase “none of your business” stands in contrast with the professional tone of the rest of the passage, showing that it is deliberately used to stress a point. That point is not indicating not a “shift” or “change” in “significance” or “importance;” it is showing how a term can be used to mean two very different things. Choice B is incorrect because there is no indication that the meaning of the word has “changed over time;” it is just used to mean something different when it is convenient. The tone is not “suspicious” or “distrustful;” it is ironic. Choice C is incorrect because the tone is not “comical” or “funny.” He is stressing that people can get maltreated because the word is deliberately given a different meaning; it is not “misinterpreted” or “not understood correctly by accident.”

37

Choice B is the best answer because lines 81-82 say, “Although the modern notion of human rights emerged during the 18th century….” This phrase shows that the current view of human rights “emerged” or “began to develop” in the 18^th century.

None of the other choices are supported by evidence from the passage. “Prior to” means “before,” so does not show that human rights developed in the 1800s. Choices C and D are incorrect because 1948 is given as the year “that the story began in earnest” (line 83). In other words, 1948 is the year that the idea was expanded into a more complete idea, though it began before that point.

38

Choice C is the best answer because the question is asking for a “significant flaw” or “major problem” with the Declaration. The final sentence of Passage 2 says that “the rights were described in vague, aspirational terms, which could be interpreted in multiple ways” (lines 97-99). In other words, the rights were only explained in rough terms and did not include specific methods of achieving the goals. Choice C summarizes that idea because it says that the rights in the Declaration “lacked” or “did not have” clear and precise “applications” or “methods of using it.”

Choice A is incorrect because, while the Declaration was created “from the ashes of the second world war” (lines 86-87), that is not necessarily a flaw or bad point of the document. The document does not “exploit” or “use to advantage” any fear that people may have had; it only uses the people’s desire for a better world. Choice B is incorrect because Passage 2 does not say that there is too “narrow” or “restricted” a focus on any one point. Rather than discussing specific violations, the document is too general, according to the author. Choice D is incorrect because the passage does not say that any rights are “excluded” or “not included” in the Declaration. The document does “align” or “agree with” the values of the UN Charter, but that does not mean that other rights are ignored.

39

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that a “significant flaw” or “major problem” with the Declaration is that it “presents” or “explains” the rights such that they lack clear and precise “applications” or “methods of enacting them.” Choice D supports that answer because it says that the rights were explained in “vague,” or “not clear,” ways. It stresses that they could be “interpreted in multiple ways” (lines 98-99); in other words, there is not one precise way to make sure that the rights are upheld.

Choice A is incorrect because it only says that the document has “weaknesses” or “flaws.” It does not explain what those flaws are. Choices B and C are incorrect because they only say that the document was not designed to be enforced by law. They do not point out that there is no other, clear way to make sure that the rights are upheld.

40

Choice B is the best answer because the basic “nature” or “characteristic” is an agreement between nations; it is not “legally binding” or “able to be enforced using laws.” Passage 1 emphasizes this point in lines 4-6, “It is not a treaty; it is not an international agreement. It is not and does not purport to be a statement of law or of legal obligation.” Passage 2 makes the same point in lines 91-93, “The universal declaration was not a treaty in the formal sense: no one at the time believed that it created legally binding obligations.”

Choice A is incorrect because neither passage discusses the content of other international agreements from the past. Choice C is incorrect because Passage 1 does indicate that the “basis” or “origin” of the document was inspired by ““the flagrant violation of human rights by Nazi and Fascist countries” (lines 25-26). However, Passage 2 only implies that the document is based on democratic principles because it cites authoritarian governments as examples of human rights violations. Choice D is incorrect because Passage 1 indicates that “diverse” or “various” governments accepted the document; Passage 1 refers to “58 states” (line 17) that have agreed to it. Passage 2, if anything, implies that the document was not adopted because it says that, for example, 150 countries violate the terms by allowing torture (lines 64-66, “why, for…in torture”).

41

Choice C is the best answer because both passages emphasize the need for freedom; this shows an “underlying concern” or “deep-rooted worry about” people who live in “oppressive” or “harsh and cruel” situations. Passage 1 says that “the flagrant violation of human rights by Nazi and Fascist countries sowed the seeds of the last world war has supplied the impetus for the work” (lines 25-27). Since Nazi and Fascist countries are examples of “oppressive circumstances,” Passage 1 is worried about people living there. Passage 2 also refers to conditions in countries that “continue to violate human rights with impunity” (lines 63-64). The writer explains situations that he does not approve of, such as women being a subordinate class and children working in mines and factories (lines 68-71, “why do…many countries”).

Choice A is incorrect because neither passage addresses the “reaction” or “response” of the UN officials. The passages discuss the reactions of countries to accepting the principles of the document. Choice B is incorrect because Passage 1 does not refer to the “fallibility” or “tendency to be wrong” of the assumptions in the document. It says that the basic ideals are very important. Passage 2 also does not say that the underlying ideas are “fallible” or “wrong,” it only says that the wording is so vague that it does not explain what actions should be taken. Choice D is incorrect because neither passage says that there are “dangers” or “risks” by “intervening” or “stepping in to help” the people in authoritarian states. The passages just explain that the document does not authorize anyone to legally intervene.

42

Choice A is the best answer because Roosevelt’s view of human rights is that “man must have freedom in which to develop his full stature and through common effort to raise the level of human dignity” (lines 43-45). This view is most consistent with the claim in the first paragraph that “human rights law gives rights to all people regardless of nationality” (line 53-54) and that “international human rights law provides people with invaluable protections against the power of the state” (lines 59-61). Therefore, the view in paragraph 1 of Passage 2 is that human rights laws give people freedom to develop fully no matter what nation they are from.

Choice B is incorrect because paragraph 2 says that governments violate human rights, but it does not explain what human rights laws are or what they should do. Choice C is incorrect because it only describes the history of human rights laws; it does not provide a view of what those laws are about. Choice D is incorrect because it says that human rights laws do not achieve their goals; therefore, it does not share the view on Passage 1 that such laws help all people reach their potential.

43

Choice C is the best answer because the first paragraph discusses the mixing of sea water and the specific possibility called biomixing, in which small animals can move enough water to create a measurable change. The first paragraph also introduces a study by John Dabiri that explores whether such biomixing by brine shrimp is possible. The second paragraph describes the methodology of the experiment. The third paragraph says that the results of the experiment are “swirls much larger than the creatures themselves” (lines 41-42) which could have the effect of biomixing. The fourth paragraph explores the possible amount of energy that could be generated by biomixing. The fifth paragraph introduces the opinion of an unrelated scientist who accepts the results, but the sixth and seventh paragraphs delve into the counterargument that the mixing may not be as extreme as the experiment indicates. The final paragraph says that Dabiri plans more experiments to further explore the concept of biomixing. Therefore, the entire passage revolved around Dabiri’s experiment about biomixing and the possible implications and limitations.

Choice A is incorrect because “field observations” refers to studies conducted in nature, but Dabiri’s experiments took place in a laboratory. Choice B is incorrect because there is no “consensus” or “agreement between all parties.” Instead, the passage points out that there are doubts: “But scientists disagree on how effective billions of churning sea monkey legs might be in blending ocean layers that are hundreds of meters deep” (lines 64-67). Choice D is incorrect because the passage does not “reconcile” or “make consistent” different findings. Instead, it indicates that more research is needed to determine the correct answer.

44

Choice B is the best answer because the lasers were used “to induce thousands of 5-millimeter-long brine shrimp to “migrate” to and from the bottom of a 1.2-meter-deep tank” (lines 23-25). “Migrate” means “move,” so the researchers were trying to make the shrimp move with the lasers. The passage further explains that the blue laser was moved “slowly up and down to control the crustaceans’ vertical movements” (lines 28-29) and that the green laser “kept the shrimp away from the edges of the tank” (lines 32-33).

Choice A is incorrect because the swirls were made visible using a combination of red lasers and “copious amounts of silver-coated microspheres” (lines 36-37), not the blue and green lasers. Choice C is incorrect because the lasers were used to simulate migrations of shrimp in the ocean; therefore, the lasers had a different purpose than showing how shrimp differ between the study and the ocean. Choice D is incorrect because the lasers simulated the daily migrations; the lasers did not “discover” or “find” that there were migrations. The study was based on the idea that brine shrimp move “to the ocean surface each night to forage and then return to the relative safety of unlit depths during daylight hours” (lines 7-9).

45

Choice C is the best answer because an “apparatus” is “a piece of equipment.” The passage indicates that Dabiri and Wilhelmus tried to “exclude” or “eliminate” the possibility that the equipment holding the shrimp influence the result because it says that they used a green laser to keep the shrimp near the center (lines 29-34, “The tank’s . . . center”). They were trying to avoid the possibility that the walls of the apparatus might “influence” or “change” the flow patterns generated by the shrimp.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no mention about the length of time that the experiment took. If anything, the implication is that the experiment took less time than the daily rhythms of natural shrimp migrations because the shrimp only had to travel 1.2 meters from the bottom to the top. Choice B is incorrect because there is no evidence that there were “changes” or “differences” in the data. The implication is that the shrimp swam the same way as they would have in a natural environment. Choice D is incorrect because the passage specifically says that red is “a color that doesn’t seem to affect the shrimps’ behavior” (lines 38-39). They used the red light based on this assumption, so they did not “exclude” or “eliminate” the possibility that red light might actually affect the behavior.

46

Choice B is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the experiment design tried to “exclude the possibility,” meaning “eliminate the chance,” that the “apparatus” or “equipment” in which the brine shrimp were held “influenced” or “changed” the results of the experiment. Choice B shows that the scientists tried to eliminate this possibility by keeping the shrimp close to the middle so that the sides of the tank—the apparatus—would not change the flow patterns.

Choice A is incorrect because it only says that the shrimp were moved using lasers. It does not refer to the “apparatus in which the brine shrimp were held,” meaning the tank. Choice C is incorrect because it does not refer to the tank nor an attempt to eliminate any interference by the tank. Choice D is incorrect because it only explains the results of the experiment. It does not describe any attempt to prevent changes in the results due to the tank.

47

Choice C is the best answer because “captured” is used to show what the “team’s high-speed videos” (line 40) did to the “images of swirls” (line 41). Choice C means “save in a permanent form,” so accurately shows that the videos made it possible to review the data again and again in a permanent visual medium.

None of the other choices adequately show what the team’s high-speed videos did to the images of swirls (line 41). Choice A refers to physically catching and holding something, so does not show that the video documented without interfering with the action of the brine shrimp. Choice B refers to holding something in a prison or jail. Choice D refers to enticing or luring something to do an action. However, the video did not cause the images of swirls to do anything.

48

Choice A is the best answer because the two scientists give “evaluations” or “opinions” of the experiment by Dabiri and Wilhelmus. Noss says that the experiment is “innovative” (line 56) and gives “a nice illustration of flow velocities” (line 57). Yen’s opinion is similar because she “agrees” (line 61). Noss is “a fluid dynamicist at the University of Koblenz-Landau” (lines 58-59) and Yen is a “biological oceanographer at the Georgia Institute of Technology” (lines 60-61). Therefore, they can be considered “experts” or “extremely knowledgeable” in the field.

Choice B is incorrect because, while other researchers have “reservations” or “doubts” about the validity of the research, their opinions are not given by Noss and Yen. The opinions of Noss and Yen are both positive and do not indicate that they have any questions about the methodology or results. Choice C is incorrect because the quotes by Noss and Yen do not discuss the “scientific debate that Dabiri and Wilhelmus attempted to resolve” about whether biomixing exists, only the results of the experiment. They are both in agreement that the experiment was “innovative,” so do not give two opposing sides of any “debate” or “argument.” Choice D is incorrect because the passage does not say that there is a “scholarly consensus” or “scientific agreement” about mixing ocean waters at all. Therefore, Dabiri and Wilhelmus were trying to establish whether one option was valid; they did not “challenge” or “oppose” an existing hypothesis that everyone agreed upon. Furthermore, Noss and Yen support Dabiri and Wilhelmus’s conclusions, not offer a view that Dabiri and Wilhelmus challenged.

49

Choice A is the best answer because Monismith says, “I wouldn’t want to say just yet that [biomixing] is important at a global scale” (lines 67-68). Therefore, he has doubts that the results of the experiment can be “generalized” or “applied on a larger scale” to the “natural environment” of oceans as opposed to the small amount of mixing that occurred in a tank.

Choice B is incorrect because there is no indication that Monismith thinks that the results cannot be “replicated” or “repeated” in another experiment. Choice C is incorrect because “verified” means “proved.” However, Monismith does not say that the experiment results cannot be proved. Instead, he says that they cannot be extended to describe the ocean without more research. Choice D is incorrect because “reconciled” means “come to an agreement.” However, Monismith does not say that the results of Dabiri and Wilhelmus’s experiment are completely different than results from any previous experiment.

50

Choice B is the best answer because the effect suggested by Dabiri and Wilhelmus is that the shrimp migrations cause biomixing that can stir ocean waters. Choice B indicates that this effect may not be what really happens because it says that the water might be heated rather than mixed by the movement of the shrimp.

Choice A is incorrect because it only indicates that the effect might not be as large as Dabiri and Wilhelmus suggest. Choice A does not say that the effect of mixing does not occur. Choice C only refers to another experiment involving different creatures (water fleas), so it does not establish that the effect of brine shrimp is different than Dabiri and Wilhelmus suggest. Choice D indicates that Dabiri and Wilhelmus want to pursue more experiments. It does not say that the effect of biomixing does not exist; it only implies that they are trying to determine the extent of biomixing caused by shrimp.

51

Choice D is the best answer because “mildly” is an adjective that describes the “stratified water” (line 86). Since Choice D means “somewhat” or “fairly,” it accurately shows that the water had some stratification but was not as clearly mixed as it could be.

Choice A refers to how comfortable something is, so does not accurately indicate the way the water was stratified in a scientific experiment involving water fleas; they may or may not find stratified water to be comfortable. Choice B is incorrect because it means “in a way that shows modesty.” However, water is not animate, so it does not have emotions like “modesty” to show. Choice C refers to something that is unclear or uncertain. However, a scientific experiment needs to control factors that relate to the results, and the stratification needs to be controlled to see how much biomixing occurs. Therefore, the level of stratification is monitored closely rather than being “unclear.”

52

Choice D is the best answer because the results of the experiment were that “the stratification squelched the biomixing” (line 87). Since “squelched” means “suppress” or “stop,” the research supports the idea that stratification of water decreases the “likelihood” or “chance” that biomixing will be successful. One scientist, Visser, commented, “It’s difficult to lift heavy water up and to push light water down.” (lines 90-91), to explain why biomixing is harder to do under stratified conditions.

Choice A is incorrect because the water flea experiment proved that the fleas could not mix stratified water in an experimental setup. It did not prove that oceans in the natural world are stratified. Choice B is incorrect because the experiment with water fleas showed that the fleas were not successful in mixing water under certain conditions. Therefore, that experiment showed that they did not “circulate” or “move” nutrients.” It did not confirm that fleas as well as brine shrimp could do so. Choice C is incorrect because the experiment tested how biomixing occurred in layered water. There is no comparison about mixing in water of one specific kind compared to another.

1

Content: punctuation

Choice B is the best answer because “roughly…ago” is a time phrase that starts a sentence, so it should be separated from the main clause with a comma. Otherwise, it is not clear what word is the subject of the main clause. In addition, “along with…on Earth” is a modifier that adds detail to the subject “dinosaurs.” It should be divided from the main sentence with a comma at both ends, so a comma is needed before “along,”

Choice A is incorrect because there is no punctuation indicating the start of the modifier, “along with…on Earth.” As a result, the comma after “Earth” appears to divide the subject from its verb, “became.” Choices C and D are incorrect because there is no comma at the end of the time phrase "roughly…ago,” so it is unclear where the main clause starts. Choices C and D create an illogical sentence because, if the modifier between commas is removed, the main clause reads, “dinosaurs along with became extinct.”

2

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice C is the best answer because “and” after a comma effectively divides two distinct clauses from each other. It subordinates the second, but still gives the same relative importance to both.

Choice A is incorrect because “their proposal…” is a noun phrase, so it acts as an appositive that describes the previous noun. However, this structure creates an illogical sentence because “scientists” are not “their proposal.” Choice C is incorrect because a semicolon should divide two independent clauses, but the following portion cannot stand on its own as a sentence. Choice D is incorrect because it is a comma splice between two independent clauses.

3

Content: sentence combination

Choice C is the best answer because “when” acts as a conjunction that concisely subordinates the second sentence into a clause that explains the time of the action in the first sentence.

Choice A needlessly lengthens the sentence by repeating the phrase “the year.” Choice B is incorrect because “in which” is a relative pronoun used to refer to the previous noun, a year, so “year” should not be included after the pronoun with the same meaning. Choice D it incorrect because, as well as being needlessly wordy, it creates a comma splice between two independent clauses.

4

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice A is the best answer because the underlined portion is part of a list of two things that would have resulted from the asteroid’s impact ejecting iridium-containing dust into the atmosphere, so “and” should be used. “And” needs to join two parts of speech that have the same grammatical structure. Since the first thing is “blocking sunlight,” the second should be “resulting in….” “To result in” is standard usage to show that the following thing is the result of the first thing.

Choices B and D are incorrect because “with results” is not standard usage in the context. “With” implies that the results are either owned by the “blocking sunlight” or the instrument used to block the sunlight, neither of which is the intended meaning. Choice C is incorrect because “resulting to” is not standard usage when describing the result of something.

5

Content: addition and deletion

Choice B is the best answer because the previous sentence describes a halt in photosynthesis, and the underlined portion offers evidence to support that claim. Therefore, it should be included in the passage to add validity to the theory being described.

Choice A is incorrect because the fact that photosynthesis stopped abruptly supports rather than weakens the Alvarez hypothesis. Therefore, the underlined portion does not provide an "objection" or "factor that weakens" the claim. Choices C and D are incorrect because the underlined portion should remain in the passage. The detail of photosynthesis stopping is mentioned, but the underlined portion provides evidence for that claim, so Choice C is incorrect. Choice D can be eliminated because, while the passage focuses on dinosaurs, the lack of photosynthesis--and thus food sources--provides a good reason for dinosaurs to have become extinct.

6

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice A is the best answer because the underlined portion explains what the research about gradual environmental changes does to the Alvarez hypothesis. Choice A refers to questioning or disputing the validity of something, so precisely shows that the research raises questions that the hypothesis may actually not be true.

None of the other choices clearly explains what the research about gradual environmental changes does to the Alvarez hypothesis. Choice B means “pester” or “repeatedly ask.” However, the research does not actively ask again and again; it just indicates that the hypothesis may not be true. Choice C refers to a dare, but the research does not actively tell the hypothesis to do something. Choice D refers to surrounding overwhelming with a large number of complaints.

7

Content: transitions

Choice C is the best answer because the previous claim is that research about gradual environmental changes indicated that volcanic eruptions that occurred before an asteroid collision had stressed the dinosaur populations. The following sentence gives the specific location, “a range of volcanoes in western India called the Deccan Trap,” that was the site of those volcanic eruptions. Choice C is used to emphasize an earlier statement and add more proof in support of it, so clearly shows the relationship between the sentences.

None of the other choices adequately establishes the connection between the general statement and the specific detail in support of it. Choice A is used to show the last step of a list or sequence. Choice B is used to add a new consideration in support of an argument, not expand on an existing claim. Choice D is used to introduce an opposite view or conflicting information.

8

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice A is the best answer because “site” means “location,” so accurately shows that the “a range of volcanoes in western India called the Deccan Trap” is the location of eruptions that stressed the dinosaurs.

Choice B is incorrect because “sight” means “view” rather than “place.” Choice C is incorrect because “cite” means “quote” or “reference.” Choice D is incorrect because “too” is an adverb that means “excessively,” so does not show that “have been…” is the object of “thought.”

9

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice A is the best answer because “leaving…” after a comma turns the following portion into another action done by the subject of the main clause. This structure fits the context of explaining that the “climate-altering gas and dust clouds” left the few remaining dinosaurs to be eliminated by the asteroid.

Choice B is incorrect because “and” should join two units that have identical grammatical structure. If the subject is considered common and the verb phrase is the only portion joined by “and,” the first portion of the sentence contains the verb “could have caused.” Therefore, “leaving” is not parallel in tense. Choice C is incorrect because “to leave…” illogically makes the following portion the reason for the action rather than the result. If it is the reason, then there should not be a comma separating it from the main clause. Choice D is incorrect because “but” is used to introduce a contrast or exception rather than a logical result.

10

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice B is the best answer because the rest of the sentence starts with “but,” which is used to introduce a contrast or exception. The following portion says that the eruptions may have contributed to weakening the dinosaurs enough that they went extinct when the asteroid struck. Choice B sets up a contrast because it says that most researchers say that the eruptions did not directly kill the dinosaurs. The “but” softens that claim and shows a possibility that is different but related.

Choices A and C are incorrect because the following portion refers to “these eruptions,” but no eruptions are mentioned in the first half of the sentence. Therefore, “these” has no antecedent in the paragraph. Choice D is incorrect because it brings up information about fossils being “interesting,” which implies that they provide information about the eruptions, so the transition “but” does not make sense to introduce a statement possibly derived from the fossils.

11

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice C is the best answer because the assertion in the previous sentence is that the Chicxulub asteroid impact is viewed as the event that ended the age of the dinosaurs. The main idea of the passage is that the Deccan Trap eruptions may have been a contributing factor. Choice C reinforces both points because it says that the asteroid probably was not the only thing that caused the dinosaurs’ extinctions.

Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not discuss the number of species that went extinct. Therefore, Choice A introduces a detail that is only tangentially related. Choice B also brings up a tangential detail because there is no discussion of birds or descendants of dinosaurs that did not go extinct. The passage is about the ones that went extinct. Choice D is incorrect because plants and animals other than dinosaurs are not a main topic of the passage.

12

Content: style and tone

Choice D is the best answer because it is a standard expression that means “were excited.” It fits the professional, informative tone of the rest of the passage.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they are extremely casual, colloquial phrases. They may be heard in conversations but are not appropriate in a formal piece of writing.

13

Content: style and tone

Choice B is the best answer because the other example in the sentence is that Napoleon admired the poems so much that he commissioned two paintings of Ossian. This is a specific example to support the claim in the previous sentence that readers in the 1700s were thrilled by the work of Ossian. Choice B offers a similar supporting example for the claim because it shows a different way that readers were thrilled: they compared his works to very famous and admired poets.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they do not relate to the way people praised or admired Ossian’s work. They only relate to details of Ossian’s writing.

14

Content: syntax

Choice D is the best answer because in the context, “that” is a conjunction that introduces the result of an action. It effectively shows that the commissioning of two paintings was the result of Napoleon’s admiration.

Choice A is incorrect because it is used in conversation but is not standard written usage when indicating “to such a degree.” “To” is a preposition that can be followed by a location, but the following description is not a place, it is an action that shows the level of Napoleon’s interest. Choice B is incorrect because “so that” should be followed by the reason for doing an action. “So” can emphasize an extreme amount, but only when followed by an adjective. Choice C is incorrect because it alters the following portion into a relative clause describing the preceding noun. However, the poems did not commission the paintings.

15

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice A is the best answer because “who” accurately turns the following portion into a relative clause that describes the preceding noun, “Scottish Highlander.”

Choices B and D are incorrect because they form comma splices joining two independent clauses. Choice C is incorrect because a semicolon should divide two independent clauses, but the following portion cannot stand on its own as a sentence.

16

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice C is the best answer because “and” subordinates the following clause and connects the two ideas in the sentence, giving them similar importance.

Choices A and B are incorrect because they are comma splices between two independent clauses. In Choice B, “meanwhile” is not a conjunction that subordinates the following clause; it is an adverb that establishes the time of the action. Choice D is not logical because the information following a colon should add more detail about the claim in the preceding clause. However, “whereas” is a conjunction that sets up a contrast, so does not make sense introducing a logical result. Furthermore, “whereas” should be used after a comma rather than a colon, so Choice D is also grammatically incorrect.

17

Content: transitions

Choice C is the best answer because the preceding sentence says that patrons gave Macpherson money to take a research trip and they were not disappointed. The following sentence says that Macpherson published two books based on his research. Choice C creates a logical time sequence for the two events and explains the claim in the first sentence by giving a reason that the patrons were pleased.

Choice A is incorrect because “in spite” shows that something happened without being affected by the previous claim. However, Macpherson was able to publish the books because of the “contributions” or “money “from the patrons, not “despite” the money from the patrons. Choice B is incorrect because it shows that the following idea is a direct result of the preceding idea. However, the following idea is the cause of the “not disappointed” feeling of the patrons, so the relationship is reversed. Choice D is incorrect because it means that people were very “dismayed” or “upset” that Macpherson published two books. However, the intended meaning is that the published books is what made the patrons happy.

18

Content: transitions

Choice B is the best answer because the previous paragraph is about the public interest in Macpherson’s hints about an ancient poem and the publishing of two popular books supposedly by Ossian. The tone of the passage changes, however, to a discussion of revealing that the poems probably were written by Macpherson. Choice B clearly signals this change in tone with the transition “however,” which is used to show that the following will contrast with previous claims. A “controversy” is a “debate” or “argument,” which clearly introduces the following discussion of debates about the authenticity of the work.

Choice A is incorrect because it introduces tangentially related details that would better be placed elsewhere in the passage. Choice A brings up another admirer of Ossian rather than preparing the reader for a discussion of questions about the authenticity of the work. Choice C does not prepare the reader for the following sentence, because there is no indication of why Johnson would doubt that the work was real. Choice D is redundant because the passage indicates that the work was “translated” by Macpherson, so it can be assumed that they were not in the original Gaelic. Choice D therefore does not further the discussion and does not provide a logical transition to introduce why people doubted that the books were authentic.

19

Content: punctuation

Choice B is the best answer because “that Macpherson had translated” is an essential part of the object of the sentence; without it, the reader does not know what “original manuscripts” Johnson demanded to see. No punctuation should be placed between the essential parts forming a noun.

All of the other choices are incorrect because they include punctuation that divide the parts of the noun “original manuscripts that Macpherson had translated.” Additionally, Choice C incorrectly uses a semicolon. Semicolons should separate independent clauses, not fragments.

20

Content: addition and deletion

Choice D is the best answer because the paragraph is about the probable origin of the books attributed to Ossian. The added sentence refers to Johnson’s biography, but does not offer any evidence for or against the author of Ossian’s books. Therefore, the added sentence does not develop the argument and should not be added to the paragraph.

Choices A and B are incorrect because the added sentence detracts from the flow of the paragraph and should not be included. For Choice A, the importance of the incident to Johnson is not related to whether the books are authentic. For Choice B, there is no detail about Ossian’s poetry, only to Johnson’s attempt to see the original manuscripts. Choice C is incorrect because Boswell’s views are not necessary for the development of the paragraph.

21

Content: precision and concision

Choice D is the best answer because it clearly and concisely provides all the information necessary for the understanding of the sentence.

All the other choices can be eliminated because they are redundant. The main sentence includes “of his own invention,” which means “invented,” or “made-up.” Therefore, such words are not needed in the underlined portion.

22

Content: logical comparisons

Choice C is the best answer because the sentence is comparing the work of two types of poet. The two parts of a comparison need to have the same grammatical structure. In the sentence, “are better understood as the work of an eighteenth-century poet” establishes the structure for the underlined portion. The comparative words “better understood” should be paired with “than.” The comparison “as the work of an eighteenth-century poet” should therefore be paired with the same structure, “as that of a third-century one,” in which “that” refers to “work” and “one” refers to “poet.”

None of the other choices maintains the same grammatical structure in the comparison. In Choice A the “work” of one author is compared to a third-century poet. In Choice B, the plural “those” does not agree with the singular “work.” In Choice D, “better understood” should be followed by “than” rather than “compared with.” Furthermore, Choice D compares the work to the poet.

23

Content: punctuation

Choice A is the best answer because a colon is correctly used to divide a main clause from more detail explaining it. In this case, the “surprising recommendation” is explained by giving that recommendation: post offices should offer banking services.

Choices B and D are incorrect because a semicolon should divide two independent clauses, but the following portion cannot stand on its own as a sentence. Choice C is incorrect because it is a comma splice between two independent clauses.

24

Content: parallelism

Choice C is the best answer because the underlined portion is one item in a list joined by “and.” All items in such a list should have the same grammatical structure. The other items in the sentence are examples of banking services: “refillable debit cards” and “check cashing.” Choice C completes the list with another noun, “small loans.”

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they do not maintain the same grammatical structure as “refillable debit cards” and “check cashing.”

25

Content: transitions

Choice B is the best answer because the previous sentence explains how the postal banking system might work in the US. The following sentences describe how postal banking systems work in other countries. Choice B provides a clear transition by explaining that many people and countries use the system outlined in the previous sentence. It introduces the topic in a general statement that the following sentences expand upon.

Choice A is incorrect because it only refers to the previous sentence; it does not prepare the reader for a discussion of banking in countries other than the US. Choice C introduces the idea of potential users in US post offices. This idea is not developed and does not relate to banking in other countries. Choice D is redundant because it paraphrases information from the first paragraph. Therefore, it does not advance the passage’s argument in any way.

26

Content: syntax

Choice C is the best answer because it is a relative clause that describes “services.” It correctly shows that the services provided by post offices are the same services that banks provide.

Choice A is incorrect because “like” is used to give an example of something. However, a “bank” itself is not a “service” provided by a post office, the bank’s services are. Choice B is incorrect because “of” does not show that there is a comparison; “the same XX of YY” is not standard usage. Choice D is incorrect because “with” implies that the services offered by the post office and bank are offered “together.” It does not show similarity.

27

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice B is the best answer because the main claim of the paragraph is that many parts of the country are becoming “bank deserts.” Choice B effectively introduces this topic with the general statement that many banks have closed. It prepares the reader for the following specific statistics that support this claim.

Choice A is incorrect because it refers to changing banks, not to bank closures. If anything, Choice A could weaken the claim about “bank deserts” because it implies that there are many local banks to choose from. Choice C is incorrect because the passage is not about the habits of bank users; it is about the decrease in numbers of banks. Choice D is incorrect because the main claim of the paragraph does not relate to the motivations of the USPS, only to the situation in the US today.

28

Content: precision and concision

Choice D is the best answer because it clearly and concisely explains everything that is needed to understand the sentence: the decrease in bank branches occurred from 2010 to 2013.

All of the other choices can be eliminated as redundant. “between 2010 and 2013” is a time period, so there is no need to restate that as in Choices A and B. “2010” and “2013” are both years, so “years” is not needed in Choices A and C.

29

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice C is the best answer because the underlined portion describes the relationship between the USPS and the “lack of access.” Choice C refers to dealing with a problem, so shows that the USPS is ideally placed to help deal with or solve the problem of a lack of bank branches.

None of the other choices fits the context of explaining how the USPS relates to the “lack of access.” Choice A refers to a promise to do something, but the USPS is not promising to create a lack of access; it is well suited to help solve the problem of lack of access. Choice B refers to completely solving a problem; while the USPS can help, Choice B is too great a claim to be precise in the context. Choice D means “approve,” but the USPS does not say that a lack of access is good.

30

Content: graphics

Choice A is the best answer because the underlined portion is referring to post offices in zip codes with less than two bank branches. On the pie chart, this would include the sections for “post offices in zip codes with one bank” (21%) and also “post offices in zip codes with no bank” (38%). The sum of these parts is 59%, which is more than half, or 50%. This fact can be visually seen because the parts for one and two banks occupy more space than the part for at least two banks.

None of the other choices accurately describe post offices in zip codes with less than two bank branches. Choice B says, “almost all,” which means “close to 100%.” However, there are a very large number (41%) of post offices in zip codes with two or more banks. Choices C is closer to the percentage for “two or more banks” than for “less than two banks.” Choice D is closest to “post offices in zip codes with one bank” (21%) but does not take into consideration “post offices in zip codes with no bank” (38%).

31

Content: graphics

Choice D is the best answer because the point that the writer is making is that a huge percentage of places that are “bank deserts,” meaning that they do not have banks, are served by post offices. Choice D supports this claim because it shows that in many areas—38% of zip codes—there are no banks at all. That means that the residents need to travel outside their zip code to do banking, whereas they could do it at the post office if such service were available.

Choice A is incorrect because it weakens the claim that many people live in a “bank desert” or have little access to banks. Choice A shows that the majority of people have at least one bank nearby. Choice B is incorrect because, like Choice A, it weakens the point that many people have little access to banks. Choice C incorrectly interprets the information in the graph because the percentage of zip codes with at least two banks (41%) is higher than the percentage with no banks (38%).

32

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice B is the best answer because “although” subordinates the first portion, which needs to be followed by a comma and an independent clause. “Some critics…as banks” is a main clause, so the first portion must end at “needed.” “And” effectively joins the two ideas, “postal banking…other countries” and “many post…critically needed,” so that they are both considerations that the critics ignore.

Choice A is incorrect because it creates a comma splice between two independent clauses, “many post…critically needed” and “Some critics…as banks.” Choice C is incorrect because “however” does not subordinate either clause, so it is a comma splice similar to that made by Choice A. Choice D is incorrect because a single dash in a sentence needs to follow an independent clause and add more detail, but the preceding portion cannot stand on its own.

33

Content: punctuation

Choice D is the best answer because “however” is a transition that is not part of the subordinate clause “as Inspector…notes,” so should be divided with a comma. There should also be a comma after “notes” to divide the subordinate clause from the main clause, “US post offices….”

Choices A and C are incorrect because “notes” is the verb done by the subject “Inspector General David C. Williams.” There should be no punctuation after “Williams” separating the noun from its verb. Choices B and C are incorrect because there is no comma after “however” to show where the subordinate clause begins. These choices are also incorrect because there is no comma after “notes” to show where the subordinate clause ends and the main clause starts. Finally, Choice B is incorrect because a comma after “General” incorrectly divides the title from the name of the person.

34

Content: sentence combination

Choice D is the best answer because it concisely combines the sentences by turning the second into an appositive defining the previous noun, “costume curators.”

In Choice A, “strictly speaking” does not subordinate the following portion, so it is a comma splice between two independent clauses. Choice B incorrectly uses “that is to say” because the phrase should paraphrase the entire portion before the dash, not add a definition of one word. In Choice C, “these” is ambiguous because it appears to refer to the subject of the first sentence, “such exhibits” rather than the object “costume curators.”

35

Content: precision and concision

Choice B is the best answer because in the sentence, “previously” refers to a time prior to the present. No other words are needed to clarify when the ways were impossible.

In Choice A, “previously” and “formerly” have the same meaning, so both are not needed. In Choice C, “at one point” restricts the time rather than indicating “all time before now,” so Choice C can be eliminated as not precise. Choice D is redundant because “formerly” means “in the past.”

36

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice A is the best answer because “to benefit from XX” shows that the subject receives an advantage from XX. It fits the context of showing that “these technological developments” gave an advantage to the 2014 Charles James show.

Choices B and C can be eliminated because they are not standard usage with “benefit.” Choice D can be eliminated because it erroneously means that the following thing gets a “benefit” or “advantage” from the subject. However, “these technological developments” did not get an advantage from the 2014 Charles James show; the reverse is true.

37

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice C is the best answer because the discussion of Koda and Reeder’s work involved studying how the dresses were made. They used X-rays and computer models to understand how James used unconventional materials to create dresses such as the “Clover Leaf” gown. Choice C sets up this information by explaining that they wanted to learn more about the clothing, setting up the description of specific technology used for that purpose.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no discussion in the paragraph about people who could not attend the show. Choice B is incorrect because the paragraph is not about the methods used for displaying the costumes (that comes in a later paragraph); it is about using specific technology to learn what materials were used and how the garments were put together. Choice D is incorrect because the following discussion does not refer to the “exhibit space” or “place the show was held.” Instead, it refers to the garments used in the exhibit.

38

Content: tense, mood, and voice

Choice B is the best answer because the gown exists in the present, so the present tense shows that the gown has not been destroyed. The verb relates to the plural “layers,” so the plural verb in Choice B agrees.

Choice A is incorrect because it is singular, so does not agree with the plural subject, “layers.” Choice C is a future tense that erroneously imply that the costume has not yet been made. Choice D can be used two ways, neither of which fits the context of describing something which has been made. One use is to show that something was made after the time in the passage, but the dress was not made after examining it. The other way is to show a possibility which did not occur, but the dress was made of layers.

39

Content: misplaced modifier

Choice C is the best answer because “having come…work” describes the curators. Therefore, “the curators” needs to come at the start of the main clause so that the modifier refers to the correct subject.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because “having come…work” erroneously describes something other than the curators. In Choice A, the modifier refers to “how to present it.” In Choice B, the modifier refers to the visitors. In Choice D, it refers to “it.”

40

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice D is the best answer because the following discussion is about how clothing can “fall apart easily,” meaning that it is “fragile.” The paragraph continues to say that the curators wanted a creative way for visitors to see how the pieces were constructed without hurting the garments. Choice D effectively introduces this discussion because it introduces the general idea of “displaying fragile garments” that is expanded upon in more detail.

Choice A is incorrect because the following discussion does not refer to “marketing” or “advertising” at all. The paragraph also does not refer to “increasing admissions” or “getting more people to visit.” Choice B is incorrect because there is no discussion of the designer’s “vision” or “ideas” for an exhibit; the discussion is about how to make the costumes more accessible and appealing to the visitors. Choice C is incorrect because there is no discussion of “securing funding” or “raising money” to “maintain” or “preserve” the clothing.

41

Content: syntax

Choice A is the best answer because “how a piece is constructed” is the subject-verb word order for a statement. The statement acts as the object of what visitors “see.” The entire sentence is a statement that can be reduced to “displays make it difficult to see,” so it should end with a period.

Choices B and C are incorrect because “how is a piece constructed” is the inverted verb-subject word order for a question. However, a question is not used as an object unless it is placed in quotation marks after a period to show it is a direct quotation. Choices C and D are incorrect because the entire sentence is a statement, “displays make it difficult to see,” so it should not end with a question mark.

42

Content: addition and deletion

Choice D is the best answer because the paragraph is about the ways that the curators displayed the complicated dresses so that viewers could enjoy seeing the construction, yet the dresses could be protected from damage. The curators’ methods are contrasted with traditional mannequin displays, which could only allow viewers to see the outer layer of simple dresses. The added sentence distracts from the topic because it refers to a dress that could be easily seen on a traditional mannequin display. There is no discussion about different ways that the curators showed it using technology.

Choices A and B are incorrect because the added sentence should not be included in the paragraph. For Choice A, even though it does offer a second example of pieces in the exhibit, the dress does not illustrate any point about how the curators displayed it. For Choice B, the following paragraph is a summary about costume curators’ jobs in general, so a specific description of one dress does not transition well. Choice C is incorrect because there is no other place in the passage where it would be better to put a statement about a dress that has no reference to how the curators showed it.

43

Content: punctuation

Choice D is the best answer because, when a quote uses only a few words to complete a sentence, it is treated as if there were no quotation marks. In this case, the quote is an essential part of the sentence because continues the idea of what the job is; the sentence is not complete without an object. Therefore, no punctuation is needed in the underlined portion.

Choice A is incorrect because a comma after “to” interrupts the flow of the sentence, dividing the verb from its infinitive marker. Choice B is incorrect because a semicolon should divide two independent clauses, but neither portion can stand on its own. Choice C is incorrect because the comma divides the subject “job” from its verb, “is.”

44

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice C is the best answer because the passage is about how technology has expanded the role of costume curators. The first sentence of the passage introduces the main discussion of how costume exhibits “attract new audiences and media attention” to museums. Choice C reinforces this claim by summarizing that the specific example of Charles James: Beyond Fashion described in detail in the passage used technology to help attract audiences and media attention.

Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not advise others to use the same methods as Koda and Reeder. If anything, the passage would suggest a more broad approach and say that “all other designers” rather than limiting the recommendation to only exhibit teams at the Met. Choice A is incorrect because an “apex” is the “top point.” However, the passage does not discuss whether the top point has been reached or not. It just gives an example of one exhibit to support the idea that technology is allowing for new possibilities in costume display. Choice D is incorrect because it focuses only on the work of Charles James, whereas the passage uses Charles James’s work as an example of the broader applications in the field. In addition, “other artistic media” are not discussed at all; only the media of costume is explored in the passage.

1

Choice C is the best answer because Ifemelu does not want to talk to Aisha (lines 2-4, “She wanted…needed to say”) and brings out her cell phone instead of talking. However, Aisha starts talking and asks the same question “once Ifemelu looked up from her phone” (lines 14-15). “Intrusive” means “causing unwelcome disruption,” which fits the context of Aisha pushing she questions despite being ignored. “Uncultured” refers to a lack of education and sophistication, which fits the description that “Aisha would not understand what a fellowship was” (lines 36-37) and that she “could only imagine” (line 40) Princeton.

Choice A is incorrect because, while Aisha may be optimistic and friendly because she talks a lot, Ifemelu views the talk as an interruption. Therefore, her opinion is one of annoyance rather than friendship. Choice B is incorrect because “intuitive” refers to understanding things naturally. If anything, Aisha is portrayed as not being quick to understand, because she doesn’t understand why Ifemelu wants to go back to Nigeria. She asks many questions “as though she had been pondering this” (line 80) and is only satisfied when she gets a response she understands (lines 87-89, “Oh! Okay!...will marry?”) In addition, Ifemelu does not refer to any “talented” or “skillful” traits. Choice D is incorrect because it refers to hiding information and not trusting others. However, Ifemelu portrays Aisha as believing everything she says, which makes her “gullible” or “believing” rather than “suspicious.”

2

Choice B is the best answer because lines 12-13 say, “it suddenly felt true for the first time. I recently decided to move back to Nigeria.” In other words, despite the other things she had done such as sending her car and finding a job (lines 10-12, “even though...for Lagos”), she did not really believe that she was going until she sent the email. She finally felt that her “impending” or “upcoming” move was real.

Choice A is incorrect because the act of sending the email did not “prompt” or “push” Ifemelu to stop her conversation with Aisha. Instead, she made the decision to stop the conversation and sent the email to end the exchange of words. Choice C is incorrect because the email did not prompt Ifemelu to lie about the length of time she lived in the US. The third paragraph (lines 17-28, “Ifemelu took…lied anyway”) show that the decision to lie resulted from an event that happened years previously. Choice D is incorrect because in the passage, Ifemelu does not “reflect” or “think deeply about” her time in Princeton.

3

Choice A is the best answer because “discouraged” is used to describe Aisha and how she reacts to Ifemelu’s sudden use of the cell phone. Aisha, after Ifemelu is done, asks the same question again. Choice A means “discourage” or “stop.” It fits the context of saying that Ifemelu’s action did not upset or stop Aisha from asking her question until it got an answer.

None of the other choices adequately describes Aisha’s reaction to Ifemelu’s sudden use of the cell phone. Choice B refers to not having a reason or enthusiasm to do something, but Aisha was enthusiastic or curious enough to continue asking question. Choice C refers to feeling unhappy, but there is no indication that Aisha is not happy with the conversation. Choice D means “completely certain.” However, Aisha is not certain about something; she just is curious about getting an answer.

4

Choice D is the best answer because “remorse” refers to regret or guilt about doing something wrong. The thing that Ifemelu regrets is that she made Aisha “intimidated” (line 38) by discussing something Aisha could not understand. Ifemelu felt bad that she showed off about her education.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no evidence that Ifemelu “dislikes” or “doesn’t want” to move. She is excited about the prospect and stubbornly convinced that it is the right thing to do. Choice B is incorrect because Ifemelu feels remorse after talking about Princeton, not after talking about her new job. Choice C is incorrect because the mention of Ifemelu’s family is a way to cover up her guilt for showing off about Princeton. She talks about going to live with her family to change the subject to something that Aisha can understand.

5

Choice C is the best answer because Ifemelu challenges Aisha’s question about why she would move back to Nigeria with the abrupt “why not” (line 47). Lines 53-59 (Aisha reminded…with Nigeria”) indicate that Ifemelu equates Aisha’s response to those of her family. She “had grown thorns on her skin” (lines 57-58) because she was upset that people suggested she could not do well in Nigeria after living in the US. Therefore, Ifemelu is “annoyed” or “irritated” that Aisha “questions” or “doubts” the decision to move back, just as she is irritated by her family’s doubts.

Choice A is incorrect because Ifemelu is upset about Aisha asking “why” she would move back. Aisha is not asking about her family; she is asking about motivations to move. Choice B is incorrect because there is no indication that Aisha wants Ifemelu to stay in Princeton, only that she thinks it is better to live in the US than in Nigeria. “Incredulous” means “disbelieving.” The only thing that Ifemelu does not believe is that people cannot accept she is moving back. Choice D is incorrect because there is no indication that Aisha has “no opportunity” or “cannot” go back to Nigeria if she wants to.

6

Choice B is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Ifemelu’s response to Aisha suggests the Ifemelu most likely feels annoyed because Aisha is questioning her decision to move back to Nigeria. Choice B supports this claim because it shows that Ifemelu compares Aisha’s questions to those of her relatives. It also shows that Ifemelu resents her relative’s doubt that she can cope with Nigeria. Therefore, Ifemelu also resents Aisha’s apparent belief that Ifemelu should not go back.

Choice A is incorrect because it only says that Princeton is something that Aisha cannot understand. It does not explain that Ifemelu resents Aisha’s insinuations that she cannot cope in Nigeria. Choices C and D are incorrect because they only show that her family wants her to maintain ties with the US, and that she doesn’t want to disappoint them. These choices do not show that Ifemelu resents their doubt that she can survive in Nigeria.

7

Choice A is the best answer because “skepticism” refers to “doubt.” The description of the family is used to show that there is a “pattern” or “repeated theme” of doubt that she has made the correct decision. The passage indicates Aisha’s doubt when she suggests, “better you send money back” (line 48). Auntie Uju also expresses such doubt by asking, “Will you able to cope?” (lines 55-56). Her parents repeat the theme by suggesting, “At least you are now an American citizen so you can always return to America” (lines 59-61). These examples highlight the point that many people are skeptical that Ifemelu is making a good decision.

Choice B is incorrect because “influenced by” means “affected by.” However, Ifemelu is not affected by her family’s hints that she should stay in the US and marry Blaine. Instead, she plans to move to Nigeria and end her relationship with Blaine. Choice C is incorrect because the discussion emphasizes a similarity or common points rather than a “difference” or “opposing views” between how Aisha and the family feel. Choice D is incorrect because there is no hint that Ifemelu doubts her ability to adjust to Nigeria. The description shows that she feels capable of living there because she is offended (lines 57-58, she “had grown thorns on her skin”) that they think she cannot.

8

Choice C is the best answer because “make peace with” is something that it “had taken [the family] a while” (line 65) to do in relation to “her black American boyfriend” (line 66), Blaine. The contrast in the passage is that at first, they did not approve of Blaine, but that now they asked about him often. Choice C means “acknowledge” it aptly shows that at first they did not recognize Blaine as a boyfriend, but later they did.

Choice A is incorrect because at first the parents did not “bargain” with Blaine; they refused to agree to him as a boyfriend for their daughter. Choice B is incorrect because it means “diminish” or “put to rest,” but the family did not make Blaine smaller or less severe. Choice D refers to pardoning or excusing someone for a mistake. However, Blaine did not make an error that needed to be pardoned.

9

Choice B is the best answer because the lie surprises Ifemelu because she realizes it is easy “to create with strangers the versions of our lives that we have imagined” (lines 84-85). This realization suggests that Ifemelu “imagined” or “dreamed” about returning to be “with her man.” In other words, Ifemelu probably lied because she wished that the situation were true.

Choice A is incorrect because Ifemelu definitely decided to leave Princeton; she already had arranged for a job and sent her car (lines 10-12, “even though…for Lagos”). Choice C is incorrect because there is no indication that Ifemelu is “fearful” or “scared” about Aisha’s reaction. If anything, she seems to not care very much what Aisha thinks. Choice D is also incorrect because Ifemelu does not appear to care what Aisha thinks. The first sentence (lines 1-2, “Ifemelu decided…at all”) indicate that she does not care to continue a relationship with Aisha.

10

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the passage suggests that Ifemelu lies about “her man” because the information Ifemelu gives Aisha reflects what Ifemelu wishes were true. Choice C says that it is easy to lie about the life that “we have imagined.” This phrase means that it is easy to lie about something that we dream or hope for. Therefore, Choice C supports the idea that Ifemelu’s lie is about something she wants to be true.

Choice A is incorrect because it does not refer to a lie at all. Choice B refers to Ifemelu’s guess about what her mother it thinking; it does not show what she hopes is true, nor does it relate to what she told Aisha. Choice D indicates that Aisha might realize that Ifemelu is lying, but it does not provide any evidence to show why Ifemelu lied.

11

Choice D is the best answer because first paragraph “defines” or “explains” what JIT is: a manufacturing process that eliminates storage. The second paragraph discusses the “origins” or “source” of JIT. It explains that JIT started in Japan because land is expensive, so Toyota decided to develop a process that did not involve building more warehouses.

Choice A is incorrect because “milestones” refers to a series of important events, but only one process, JIT, is discussed. Choice B is incorrect because “practical limitations” are “real problems” related to something. However, the first two paragraphs do not describe any negative aspects of JIT. Choice C is incorrect because, although the first paragraph says many books were written, the reasons why the books were written is not mentioned.

12

Choice A is the best answer because the second paragraph says that “real estate is scarce and expensive” (line 12) in Japan. JIT was developed because there was “no benefit in building expensive warehouses if it didn’t need to” (lines 14-15). In other words, the “constraints” or “limitations” that caused JIT to be created were geographic—not enough space—and economic—too expensive to buy land.

Choice B is incorrect because JIT was not created to use existing warehouses; it was developed to avoid having to build more. Choice C is incorrect because “dwindling” or “decreasing” inventories was the result, not the cause, of JIT. Choice D is incorrect because there is no reference to politics in the discussion of the origin of JIT.

13

Choice C is the best answer because answer to the previous question is that JIT emerged in Japan because of geographic and economic constraints. Choice C supports this claim because it indicates that one of the “constraints” or “limitations” was “scarce” or “rare” real estate, a geographic consideration. The “economic” limitation was that the real estate was expensive.

Choice A is incorrect because it only says that many people wrote about advanced Japanese manufacturing processes; it does not explain that geographic and economic constraints led to the invention of JIT. Choice B says that JIT contributed to Japanese success but does not explain why it was created. Choice D explains one aspect of JIT, but it does not offer any reason why it was created.

14

Choice A is the best answer because “parts” inventories are what are reduced by JIT. One example given is “stockpiling windshields, wheels, or gears” (lines 15-16). Therefore, “parts” are referring to pieces that are assembled into finished products. Choice A refers to a reserve of something that is kept for later use, which fits the description that JIT eliminated the need to keep huge numbers of things in storage. Instead, the things are only kept for a short time before they are incorporated into a finished product.

Choice B is incorrect because it refers to a department or a unit that is separated into smaller pieces. However, the parts in the passage are assembled into a larger unit, not broken into pieces. Choice C is incorrect because it refers to the amount of a whole thing that is allotted to a certain person or thing. Choice D refers to a function or position rather than a tangible object that needs to be stored.

15

Choice D is the best answer because the third and fourth paragraphs describe how US companies adapt processes by “transmuting—and sometimes even perfecting—ideas developed elsewhere” (lines 38-39). The specific example of JIT in trucking explains that “JIT production went well beyond the original concept."

pt” (lines 25-26) when “shipping and transportation companies transformed themselves from truck operators to logistics handling companies built around just-in-time deliveries” (lines 33-36). This process is most similar to the example in Choice D, which shows a scientist “modifying” or “transforming” a “methodology” or “process” to fits her own needs.

Choice A is incorrect because US companies did not create an entirely new “product” or “process.” They only changed JIT so that it fit different requirements. Choice B is incorrect because a “hypothesis” is only an initial idea. Choice B does not show that entire processes of production changed when JIT was adapted. Choice C is incorrect because US companies did not use JIT to better understand a competitor or other company. The US companies made their own processes better when they learned about the idea.

16

Choice A is the best answer because the author says that Americans “chide ourselves unduly regarding what we believe to be a slow rate of change” (lines 41-42). It continues to say that this belief is “unfounded” or “not true” because “the fact is that no other country changes more rapidly than we do—nor is any other country as open to new ideas” (lines 42-45). Since “embrace” means to “accept,” Choice A means that Americans believe that they do not accept new ideas, but the author points out that that is not really the case.

None of the other choices are supported by evidence from the passage. For Choice B, there is no suggestion that Americans think they lack “ingenuity” or “creativity.” For Choice C, although Americans may think that they are slow to “adapt” or “change,” the changes referred to in the passage are accepting new ideas rather than “circumstances” or “conditions.” For Choice D, there is no indication that Americans are “suspicious” or “doubt” corporations.

17

Choice B is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Americans hold the unfounded belief that they refuse to embrace new ideas. Choice B shows that Americans hold the belief, because we “chide ourselves” (line 41) for that flaw. However, that belief is “unfounded” or “not true” because Americans are more “open to new ideas” (lines 44-45) than any other country.

None of the other choices supports the claim that Americans have an unfounded belief that they refuse to embrace new ideas. Choice A says that America adapted a new idea, but it does not say that there is an unfounded belief that such things do not happen often. Choice C says that Americans are open, but it does not say that Americans think they are not. Choice D is incorrect because it does not refer to any beliefs at all.

18

Choice B is the best answer because “plays out” is used to show the relationship demonstrated by JIT between new ideas and real life. Choice B means “occurs,” so it fits the context of showing that JIT illustrates how ideas occur or take place in real rather than just theoretical environments.

Choice A is incorrect because it means “to use,” but the new ideas do not “use” real life. Choice C is incorrect because it means “ends,” but the example of JIT still goes on and has not ended. Choice D means “uses up,” but real life is not used up by new ideas.

19

Choice A is the best answer because the graph indicates the percentage of immigrant-founded companies by industry. The shorter the column, the smaller the percentage. Choice A represents the shortest column, at 7.9%.

All of the other industries have a larger percentage of immigrant-founded companies than defense/aerospace. Choice B is 27.9%, Choice C is 31.7%, and Choice D is 35.2%.

20

Choice D is the best answer because “the average of all industry fields” is the fourth column from the top of the graph; the average is 25.3%. Choice D has a “larger” or “higher” percentage at 25.9%.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they have a lower percentage of immigrant founded US companies than the average of all industry fields. Choice A is 7.9%, Choice B is 9.2%, and Choice C is 20.1%.

21

Choice B is the best answer because the graph only gives percentages of immigrants by industry, which means that people are “grouped” or “categorized” by field and whether they are immigrants or not. By contrast, the passage “details” or “describes” nationalities. The passage explains that “24 percent of Silicon Valley’s startups were launched by foreign-born entrepreneurs, mostly Indian and Chinese, but also Israeli, Russian, French, and others” (lines 67-70). It then gives specific examples including Andrew Grove from Hungary (lines 70-73, “for example…from Hungary”), Sergey Brin from Russia (lines 73-74, “Google’s cofounder…Russian-born”), and others.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication in the graph that “prejudice persists.” There is no evidence showing that some people are biased towards any racial or ethnic group. Choice C is incorrect because, while fewer specific examples of people are given in the graph than in the passage, those people are all related to the computer industry. The graph lists more general fields than the passage does. Choice D is incorrect because, while the graph does give statistical data, the passage is not about the author’s personal experiences. The data in the passage comes from a study by Vivek Wadhwa (line 65).

22

Choice D is the best answer because the passage is written in the first-person plural, starting with the “we” in line 1. This narrator is not Professor Rick Shine and Dr. Adele Pile from the School of Biological Sciences, the people who conducted the studies. The narrator uses a relatively impartial tone to explain the results of the studies, so the best description is a “reporter” or “writer” who explains what the biologists found.

Choice A is incorrect because the passage is not written by Professor Shine and Dr. Pile. Choice B is incorrect because a “skeptic” is someone who has doubts. However, there is no hint that the writer doubts the “validity” or “reasonableness” of the findings. Choice C is also not supported by the tone of the text, because there is no attempt to “persuade” or “convince” the reader that the findings are true. The reporter is not necessarily “enthusiastic” or “excited” about the findings; the tone is neutral in explaining the results.

23

Choice B is the best answer because the passage states in lines 24-25 that “sea snakes evolved unique physical traits which enabled them to survive in the aquatic environment.” The examples in lines 25-27 include a paddle-shaped tail, valves to close their nostrils, and large lungs. These are examples of “features” or “traits” that are advantageous to sea snakes and that are not found in land-based ancestors.

Choice A is incorrect because the examples are differences between sea and land snakes, so the examples highlight things that do not look “similar” or “alike.” Choice C is incorrect because the examples given are adaptations of sea snakes; they are not differences of “terrestrial” or “land-based” snakes. Choice D is incorrect because the passage is not discussing the situation where sea snakes move to “a terrestrial environment” or “the land.” Instead, it is offering features that help sea snakes adapt to life in the water.

24

Choice A is the best answer because the “certain physical trait” discussed in the passage is color. The passage says that “colour directly affects the amount of algal growth, with black surfaces attracting the most algae, followed by black-and-white, and white the least” (lines 51-54). The reason for this is that “the spores of some marine algae settle out preferentially onto dark-coloured objects” (lines 55-56). Therefore, it can be inferred that algal spores are less likely to settle on light or white objects like sea snakes with more white coloration on their bodies.

Choice B is incorrect because the study only focuses on the effects of algal colonization. It does not compare swimming speed of snakes with differently shaped tails. Choice C is incorrect because the passage does not explore variations in lung capacity. There is only speculation in the final paragraph (lines 83-91, “there is clearly…benefit the snake”) that algal colonization may affect respiration. Choice D is incorrect because the passage indicates that color banding has less, not more, algal colonization than solid black skin does (lines 51-54, “these results…the least”).

25

Choice C is the best answer because in line 50, “scored” refers to what the scientists did to “the amount of algal colonisation over the subsequent days” (lines 50-51). Choice C means “keep a running total,” so clearly shows that the biologists monitored the additional growth day by day.

None of the other choices adequately explains what the scientists did to the amount of algal colonization. Choice A means to “write” or “create,” but the scientists only recorded what they saw; they did not make more algae. Choice B means “to successfully reach a goal,” but the scientists were not trying to reach a specific level. They were only writing down what they found. Choice D means “got,” but the scientists were observing rather than collecting the algae.

26

Choice B is the best answer because a “fitness cost” is a “disadvantage to survival.” Choice B is a disadvantage because if snakes are “visible” or “able to be seen” as prey, they are more likely to be eaten. Lines 68-72 state, “Differences in colour involving black versus banded varieties of land snakes typically have been attributed to differences in heat transfer—that is darker colours absorb more heat, even at the expense of looking more obvious to predators.” In other words, the black color is necessary for heat transfer in land snakes, but the dark colors are “more obvious” or “easier to see” to “predators” or “animals that would eat the snakes.”

Choice A is incorrect because algal fouling happens on sea snakes, not land snakes. Choice C is incorrect because absorbing heat is a benefit rather than a “fitness cost.” Choice D is a disadvantage to sea snakes, not land snakes.

27

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that in land snakes, black coloration is associated with greater visibility as objects of prey. In other words, black colors make it easier to see and eat the snake. Choice C provides evidence in support of that claim because it shows that black snakes are more “obvious to predators” or “easy to see by animals that would eat the snake.” That is a “cost” or “disadvantage” of having better heat transfer.

Choices A and B are incorrect because they refer to algae on sea snakes, not land snakes. Choice D refers to land snakes, but it refers only to a fitness cost of being black under water. It does not explain a drawback to being black on land.

28

Choice D is the best answer because “cost” refers to something that is a problem, “susceptibility to algal fouling” (line 79). This is a problem, rather than a benefit such as “affecting the body temperatures” (lines 75-76). Choice D refers to a drawback or downside of something. In this case, the drawback of being black is the problem of algal fouling.

None of the other choices describes a problem such as algal fouling. Choice A refers to a price, but the “physical cost” does not refer to money. Choice B refers to the worth or advantage of something, Choice C refers to a tax or fee.

29

Choice A is the best answer because Shine’s finding is that black snakes had more algal cover than other colored snakes over a four-year period. Figure 1 shows “algal fouling” on black snakes and banded snakes over a period of four years, 2004-2008. For each of the years, the percent of snakes with a heavy algal covering (shown on the y-axis) is greater for the black snakes (the solid gray line) than for the banded snakes (the dotted line).

Choice B is incorrect because it refers to swimming speed, whereas Figure 1 only refers to algal cover. There is no reference to swimming speeds in Figure 1. Choice C is incorrect because the graph does not show that there is a balance of costs and benefits. It only shows that different colors have different amounts of algal covering. Choice D is incorrect because Figure 1 does not refer to speed nor to oxygen transfer.

30

Choice A is the best answer because 11 meters is given to the far right of the x-axis. The point on the black line for “sea snakes with a heavy coating of algae” above the 11 is the lowest point on that line. It corresponds to about the .7 mark on the y-axis, which shows average swimming speed in body lengths/second.

None of the other choices corresponds with the point for “sea snakes with a heavy coating of algae” at 11 meters. Choice B is the point for heavily coated snakes at 10 meters. Choice C is the point for “sea snakes without a heavy coating of algae” at 11 meters. Choice D is not a recorded speed for “sea snakes with a heavy coating of algae” at all.

31

Choice D is the best answer because Figure 2 refers to swimming speed. Figure 2 records results for snakes with or without a heavy algal coating, and for every distance up to 12 meters, the snakes without a heavy coating swam faster. Figure 1 shows which snakes are most likely to have a heavy algal coating. In every year, a greater percentage of black snakes had a heavy coating than banded snakes did. Therefore, black snakes are more likely to have a heavy coating and thus swim slower than banded snakes.

Choice A is incorrect because the figures do not say whether snakes can complete a swim of 12 meters. Figure 2 only records speeds at different distances. Choices B and C are incorrect because neither figure refers to “depth” in the water. Figure 2 refers to the distance swam but does not say whether the snakes were close to the surface or not.

32

Choice B is the best answer because the first sentence sets up the central claim: “The only vice that I perceive in the universe is Avarice; all the others, whatever name they be known by, are only variations, degrees of this one; it is… the basis, the vehicle, of all the vices.” (lines 1-4). Since “avarice” is another word for “greed,” the author claims that the “fundamental” or “most basic” vice is greed. A “vice” is a “moral shortcoming” or “bad behavior.”

Choice A is incorrect because the author does not say that there are more “collective” or “group” vices than there are “individual” or “personal” virtues. If anything, he claims that there is only one vice, avarice, and there may be more than one virtue. Choice C is incorrect because, while “self-interest” is a form of greed, it is not something that “underlies” or “forms a foundation” for the virtue of generosity. Self-interest “undermines” or “damages” generosity. Choice D is incorrect because, while “avarice” or “the desire to possess” may indicate inadequacy, that concept is only one example of a vice that is built on greed, so is not the central claim of the passage.

33

Choice A is the best answer because “private interest” or “greed to own property” is “created” or “caused” in part by an economic system that divides goods. Such an economic system is, to Morelly, “problematic” or “bad” because “where no property exists, none of its pernicious consequences could exist” (lines 17-18). He is suggesting that an economic system that does not divide goods in any way is the only solution to eliminate greed: “Now, if you were to take away property, and the blind and pitiless self-interest that accompanies it, you would cause all the prejudices and errors that they sustain to collapse” (lines 38-42).

Choice B is incorrect because a “convergence” is a place where things meet. If public opinion were in agreement, there would be no arguments or “private interest.” Choice C is incorrect because it indicates a result of the private interest, not a cause of it. Choice D is incorrect because there is no indication that “disinformation” or “lies” causes private interest. The private interest is caused by “all division of goods, whether equal or unequal” (lines 21-22).

34

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that an important factor that created the private interest mentioned in line 12 is a “problematic” or “bad” economic system. Choice C supports that claim because it says that “all private property” that results from division of goods is the “material for the highest evil” or “worst problem.” That problem is the “private interest” of wanting the private property for oneself. Therefore, if property were not divided in an economic system, the worst problem could be avoided.

None of the other choices show that a bad economic system contributes to greed. Choice A only says that greed is at the root of all problems. Choice B only gives one example of a vice caused by greed. Choice D only explains what would happen if greed did not exist.

35

Choice D is the best answer because Morelly states that no one will “contest” or “oppose” the justness of the “proposition” or “claim” that “where no property exists, none of its pernicious consequences could exist” (lines 16-17). He takes it for granted that everyone will agree with that claim. Choice D refers to “truth” or “accuracy,” so it fits the context that no one will oppose the accuracy of the claim.

None of the other choices fits the context of describing what aspect of the proposition people will not “contest” or “oppose.” Choice A refers to “appeal,” but Morelly is not saying that the proposition is necessarily pleasing to everyone. Choice B refers to truth according to rules and regulations rather than accepting something as a moral precept. Choice C refers to something being plain or blunt rather than true.

36

Choice B is the best answer because “grounds” is explained as “the general tendency of legislators to allow the primary link of all sociability to be broken by the usurpation of the resources that should belong in common to all humanity” (lines 34-37). The “ground” shows how the tendency relates to “all these defects” (lines 34). Choice B means “roots” or “foundation,” so it shows that the defects are caused by the tendency.

None of the other choices adequately explains that the defects are caused by the tendency. Choice A refers to a formal statement. Choice C refers to a resolution rather than a cause. Choice D refers to something that is left over or remaining once other things are gone.

37

Choice C is the best answer because “debunk” means “disprove.” Freud is trying to show that arguments for “external” or “outside” origins of human flaws are incorrect. His argument is that communism will not work because people are "inherently," or “from the inside” aggressive. He starts his argument by saying that “Human beings are not gentle creatures in need of love, at most able to defend themselves if attacked; on the contrary, they can count a powerful share of aggression among their instinctual endowments” (lines 45-48). He ends his argument by reiterating the same idea, “Aggression was not created by property; it prevailed with almost no restriction in primitive times, when property was very scanty, it already manifests itself in the nursery” (lines 81-84).

Choice A is incorrect because Freud is not trying to “reveal” or “show” a cause of conflict between nations. He says that conflict arises in all situations because humans are by nature aggressive. Choice B is incorrect because Freud is not “proposing” or “suggesting” an “alternative” or “different” economic system. He just claims that communism is bound to fail. Choice D is incorrect because Freud is not trying to “expose” or “reveal” the “motives” or “reasons” for people who “champion” or “promote” change. He does discuss the rationale behind communism, but that is brought up to show why communism will not work.

38

Choice D is the best answer because Freud challenges people who disagree with him by asking a question, “Who, after all that he has learnt from life and history, would be so bold as to dispute this proposition?” (lines 54-56). This question suggests that no one can “dispute” or “go against” his “proposition” or “claim” if he or she looks at the lessons of “life” or “experience” and “history,” which is a lesson “from the past.”

Choice A is incorrect because Freud does not say that his philosophy or view is “popular” or “held by many people.” Choice B is incorrect because Freud does not introduce scientific proof or evidence to support his claim. He only makes general statements and says that the “lessons” or “experiences” of history support his claim. Choice C is incorrect because he does not say that the people who disagree with him are motivated by “fear.” He does not say they are scared; he implies that they are motivated by the desire “to redeem mankind from evil” (line 58). He does, however, imply that they are “ignorant” or “not educated” because they do not realize the true nature of mankind.

39

Choice A is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that people who disagree with Freud’s beliefs about human nature “disregard” or “ignore” lessons from the past. This claim is supported by Choice A, which suggests using a question that no one who “has learnt from history” or “looks at the lessons taught by the past” would doubt his beliefs. The quote in Latin that “man is a wolf to man” (line 54) stresses that the point was made years ago and still holds true.

Choices B and C explain the view of the communists but do not show that Freud thinks that the communists ignore lessons from the past. Choice C is incorrect because it gives an example of Freud’s belief but does not relate to opponents of his belief learning lessons from the past.

40

Choice B is the best answer because Passage 1 introduces the philosophy of communism, explaining that if there is no private property, “there would be no more furious passions, ferocious actions, notions nor ideas of moral evil” (lines 42-44). Passage 2, however, points out a major “flaw” or “problem” with that philosophy: “Aggression was not created by property; it prevailed with almost no restriction in primitive times, when property was very scanty, it already manifests itself in the nursery” (lines 81-84). In other words, aggression always existed, so that even if property is eliminated, the “moral evil” of aggression would still exist.

Choice A is incorrect because Passage 1 is offering a new viewpoint, not describing something from the past. Even if the view were only held in the past, Passage 2 does not show how that viewpoint “evolved” or “changed.” Passage 2 indicates that the proposed idea cannot work no matter how it is modified. Choice C is incorrect because, while Passage 1 introduces an economic theory, Passage 2 does not “support” or “agree” with it. Choice D is incorrect because, though Passage 1 discusses the problem of avarice and human vices, Passage 2 says that there is no way to get rid of vices because aggression is part of human nature. Therefore, Passage 2 does not offer a solution.

41

Choice A is the best answer because Morelly’s claim is that no one would doubt that if no one has property, there would be no “pernicious consequences” or “negative results.” Freud would object and call the claim “inherently” or “by nature” “limited” or “incomplete.” The reason is that it does not account for a certain aspect of “human nature,” aggression. He would say that people are aggressive no matter what changes are made.

Choice B is incorrect because, while Freud does not think that vices are only caused by possession of property, he does not claim that they are only caused by interactions with neighbors. He says that they start “in the nursery” (line 84), which implies that aggression exists before babies spend time outside of the home. Choice C is incorrect because “fundamentally sound” means “at the root, well-founded.” However, Freud does not believe that Morelly’s claim will work on any level because it does not take into account human nature. Choice D is incorrect because Freud would say that even if the government changed, the human trait of aggression would make the plan unsuccessful.

42

Choice D is the best answer because the first paragraph introduces the main idea that “Populations of blackcaps in southern Germany and Austria that historically migrated to Portugal for the winter have, over the last thirty years, shown an increasing tendency instead to spend the winter in Britain” (lines 1-5). The second paragraph describes the scientific basis for confirming this tendency. The third paragraph identifies a genetic link to the trait, and the fourth paragraph says that the number of birds with this genetic link has increased rapidly. The reasons for this increase are evaluated in the final paragraphs of the passage: increased feeders in Britain increase the chance of survival, birds flying from Britain get better nesting grounds, and birds raised in Britain can reproduce earlier. The last paragraph says that these changes probably are triggered by climate change (lines 76-77, “this recent…climate change”). Therefore, the entire passage is about a change in migration routes and the factors leading to that change.

Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not “predict” or “guess about future” changes to migration routes. It only describes factors that caused a change in the past. Choice B is incorrect because no “other birds” are discussed in the passage. The only species mentioned is blackcaps. Choice C is incorrect because there is no “controversial theory” or “idea that is being argued and debated.” The data is presented as accepted fact.

43

Choice A is the best answer because “contextualize” means “to provide background.” The first paragraph explains about the “phenomenon” or “event” of changing blackcap migration routes and provides background about how people realized that there was a change: birds banded in Germany were observed.

Choice B is incorrect because the first paragraph does not “illustrate” or “provide examples of” the “relevance” or “reason that it is important.” Choice C is incorrect because the developing trend is discussed, but there is no “factor” or “reason” that “leads to” or “causes” the trend discussed in the first paragraph. Choice D is incorrect because the first paragraph mentions a scientific observation. It does not “uphold” or “prove” the “integrity” or “truth” of the claim. Later paragraphs provide evidence that support the tendency introduced in the first paragraph.

44

Choice C is the best answer because the parenthetical comment in line 11 is an “example” or “illustration” of something that incorporates new material. That illustration explains why claws were used to determine the migration patterns of the birds. The parenthetical comment in line 65 also gives examples, as they explain “the annual stages of a bird’s body” (lines 64-65) for readers who might not be familiar with what they are.

Choice A is incorrect because an “objection” is a “protest” or “complaint.” However, the examples in the parentheses do not offer an opposing view. They provide more information to clarify the discussion. Choice B is incorrect because a “definition” gives the meaning of a word, but the parentheses do not contain a literal explanation of the previous terms. Choice D is incorrect because “counterexamples” are things that act as arguments against a particular claim. As with Choice A, Choice D is incorrect because the examples in the parentheses do not offer an opposing view.

45

Choice B is the best answer because “natural” is an adjective that describes a “migration” which “unfolds over thousands of kilometres” (lines 24-25). This type of migration is contrasted with a behavior that can “be studied in a cage” (line 25). In other words, the passage is comparing “real” or “actual” migrations with the test conditions used by the study.

Choice A is incorrect because it means “basic” or “fundamental.” The word would apply to the instinct that drives the birds to migrate but is not used to describe one form of migration compared to another. Choice C means “done on a regular basis.” However, the study was performed on baby blackcaps that had not done the migration before, so a “regular” migration by those birds could not be studied in a cage. Choice D is incorrect because it refers to something that is not trained or educated, but migrations are not “educated.”

46

Choice A is the best answer because “measure of its true migration instinct” (line 31) is what “after sunset the direction in which the caged bird is attempting to travel, and its overall activity” (lines 29-31) is. These actions are “indications” or “signs” of the true direction that the bird wants to fly. Therefore, the actions are a sign of the real migration instinct or tendency.

None of the other choices show that the actions of the bird are a “sign” of its migration instinct. Choice B refers to a restriction or end. Choice C refers to a level of strength rather than a sign. Choice D refers to something that decreases the level of something else.

47

Choice A is the best answer because lines 42-43 say, “the high number of bird feeders in Britain increases the winter survival of adults.” This is a strong indication that the reason the birds survive is that they have “a reliable food supply” based on people putting food into bird feeders.

None of the other choices are supported by evidence from the passage. Choice B is incorrect because the British birds have an earlier, not later, spring migration (lines 48-50, “the blackcaps who travelled to Britain began spring migration earlier than Portuguese birds”). Choice C is incorrect because there is no indication that the birds are “more resilient” or “better able to cope with” cold. The only genetic change mentioned is in the instinct to migrate to a different place. Choice D is incorrect because there is no evidence that the researchers “care for” or “give food and protection to” the birds that travel to Britain.

48

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that better survival rates among blackcaps that travel to Britain are partially attributable to a reliable food supply leading to more tolerable conditions for the birds. Choice C shows that the blackcaps have access to bird feeders, which indicates a reliable food source because people fill the feeders all winter. Therefore, the conditions are more “tolerable” or “easy to endure” than if there were no feeders.

Choice A is incorrect because it only discusses a study conducted on birds from Britain; it does not explain that birds in Britain have a reliable food source. Choice B indicates that birds which survive pass traits to offspring but does not say how the birds survive in the first place. Choice D explains a reproductive advantage of overwintering in Britain but does not explain that there is a steady food source there.

49

Choice B is the best answer because lines 48-54 directly state that “the blackcaps who travelled to Britain began spring migration earlier than Portuguese birds and had a shorter distance cover, hence they arrived at the nesting areas earlier. Early arriving males claimed the best territories and early arriving females had high reproductive success by virtue of pairing with the best males on the best territories.” In other words, the blackcaps wintering in Britain returned earlier and found the best nesting areas.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no reference to the numbers of “potential” or “possible” mates. The passage only says that the females that wintered in Britain can pair with males in better territories. Choice C is incorrect because lines 77-81 say, “Decades ago, the occasional birds that did overwinter in Britain likely arrived on the breeding grounds too soon, when weather conditions could be harsh and food supplies low.” This implies that food is more abundant later in the season and not necessarily when the birds from Britain arrive. Choice D is incorrect because the only genetic variations discussed are the migration tendencies to go to Britain or to Portugal. There is no comparison of other genetic differences in the birds.

50

Choice B is the best answer because the passage says that day length affects the annual stages of the body (lines 64-68, “the annual…birds’ physiology”). The passage continues to say that “as the winter nears an end, the very rapid change in day length in Britain compared with more southerly latitudes triggers a faster change in hormones that stimulate growth of the ovaries and testes” (lines 68-72). In other words, the “key” or “basic” processes of the stages of the body are “faster” or “accelerated.”

Choice A is opposite of the correct answer because the hormones are triggered to operate faster, not “delayed” or “slower.” Choice C is incorrect because the passage indicates that genetics, not the changes in the length of the day, control the migration direction: “This shift in migration direction, and distance, has a strong genetic basis” (lines 17-18). Choice D is incorrect because the length of the breeding period is not given. The twenty-day change mentioned in the passage is the difference between the first starting dates of breeding for birds from Britain compared to birds from Portugal.

51

Choice C is the best answer because the question is asking for evidence supporting the idea that earlier migrations “favor” or “help” the birds wintering in Britain. Choice C gives a specific example of how the British birds benefit: they can breed sooner than their “counterparts” or “similar birds” from Portugal.

Choice A is incorrect because it only says that the earlier spring migration from Britain may not be linked to genetics. It does not offer an advantage for birds wintering in Britain. Choice B is incorrect because it only says that day length alters physiology. It does not give evidence as to why altered physiology is beneficial. Choice D is incorrect because it explains a disadvantage for birds wintering in Britain. It does not say why wintering there is a good thing.

52

Choice D is the best answer because it suggests that food at the breeding grounds is available earlier, so that migrating to the breeding grounds earlier does not harm the birds. Therefore, the warmer conditions “favorably” or “positively” helped the birds.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no evidence that the birds no longer migrate to Britain. The changing weather only ensures that there is food available when the birds return from Britain. Choice B is incorrect because there is no hint of a “negative influence” or “bad effect.” The birds are now able to survive if they arrive earlier, which they could not do decades ago. Choice C is incorrect because the indication is that the weather conditions have changed over the past several decades. “Decades ago, the occasional birds that did overwinter in Britain likely arrived on the breeding grounds too soon” (lines 77-79), but now there are “warmer springs” (line 81) so “birds that arrive earlier on the breeding grounds do not pay a heavy price” (lines 81-82). This contrast indicates that the weather has been getting warmer rather than remaining the same.

1

Content: sentence combination

Choice C is the best answer because “and” eliminates the repetitive subject “you” and turns both sentences into actions performed by that subject. “And” shows that the second action happened in sequence after the first action.

Choice A is incorrect because it changes the meaning of the original sentences. It adds the idea of “despite,” which indicates that the act of entering happened even though you were shown to a strange room. However, the original sentences are sequential so that you were not aware of the contents of the room until after you entered. In Choice B, “while” makes the actions appear simultaneous rather than sequential. Choice D is incorrect because “shown to…” is not a subordinate clause, so the idea is incomplete.

2

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice D is the best answer because it means “usual” and refers to an average example of something. It fits the context of saying that the Hotel Savoy is not an average example of a night at the theater.

None of the other choices fits the context of describing an average “night at the theater” that acts as a contrast to the Hotel Savoy experience. Choice A refers to something that is widespread rather than something that is used as a general example or model. Choice B means “found everywhere.” However, the location is not being compared, the nature of the show is. Choice C refers to something done on a routine basis.

3

Content: parallelism

Choice B is the best answer because the underlined portion is part of a list of things that decorate the disturbing rooms. The list is joined by “and,” so all the parts need to have the same grammatical structure. The first items are “blank televisions,” “old newspapers,” and “wigs on tables.” These are all nouns, so Choice B maintains the parallelism.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they do not have the same grammatical structure as the other items in the list, which are all nouns. Choices A and C are clauses. Choice D is a verb phrase.

4

Content: misplaced modifier

Choice A is the best answer because “while contemplating the contents” is a modifier that should refer to the visitor. When a modifier is placed at the start of a sentence, it should be followed by the noun it refers to. Choice A correctly places “the unsettled visitor” at the start of the main clause.

All of the other choices are incorrect because “while contemplating the contents” refers to something other than the visitor. In Choice B, it refers to “an interruption.” In Choice C, it refers to “an actor or actress.” In Choice D, it refers to “the appearance.”

5

Content: addition and deletion

Choice C is the best answer because the focus of the paragraph is about the experience of a visitor to the hotel. It describes what the visitor does and the impression that the experience makes. The added sentence, on the other hand, refers to the background of the director of the production. This detail does not enhance the reader’s understanding of the appearance of the rooms or reaction of the visitor, so it should not be included at this point of the passage.

Choices A and B are incorrect because the added sentence should not be included in the passage. The director’s background does not explain why the hotel is an entertaining experience, nor is it necessary for the understanding of the work. Choice D is incorrect because Huber’s decision to change careers would only detract further from the main topic of the paragraph.

6

Content: transitions

Choice C is the best answer because the previous sentence is a general statement that some performances require more interaction than Hotel Savoy. The following sentence gives a specific example of such a play; it refers to a play where the audience has to climb on a mountain. Choice C is used to give a specific case that illustrates a main claim, so effectively shows the relationship between these two sentences.

None of the other choices effectively shows how the previous and following ideas relate. Choice A is incorrect because it is used to add more points to an argument rather than to give a specific case as an illustration. Choice B is incorrect because it is used to show a contrast or exception. Choice D is incorrect because it is used to show that something happens despite something else.

7

Content: punctuation

Choice C is the best answer because “dramatic scenes, music, and visual arts” are the objects of the verb “uses.” An object should not be divided from its verb with any punctuation because it is an essential part of the clause.

All of the other choices are incorrect because they divide essential parts of the sentence from each other. In Choices A and D, a colon or semicolon should follow an independent clause, but the preceding portion cannot stand on its own.

8

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice B is the best answer because the information that follows is a description of the place that participants go and the resulting impressions of feeling like sheep. Choice B sets up this description by saying that the “environment” or “place” is essential; it shows that without the special location, the impression of feeling like a sheep would not be nearly as strong.

Choice A is incorrect because the following sentence is not about culture, it is about the sensory experience of moving though the place. Choice C is incorrect because there is no reference to the type of participants, only to the way the setting creates the mood. Choice D is incorrect because “nor” sets up a contrast, but the following portion is about a sheep farm, so is not a contrast but a continuation of the same idea.

9

Content: punctuation

Choice C is the best answer because the underlined portion is a part of a list of things that mingle with the should of a brass band. The items in the list are “voices of farmers,” “the barking of sheepdogs,” and “the sound of a stream running through the hills.” Items in a list joined by and should be followed with a comma after each item, but no comma after the “and,” as done in Choice C.

Choices A and D are incorrect because there should be no comma after “and.” Choice A is also incorrect because there is no comma after “sheepdogs” to show where the item ends and the next idea begins. Choice B is incorrect because a semicolon is only used to separate items in a list if every item is followed by a semicolon. Since “farmers” is followed by a comma, a comma is needed after “sheepdogs” for parallel punctuation.

10

Content: subject-verb agreement

Choice A is the best answer because the underlined portion is the active verb of the sentence, so needs to agree with the subject. The subject is long so may appear plural: “the recent increase in the popularity of immersive theatrical events such as Hotel Savoy and The Gathering.” However, the subject can be simplified to the singular “increase.” Since Choice A is the only singular verb, it is the correct choice.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they are plural verbs so do not agree with the singular subject “increase.”

11

Content: parallelism

Choice D is the best answer because the underlined portion is one action that is part of a list of things that the participants are free to do. The other items are “explore the virtual space” and “interact with other players.” Choice D fits the context because it maintains the parallelism by using same grammatical structure.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they do not maintain the same verb form as “explore” and “interact.” Verbs in a list joined by “and” need to have the same tense.

12

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice D is the best answer because the next sentence describes the “immensity” or “large size” of the building. It also brings up the impressiveness of the building, including its façade, columns, and roof. Choice D introduces these ideas by saying that the station was a “masterpiece” or “very impressive example” of “architecture,” meaning “buildings.”

Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication that the travelers felt that they were important; the following sentence only shows that the building was impressive or important. Choice B is incorrect because there is no discussion of the destinations or routes of the trains going from Penn Station, only a description of the building itself. Choice C is incorrect because the following sentence does not refer to “renovations” or “redoing” anything, nor does it refer to Grand Central Terminal at all.

13

Content: punctuation

Choice A is the best answer because the underlined portion is part of a list of nouns that people marveled at. Nouns in a list joined by “and” should have a comma after each item, but there should be no comma after “and.” Choice A correctly punctuates the underlined portion with only a comma after “columns.”

Choice B is incorrect because it places the comma after rather than before the “and.” Choices C and D are incorrect because they do not use commas as standard convention dictates. For Choice C, a single dash in a sentence needs to follow an independent clause, but the preceding portion cannot stand on its own. For Choice D, semicolon should only be used to divide a list when all items are followed by a semicolon.

14

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice B is the best answer because “evoking…Rome” is a modifier that refers to “its design.” Such a modifier at the start of a sentence needs to be divided from the main clause with a comma. The following portion, “its awe-inspiring…world capital” is the main clause of the sentence.

Choice A is incorrect because “evoking…Rome” cannot stand on its own as a sentence. Choice C is incorrect because “and” needs to connect two items that have the same grammatical structure. The following portion is a clause, but the preceding portion is not because there is no subject and active verb. Choice D is incorrect because “while” turns the following portion into a dependent clause, leaving the sentence without a main, independent clause.

15

Content: punctuation

Choice C is the best answer because “however” is a transition word that is not an essential part of the main sentence. Therefore, it needs to be separated from the main sentence with a comma before and after it.

All of the other choices are incorrect because they do not indicate that “however” is not part of the main sentence. In Choice A, “however” appears to be part of the first idea “after just a few decades.” In Choices B and D, a semicolon and single dash should follow an independent clause, which is not the case.

16

Content: possession and possessive determiners

Choice B is the best answer because “Company” is part of the name of the Pennsylvania Railroad Company, so should remain singular. A singular noun ending in “y” only needs the addition of an apostrophe and “s” to indicate possession. Therefore, Choice B shows that the profits belong to the one company.

Choice A is incorrect because “Companies’” is the possessive form of more than one company, so does not fit the context of referring to a single company. Choices C and D are incorrect because “Companies” is a plural noun that does not show possession, so there is no indication that the profits belong to anything. Choice D is also incorrect because “profits” does not own anything, so should not have an apostrophe of possession.

17

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice D is the best answer because the paragraph describes how the group organized protests and contacted government officials about Penn Station. The paragraph says that the group tried many different methods to save the station, but despite their efforts, the building was torn down. Choice D introduces the paragraph well because it says that the group tried to “pressure” or “force” the city to save the station.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication of what the group wanted the station to be used for. There is no suggestion that the use had to be “public.” It appears that the group would have been happy as long as the building remained intact. Choices B and D are incorrect because the paragraph does not discuss any specific members, so bringing up the membership distracts from the topic of the purpose of the group.

18

Content: parallelism

Choice D is the best answer because the underlined portion is part of a list of methods that AGBANY used to persuade city officials to intervene. The other parts of the list are “writing letters,” and “circulating petitions.” Choice D maintains the same grammatical structure because it is a verb ending in “-ing.”

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they do not use the same grammatical structure as “writing” and “circulating.” Therefore, they interrupt the parallelism of the sentence.

19

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice B is the best answer because it can mean “succeed in obtaining” and refers to something that was hard to get. This meaning enhances the context of saying that AGBANY got a meeting with the mayor, because it implies that doing so was difficult or hard.

None of the other choices adequately show the relationship between AGBANY and the hearing with the mayor. Choice A is incorrect because it refers to making something certain, but the meeting was not necessarily very likely to happen. Choice C refers to ownership. Choice D refers to intercepting and holding something.

20

Content: transitions

Choice D is the best answer because the previous sentence discusses how AGBANY worked to get the support of public officials. However, the following sentence says that even though that happened, most officials did not want to get involved in the issue. After that, the paragraph shows that AGBANY’s efforts did not end up successful because the station was demolished. Choice D is a transition that indicates that a contrast will follow. It clearly shows that the following information is unexpected given the previous assertions that AGBANY got support.

Choice A is incorrect because it is used to highlight similarities between two points, but the idea that the politicians were not interested in the issue is a contrast to the previous claim that some politicians were supportive of the cause. Choice B is incorrect because it is used to show a positive outcome, so does not prepare the reader for the negative outcome of a destroyed historical building. Choice C is incorrect because it is used to indicate the consequence of a preceding action. However, the following building destruction happened despite, rather than because of, AGBANY’s efforts described in the previous sentences.

21

Content: sentence combination

Choice A is the best answer because “as picketers stood by in disbelief” describes the time that the action in the main sentence occurred. It clearly shows that the wrecking balls chipped the façade at the time that the picketers stood by.

Choice B is incorrect because “with” implies that the action was done by both the wrecking balls and the picketers. Choice C is incorrect because a semicolon does not indicate that the actions were simultaneous. Instead, it appears that the actions were sequential. Choice D is incorrect because the placement of the commas makes “wrecking balls” appear to be an appositive that renames the following noun, “picketers.” The picketers are therefore doing the action of chipping away at the façade.

22

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice B is the best answer because the main ideas of the passage relate to the different meanings that Penn Station had for New Yorkers. Paragraph 1 shows that the station was “awe-inspiring” and reflected the newness and grandeur of the city. However, Paragraph 2 states that the “luster began to fade,” or that the building lost importance and was slated for demolition. Paragraph 3 shows how people rallied to save the building, but that the efforts were not enough. The final paragraph shows how the building, though gone, was inspirational in establishing an agency that would protect historical buildings. Choice B summarizes these ideas by saying that the building was once a symbol of the exciting newness of the city but became a symbol that “safeguarded” or “protected” other old or historical buildings.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no discussion of photographs or books in the passage. Therefore, Choice A brings up a loosely related detail rather than summarizing main points. Choice C is incorrect because the Grand Central Terminal is not discussed anywhere in the passage. Choice D also does not summarize main points of the passage. It mentions airplanes, which were not discussed elsewhere, and the “triumph” or “success” of cars and airplanes. However, the passage only brings up cars to show why the building was not used as much by the train company.

23

Content: transitions

Choice B is the best answer because it is used to show a contrast or unexpected point. It fits the context of indicating an unexpected twist between the previous idea, people are lining up at restaurants, and the following idea, people are not waiting for tables. The obvious statement after “lining up at restaurants” is that people are waiting to sit and eat, so the fact that they are not is surprising.

None of the other choices effectively establishes the relationship between the previous and following ideas. Choice A is used to show a result or conclusion. Choice C is used to show that something occurs simultaneously. Choice D is used to introduce a reason for the previous claim.

24

Content: tense, mood, and voice

Choice B is the best answer because the past perfect is used to show that something happened before another action in the past. It correctly indicates that the chefs discovered ways to share their love of food, and that is why the food truck industry began to grow and is continuing to grow.

Choice A is incorrect because it is a future tense, but the discovery of a new way to share food happened in the past; the discovery caused the growth of the industry. Choice C is incorrect because it is singular, so does not agree with the plural subject “chefs.” Choice D is incorrect because it shows that an action occurred at the same time as another action in the past. Although the discovery may have coincided with the growth of the industry, the present perfect “has seen” refers to something that occurred in the past and is continuing to occur now. Therefore, the past continuous does not accurately show the same time period as the other verb in the sentence.

25

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice A is the best answer because the claim at the end of the sentence is that “the financial advantage is clear.” Choice A supports that claim because it gives a specific reason of a “financial advantage” or “benefit relating to money”: a food truck costs significantly less in startup costs.

Choice B is incorrect because the claim refers to money, not location. Choice C is incorrect because there is no mention of the number of servers needed to staff a food truck, so it is unclear whether there is a financial advantage related to hiring fewer servers. Choice D is incorrect because the claim does not refer to reputation or customer satisfaction.

26

Content: punctuation

Choice C is the best answer because “a successful…base” and “Kogi…hot dogs” are both independent clauses, so they should be divided by a semicolon. In addition, “a popular Los Angeles-based food truck owned by Roy Choi” is an appositive that renames the subject, “Kogi,” so it should be divided from the main clause with a comma at the start and end.

Choice A is incorrect because a comma after “base” turns the sentence into a comma splice. In addition, a dash after “Kogi” erroneously divides the two halves of the sentence. It does not indicate the start of the appositive because an appositive must be divided from the sentence with the same punctuation at the start and end. Since there is a comma after “Choi,” there needs to be a comma in front of “a popular.” Choices B and D are incorrect because there is no comma after “Kogi,” so it is unclear that “a popular…Choi” is an explanation of that word. In addition, Choice D is incorrect because a colon is used to add more information to explain a main idea. However, in the context, Kogi is an example rather than a clarification.

27

Content: possession and possessive pronouns

Choice A is the best answer because the underlined portion is a pronoun that needs to show that the hot dogs belong to the food truck, Kogi. Choice A does so because it is a singular possessive pronoun.

None of the other choices indicates possession of the hot dogs. Choice B is a contraction for “they are.” Choice C is an adverb of place. Choice D is a contraction for “it is.”

28

Content: style and tone

Choice B is the best answer because it is a neutral expression that indicates that the customers are very enthusiastic about eating the food. It fits the descriptive, relatively formal tone established by the rest of the passage.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they do not fit the professional tone of the passage. Choices A and C are too casual, “hyper” and “crazed” also contain a negative image that makes it appear that the customers are stupid or inappropriate in their actions. Choice D is very stilted and not completely accurate because “insatiable” means that the customers are impossible to satisfy. However, it is implied that they are satisfied by eating the food.

29

Content: logical sequence

Choice B is the best answer because sentence 5 contains a specific claim that food trucks can move to find customers depending on the time of day, as opposed to restaurants which are fixed in place. This idea fits best after the general claim in sentence 1 that food trucks can reach a broader market. It also fits well before sentence 2, which introduces a specific example of a food truck that moves to find customers.

All of the other choices interrupt the logical flow of the paragraph. Choice A places a general claim about moving to find customers after a specific example. Choices C and D interrupt the specific discussion of Choi’s truck with a broad claim about food trucks in general.

30

Content: punctuation

Choice B is the best answer because the main clause contains a subject (Kim Pham, Philip Shen, and Terri Phillips), verb (write), and object (“that food trucks offer chefs the chance to do “one thing and do it well”). “Authors of Food Truck Road Trip—A Cookbook” is an appositive which adds more information about the subject. Appositives need to be divided from the main clause with a comma at both ends. There is no need for any other punctuation in the underlined portion.

Choices A and D are incorrect because they do not have a comma after “Cookbook” to show where the appositive ends and the main clause resumes. Choices C and D are incorrect because there should not be a comma after “write,” dividing the verb from its object. Choice D also is incorrect because the title of the book should not be in parentheses; it divides the explanation of what type of authors the subjects are.

31

Content: sentence combination

Choice D is the best answer because it concisely combines the original sentences while retaining their original meaning. The contrast of “what might seem like…is in fact” establishes that the “limitation” is really an opportunity.

Choice A is incorrect because “when this limitation is…” makes “this” into a real limitation that has some opportunities attached. This interpretation changes the meaning because the original sentences say that there is actually no limitation at all. Furthermore, the repetition of “limitation” is not necessary and makes the sentence harder to follow. Choice B changes the meaning so that others think that the budding chef is limited. The original sentences, by contrast, indicate that the chef considers the truck a limitation. Choice C is incorrect because the repetition of “limitation” is unnecessary, and the switch from “this” to “that” makes the referent unclear. Furthermore, like Choice A, the “limitation” is real rather than something that is perceived but not really there.

32

Content: pronouns

Choice C is the best answer because it concisely describes who the subject of the sentence is. Choice C clearly shows that Scott Tremonti is one of the people who used the experience operating food trucks to establish his own restaurant.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no antecedent to show who “he” is. Choice B is incorrect because not only does “him” not have an antecedent, it is a pronoun that is used as an object. The underlined portion, however, is the subject of the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because “who” is the subject of a dependent clause, so the following portion cannot stand on its own as a sentence.

33

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice A is the best answer because an idea from the first sentence is that people line up at food trucks but do not sit down at tables. This idea is referred to by saying that people now can relax while eating the pizza, implying that they can sit down at tables. It also shows the passage’s main topic of the appeal of food trucks by saying that Tremonti still occasionally uses his truck, even though he has a permanent restaurant. The reason is one given in the passage as why food trucks are convenient: he can go to different places where the customers are.

Choice B is incorrect because the passage is about food trucks, but there is no indication that the Alamo Drafthouse started as a food truck. Choices C and D are incorrect because they discuss the permanent restaurant, so do not highlight any benefits or appeal of food trucks.

34

Content: punctuation

Choice B is the best answer because “a variety of sound and chemical signals” is the object of the sentence. All of the words are needed to explain what the ants use to communicate, so they should not be divided from each other with any punctuation.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they divide parts of the object of the sentence from each other. Choices A and C are incorrect because a colon and single dash should only follow an independent clause, but the preceding portion cannot stand on its own as a sentence.

35

Content: pronouns

Choice A is the best answer because it is a plural pronoun, so accurately refers to the plural antecedent, “these signals.”

Choices B and C can be eliminated because they are singular, so cannot be used to refer to a plural subject. Choice D is incorrect because the antecedent is “these signals,” so the pronoun should remain the same, “these,” rather than switch to the more distant “those.”

36

Content: misplaced modifier

Choice C is the best answer because “Hoping to learn about the adaptations that allow these infiltrations” is an action done by scientists studying the ants. Therefore, it should be directly followed by the subject it refers to. In Choice C, “entomologists” refers to scientists who study insects, so it accurately explains who does the hoping.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because the modifier about hoping refers to the incorrect subject. In Choice A, the modifier refers to “a mode of ant communication.” In Choice B, it refers to “the focus,” and in Choice D it refers to “the beetles.”

37

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice D is the best answer because the topic of the paragraph is about how P. favieri mimic P. pallidula stridulations. The paragraph introduces a study to determine what stridulations the ants reacted to and which they ignored. Choice D introduces this topic by explaining that both ant and beetles make stridulations. The reader understands what the sounds are and how they are made, so the following discussion of using stridulations to invade makes sense.

Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not discuss where the ants or beetles live, so Choice A presents a loosely related detail. The passage is about the sounds rather than regional variations. Choice B is incorrect because, while the passage is discussing how beetles infiltrate the nests, the method is using sounds. Choice B only says that the nests are guarded; it does not explain how regular ants get through. It also does not prepare the reader with an understanding of what stridulations are. Choice C is incorrect because it refers to “several means” of infiltrating but the passage only describes one, the use of stridulations.

38

Content: syntax

Choice C is the best answer because “while” turns the following portion into a time phrase. It shows that the act of mimicking stridulations occurs at the same time as the infiltration of the colony.

Choice A is incorrect because “to” should be followed by an infinitive verb. “To be” does not show an action, it shows a state of existence (such as an emotion). Choice B is incorrect because “for” and “to” both show a purpose, so both are not needed at the same point of the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because “among” does not work with a singular noun, “colony.” “Among” is used to show that the subject is surrounded by many separate things.

39

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice C is the best answer because it means to form a theory without specific evidence. That meaning fits the context of saying that the scientists formed a theory about the sounds being used by beetles to infiltrate the ant colony. The following paragraph describes a study that tests or searches for proof in support of the hypothesis that the scientists made.

None of the other choices effectively shows that the scientists came up with an untested theory. All of the other choices meas “think deeply,” but do not show that there is any result of the thinking. They do not show that a theory was formed.

40

Content: parallelism

Choice A is the best answer because the underlined portion is one of two verb phrases joined by “and” that shows what the P. favieri used the sounds to do. The second thing, which is outside of the underlined portion, is “to assume a role familiar to P. pallidula.” Choice A concisely maintains the parallelism, “to avoid being detected as predators.”

Choices B and D are incorrect because it changes the grammatical structure so the action of the underlined portion is being performed by the ants rather than by the P. favieri. Choice C is incorrect because “the role of” indicates that the beetles are not actually predators, they are only assuming a “role” or “appearance” of being a predator. Therefore, it does not accurately describe what the P. favieri do.

41

Content: graphics

Choice C is the best answer because the graph shows the rate of responses by worker ants; the data is given on the y-axis using a mean number of responses per 10 minutes. The X axis shows two “specific behaviors,” “walking” and “guarding.” Therefore, the researchers were monitoring the number of times that the ants made these behaviors when different sounds were played.

Choices A and D are incorrect because the only sounds shown in the graph were recordings. The responses that the scientists documented are actions—walking and guarding—not sounds. Choice B is incorrect because there is no indication about how queen ants responded in the graph. There is only information about how worker ants responded to noises similar to those generated by a queen ant.

42

Content: graphics

Choice D is the best answer because the sentence is referring to the “rate of response among the worker ants for the behavior of walking toward the speaker.” This data is given in set of columns on the left, marked “walking.” “White noise” is the dark blue column on the far right of this set of columns. The top of the dark blue column is about 7 on the y-axis. Every other set of noises emitted in the columns for “walking” are much taller (above a rate of 20 on the 7-axis), meaning a greater rate of response, than the blue column for white noise.

All of the other choices are incorrect because all of the tested scenarios, not just specific stridulations “elicited” or “resulted in” a greater rate of walking responses.

43

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice B is the best answer because “that” turns the following portion into a relative clause that describes the previous noun, “a refined acoustical adaptation.”

Choices A and D are incorrect because they form a comma splice between two independent clauses. Choice C is incorrect because the comma makes the following portion, “exploiting…” refer to the subject of the sentence rather than the preceding noun. As a result, exploiting ant behaviors seems to be an action of the scientists rather than of the acoustical adaptation.

44

Content: transitions

Choice D is the best answer because the previous information is that P. favieti have developed acoustical adaptations that exploit ant behavior. The following information is that other insects infiltrate ant nests, so scientists wonder if those also have acoustical adaptations. Choice D uses “also,” which highlights the point of similarity, the “infiltration” of the nest.

Choices A and B are incorrect because “however” and “by contrast” are used to show a point of difference, but the behaviors are similar rather than different. Choice C is incorrect because “therefore” is used to show a result or consequence, but the observation of other insects is not a consequence of the acoustical adaptations of P. favieti.

1

Choice A is the best answer because the narrator suspects that Miss Marsalles is “simply getting too old” (line 17) to continue the local tradition of a piano recital, yet the old woman still “upholds” or “continues” them. The narrator indicates that “conditions” or “circumstances” have changed over the years: the location has changed to a small house “on Bala Street” (line 14) and there have been problems such as no place to put wet coats and no way to open windows (lines 41-48, “They remember…nosebleed”). The former and current students still attend the recitals, but the narrator wonders if they should: “their instincts for doing the right thing have become confused” (lines 67-68). In other words, she wonders if they should uphold the tradition of attending recitals which are not like those in the past.

Choice B is incorrect because, while the passage indicates that most of Miss Marsalles’s current students are children of former students, there is no discussion of whether piano was a “favorite” activity of the parents or whether parents should encourage the children to do the same activities that the parents enjoy. Choice C is incorrect because the narrator never says that promises should be kept under any condition; she only says that her mother always feels obligated to go. There is also no discussion of “inappropriate” or “socially unacceptable” behavior because of keeping the promise of attending. There have been problems at the parties, but those are accidents rather than intentional breaches of etiquette. Choice D is incorrect because, while a move to a smaller house on an unknown street indicates that Miss Marsalles may have “hardships” or financial difficulties, the narrator does not say she should try to change her situation. She wonders if the parties should continue, but does not suggest that Miss Marsalles should try to find a larger venue, more students, or other such changes to remedy the problems.

2

Choice C is the best answer because the narrator does not just report the actions of the people around herself, she analyzes the motivations for the actions. For example, she sees right through Miss Marsalles’s façade of being very socially active in her parenthetical asides in lines 1-3 (“out of…recital”) and lines 22-27 (“so far…Family Dinners"). That Miss Marsalles does not realize her inability to hold a good concert is questioned in the second paragraph (lines 18-36, “Now? ask…be there”). The mother’s desire to avoid the parties is clearly portrayed by explaining that she is making excuses about not going and calling her friend to “commiserate for a while” (line 39). Even the lack of interest from other former students is indicated by noting that “every June reveals some new and surely significant dropping-out” (lines 61-63).

Choice A is incorrect because we learn very little about the narrator from her discussion, so she does not “focus” or “pay most attention” to herself. She “reports” or “talks about” her mother’s reaction to being invited to a party she does not want to attend. Choice B is incorrect because the narrator does not discuss her “everyday life” or “activities she does routinely.” Instead, she is describing other people’s reactions to an activity which occurs once a year. There is no evidence that the things she points out are “exaggerations” or “more dramatic than the truth.” Choice D is incorrect because “nuances” refers to “subtle details.” However, the narrator makes very pointed observations about the motivations and responses of the people around her. Her view is not “limited” or “restricted”; it is very insightful.

3

Choice D is the best answer because an “idealistic view” is one which makes the profession seem more perfect or important than it really is. Choice D gives a quote which shows that Miss Marsalles believes children will not be able to survive without music because they “need” it. Therefore, Choice D shows that Miss Marsalles views her profession of teaching music as essential to children’s welfare rather than just a fun hobby.

Choice A, if anything, casts doubt on the claim that Miss Marsalles’s view of her profession is “idealistic.” The comment that she might call the recitals parties “out of musical integrity,” or “to preserve the value of music,” hints that maybe Miss Marsalles knows that her students are not learning to play well. That means that maybe instead of being “idealistic” or “striving for perfection,” she is just teaching to earn money. Choice B is incorrect because it only describes Miss Marsalles’s poor situation; it does not provide evidence about how she views music at all. Choice C is incorrect because it refers to the parties but not how Miss Marsalles views her profession.

4

Choice C is the best answer because the reason that the mother is trying to think of a lie is to provide an excuse to avoid going to the party. However, the narrator claims, “the excuses which occur to her are obviously second-rate” (lines 4-5), meaning that the excuses are “not believable.” Even the mother knows this, which is why she doesn’t use the excuses, she just asks whether the party will be “too much trouble” (line 8). Therefore, the mother is “unskilled” or “not good” at lying. “Deception” is another word for “lying” or “trying to cause someone to believe something that is not true.”

Choice A is incorrect because the mother does not use any of her lies to get out of the party. Therefore, the comment that she does not lie well is not used to show that she tricks people regularly. Choice B is incorrect because it refers to someone who is completely truthful all the time. However, the mother is trying to lie to get out of the party, which means that she probably would use one if she could think of a good one. Choice D is incorrect because “guarded” refers to “not showing” how one feels. The mother tries not to offend Miss Marsalles, but shares her feelings with her friend Marg and shows her feelings to her daughter, “she turns her face from the telephone with that look of irritation—as if she had seen something messy which she was unable to clean up—which is her private expression of pity” (lines 30-33).

5

Choice D is the best answer because the mother says that the parties might be “too much trouble” (line 8), and the narrator follows that comment by indicating that there are several “troubles” that the mother could be referring to (lines 8-10, “now being…your choice”). The first suggestion about a “trouble” is that the past several parties have been in a house that is too small and uncomfortable, and now Miss Marsalles lives in an even smaller place: “Now that Miss Marsalles has moved from the brick and frame bungalow on Bank Street, where the last three parties have been rather squashed, to an even smaller place—if she has described it correctly—on Bala Street” (lines 10-14).

Choice A is incorrect because the mother does not suggest that Miss Marsalles is “fabricating” or “making up” details about the party. Miss Marsalles just thinks that people appreciate the party more than they really do. Choice B is incorrect because there is no indication that the mother actually has any activities planned. “She knows she will be there” (lines 35-36) suggest that she has nothing pressing that will occupy her time enough to prevent her from attending. Choice C is incorrect because, while Miss Marsalles is old, there is no suggestion that her health may decline in the next two weeks.

6

Choice B is the best answer because the repetition of “Now?” is the response to the mother’s comment, “Oh, but won’t all that be too much trouble, now?” (lines 7-8). The narrator explains the various things that could be included in that phrase: a smaller house, Miss Marsalles’ sister’s stroke, and Miss Marsalles’ advanced age. However, Miss Marsalles repeats the word with “mystification” (line 19), as if she doesn’t understand why holding a party would be too much trouble, even given her “present circumstances” or “current situation.”

Choice A is incorrect because the “now” does not refer to the exact time that the speakers are having their telephone conversation; it is referring to the trouble of holding a party this year. Choice C is incorrect because there is no reference to an “immediate commitment” or “agreement to participate at once.” She expects her students will show up and doesn’t imagine any problems that would prevent them from doing so. Choice D is incorrect because the mother does not discuss the location; the narrator does. Therefore, Miss Marsalles’s response does not relate to the comments about her home. She does not say that it is better or worse than the previous one.

7

Choice B is the best answer because the questions are asking whether anyone else will attend and why some students no longer participate. These question show “anxiety” or “worry” about the situation. Every year fewer people participate and they are becoming “troubled” or “concerned” about whether they are doing the right thing by attending.

Choice A is incorrect because the characters are not concerned that they “misunderstood” or “did not hear correctly” the details of the invitation. They are sure that they were invited at a certain date and time. Choice C is incorrect because the characters have given attention to the problem of the party, but don’t know what to do about it. Choice D is incorrect because the characters know why the families made the change of not attending: they did not want to continue music lessons and concerts with Miss Marsalles. Their concern is whether they should make the same change.

8

Choice D is the best answer because Joan Crimble’s daughter no longer takes music lessons (lines 61-64, “every June…Joan Crimble’s”). This implies that she does not find the lessons worthwhile for her daughter.