The year of 2018

1

Choice A is the best answer because the passage focuses on the problems that caused Anne and Captain Wentworth’s engagement to be broken off. Although the young pair wanted to be together, Anne’s father and Lady Russell strongly opposed the relationship, and even Anne’s sisters would not comment in support of it. Succumbing to her relatives’ pressure, Anne breaks off the engagement, but both she and Captain Wentworth are upset to the point where he leaves the country and she becomes ill. Therefore, the relationship caused problems whether they were together or apart.

Choice B is incorrect because the passage never says that Anne’s father and Lady Russell are in error for convincing her to break off the relationship. Choice C is incorrect because the relationship fails, not because of a lack of common interests, but because others felt that it was an inappropriate alliance. Choice D is incorrect because the deepening of the friendship into love is only briefly mentioned in the passage; the bulk of the text is about why Lady Russell feels that the relationship is not a good one.

2

Choice D is the best answer because the quote is referring to the fact that even if they had only half of the qualities they had in common, the relationship would still have formed. Therefore, the quote is implying that it was predestined that they would fall in love.

Choice A is incorrect because “lavish” is referring to the abundance personal endowments which are similar, not to gifts to each other. Choice B is incorrect because the quote does not refer at all to what the couple thinks of others. Choice C is incorrect because the quote is not referring to success, but to traits in common.

3

Choice B is the best answer because in the context, “exquisite” is referring to the very short period of felicity, or intense happiness, that the couple felt. Following that period is a time when their relationship is questioned, and they are no longer happy. “Exquisite” therefore highlights the strength of their happiness during that short time.

None of the other choices are as strong in the context. Choice A means “complicated,” but the happiness was pure and simple. Choice C means “subtle” or “fragile,” and although the happiness was later broken, during the period it was very strong and not understated. Choice D means “stylish,” but there is no indication of any interest in fashion.

4

Choice B is the best answer because Lady Russell felt that a mother should prevent Anne’s engagement, but since Anne did not have a mother, she should fill that role. The passage points out that Anne respected Lady Russell’s opinion enough to end the relationship, so it is clear that Lady Russell did have Anne’s love and trust.

Choice A is incorrect because Lady Russell does not doubt that the couple love each other; she only doubts that the relationship will be beneficial. Choice C is incorrect because there is no evidence in the passage that Lady Russell thinks that no one else can influence Anne; she just feels that she is obliged to try. Choice D is incorrect because Lady Russell feels that Anne should marry someone with good connections and prospects, but not necessarily from a certain region.

5

Choice B is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Lady Russell felt that she was obligated to intervene in Anne’s relationship. Choice B says that Lady Russell was convinced that a mother should stop that relationship, and since Anne did not have a mother, then it was Lady Russell’s role as a person Anne loved like a mother to do so.

Choice A is incorrect because it refers only to Lady Russell’s impression of what would happen to the couple, not to what she felt she needed to do. Choices C and D refer to Lady Russell’s dislike of Captain Wentworth and the relationship, but not to why she felt compelled to interfere.

6

Choice D is the best answer because “realized” is used in the context of financial transactions. The paragraph says Captain Wentworth had earned a lot of money but spent it. Therefore, he did not “gain” any money as the net result of his transactions.

All of the other choices are definitions of “realized” but do not fit the context. Choices A and C are variations of “understood,” but Wentworth understood what profit was, he just did not earn any. Choice B means “imagine,” but it is very likely that Wentworth could imagine a profit; he just did not have any.

7

Choice C is the best answer because the sentence points out that Anne could have resisted her father’s objections but could not resist Lady Russell’s. Since the objections to her relationship are brought up in other parts of the passage, this fact is the most important information added by the sentence.

Choice A is incorrect because the sentence says that Anne was willing to continue her relationship despite her sister’s lack of any approval. Choice B is incorrect because there is no indication that Lady Russell exploited her relationship with Anne, only that she continued to press her own viewpoint. Choice D is incorrect because, while Lady Russell did find the engagement improper, the sentence does not introduce or focus on that topic.

8

Choice A is the best answer because the passage says that Anne consoled herself by saying that it was in Captain Wentworth’s poorest interest to stay together, even though they loved each other. She ended the relationship for his best interest rather than for her own purposes.

Choice B is incorrect because the passage indicates that Lady Russell had more influence over Anne than her father did, and that Anne could have possibly resisted her father’s objections if it were not for Lady Russell. Choice C is incorrect because the lovers needed “consoling” when the relationship was ended, and Anne became unwell and Captain Wentworth left the country. Choice D is incorrect because, while the ending of the engagement may have been an outcome that Captain Wentworth did not anticipate, Anne did not terminate the engagement because he couldn’t anticipate it.

9

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Anne terminated the engagement based on a perception of Captain Wentworth’s poorest interest. Choice C says that Anne gave up the relationship because she denied her happiness for his advantage; in other words, because she thought his best interests were most important.

Choice A does not say why Anne terminated the engagement, only that she could not resist certain opposition. Choice B gives Anne’s new belief about the relationship but does not explain why she finally decided to end it. Choice D only explains that Captain Wentworth was angry at the decision.

10

Choice A is the best answer because Lady Russell based a large portion of her objection to the relationship on the fact that she thought Anne would lose vitality. However, the sentence is ironic because it shows that Anne lost vitality as a result of ending the engagement. In other words, Lady Russell inadvertently created the situation she was trying to avoid.

Choice B is incorrect because Anne’s sister’s opinion is not related to Anne’s lack of vitality. Choice C is incorrect because, although the passage does say that Captain Wentworth was confident about good fortune, the final sentence is about Anne. If Wentworth were despondent, it could be considered slightly ironic. Choice D is incorrect because Anne’s illness is not in contrast to any belief about who ended the engagement.

11

Choice A is the best answer because the passage tries to correct the view that disfluencies such as “um” are detrimental to good communication. It does so by giving several examples of how and why disfluencies are important, such as focusing speech and alerting listeners to important points.

Choice B is incorrect because the passage says that disfluencies should not be corrected; though considered a problem, they are important to communication. Choice C is incorrect because the social roots of disfluencies are not discussed, only the mental processing reason for making such noises. Choice D is incorrect because the passage does not suggest that any change from normal speaking patterns should be made.

12

Choice C is the best answer because the sentence is comparing interpretations of disfluencies; one is a “feature” of natural speech, the other interpretation is a character flaw. Since Choice C means “part,” it fits the context that disfluencies are a part or aspect of speech.

None of the other choices fit the context as well. Choice A means “reason,” but disfluencies are not a reason for speech, they are a part of it. Choice B means “an account,” but disfluencies are not a written record of speech. Choice D is incorrect because it refers to the visual impressions of something.

13

Choice B is the best answer because the writer is using the analogy of a tape player to clearly illustrate how the mind works. Tapes record a complete idea than repeat it word for word, but people do not.

Choice A is incorrect because the lines refer to how a sentence could be thought up and then spoken, but do not delve into the length of time the process takes. Choices C and D are incorrect because the tape analogy is used to emphasize differences from speech rather than similarities or influences.

14

Choice D is the best answer because in the context, “sense” is used to show that people start a sentence, but only have a vague impression of how the sentence will end. Since “idea” refers to a thought about a possible action, it fits the context of having only a vague thought about how to end the sentence.

None of the other choices fits the context as well because they do not relate to predicting the end of a sentence. Choice A refers to practical knowledge based on what a person has undergone. Choice B means “come in contact with.” Choice C means “the importance.”

15

Choice D is the best answer because it shows a direct correlation between social context and disfluencies: people make more mistakes in public settings and when trying to select the correct words.

Choices A and B to how people create sentences but does not explain how those sentences change with different social situations. Choice C indicates the purpose of a disfluency but does not indicate that social situations alter their use.

16

Choice A is the best answer because the passage says that people tend to make disfluencies during pauses while arranging thoughts to deliver important information, so a disfluency clues the listener that the upcoming information might be more important.

All of the other points may be inadvertent effects of disfluencies, but they are not directly discussed in the passage. Choice B is incorrect because disfluencies do not moderate pace; they fill gaps in an established pace. Choices C and D are incorrect because there is no discussion of waning interest or relatability.

17

Choice B is the best answer because it specifically paraphrases the correct answer to the preceding question, which is that disfluencies inadvertently help because they inform the listener that important information is about to come.

Choice A only says why disfluencies occur. Choice C says that disfluencies help listeners remember words but does not indicate how that relates to cluing the listener into important points. Choice D says that disfluencies help remember content but does not specifically refer to important points.

18

Choice C is the best answer because Fraundorf and Watson used recordings that allowed the listener to hear the exact speech with the exception of disfluencies. On the other hand, Womack studied the way disfluencies were used naturally by two different groups of speakers.

Choice A is incorrect because the number of subjects is not mentioned for either study. Choice B is incorrect because there is no detail given about what information was given to the participants before the study. Choice D is incorrect because, although Fraundorf and Watson used literary matter and Womack used scientific discussions, Womack did not manipulate the speech in any way. Instead, she analyzed the natural speech to find patterns.

19

Choice D is the best answer because the lines in the graph refer to one percentage point. The grey bar in the first column corresponds to 6 plot points for recording one, and this bar reaches the line one below 80%, or 79%.

The other answer choices all correspond to other points on the chart. Choice A is the percentage for recording 3, 6 plot points. Choice B is the percentage for recording 3, 8 plot points. Choice C is the percentage for recording 1, 8 plot points.

20

Choice B is the best answer because Figure 2 shows in the second row from the top that, as a mean, experienced physicians spoke 85.7 words, whereas residents only spoke 50.9 words when making a diagnosis.

Choice A is incorrect because the chart only refers to the length of the diagnosis and not to the time preparing it. Choice C is incorrect because the number of syllables per words is not given on the chart. Choice D is incorrect because the type or sound of the disfluencies is not described, only the total number.

21

Choice D is the best answer because the chart clearly shows that doctors used more disfluencies than residents in training by two different calculations. One is total number of disfluencies per diagnosis (6.3 and 1.9, respectively) and the other is number of disfluencies as a percentage of words (8 and 4, respectively). This data clearly supports the passage’s assertion that there is a correlation between experience and number of disfluencies.

Choices A and C are incorrect because the quality of the diagnoses is not mentioned in the chart. Choice B is incorrect because the type of sentence structure is not given in the chart.

22

Choice B is the best answer because “distinct” is used to indicate that two skulls had features that were individual enough to make scientists consider them to be from different dinosaur species. “Different” most clearly shows that the two dinosaurs were not alike.

None of the other choices fit the context as well. Choice A means “regal,” so does not relate to characteristics of different species. Choice C means “apparent,” but one dinosaur was not easier to see than the other. Choice D means “notable,” but does not include the idea of “not the same,” so does not emphasize why the dinosaurs would be considered different species.

23

Choice A is the best answer because the passage states that fusion occurs at different rates, so is not always an accurate indicator of age. It also says that dinosaurs underwent extreme changes quickly, implying that a dinosaur might have very different fusion patterns over a very short period of time.

Choice B is incorrect because the writer introduces such points as the shape of the eye orbit as being a reasonable indicator of age, implying that it is at least as valid as looking at skull fusion patterns. Choice C is incorrect because the dating method is not exact due to the rapid changes dinosaurs undergo. Choice D is incorrect because the passage implies that the method has some value for determining the growth stage, but analyzing fused bones is not to be considered definitive for determining exact age.

24

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that it can be inferred from the passage that the method of determining approximate age based on fusion in a dinosaur skull is somewhat uncertain. Choice C directly states that fusion occurs at different rates so may not indicate age well.

Choice A only says a skull was found; it does not refer to age at all. Choice B only says that evidence was based on fusion of skull bones; if anything, the statement would imply that estimates based the fusion of skull bones are possibly accurate. Choice D says dinosaurs underwent changes but does not address the topic of fusion of skull bones.

25

Choice B is the best answer because “variable” is given as one reason it is hard to determine the age of a dinosaur based on its bones. The example illustrating “variable” is making dramatic changes from delicate juveniles to bulky adults. Since Choice B means “showing great variety,” that fits the context of many different shapes and sizes of dinosaur.

None of the other choices fits the context of the passage. Choice A refers to changing to fit different circumstances, but the passage only refers to changes due to growth. Choice C means “not defined,” but the following example of juveniles and adults gives specific examples of defined growth stages. Choice D means “capricious,” but the dinosaurs do not choose to change, they go through a specific series of changes from juvenile to adult.

26

Choice A is the best answer because the passage begins with the statement that “another skull and partial skeleton” were found, implying that not only did Jane’s skull remain, other sections of her skeleton did, too. The passage continues to say Jane “is better preserved than the earlier 1940s specimen” (lines 51-52).

Choice B is incorrect because there is no indication that the two skeletons came from different geological "eras" or "time periods." If anything, the passage implies that the era was the same. Choice C is incorrect because the passage refers to information derived from Jane’s leg bones, implying that the more complete skeleton is easier to classify. Choice D is incorrect because both skeletons were from Montana.

27

Choice C is the best answer because it says that Jane was estimated to be 11 years old, so the conclusion was that she was a juvenile. Therefore, it is most likely that a dinosaur younger than Jane, 10, would also be a juvenile.

Choice A is incorrect because it does not refer to the age of the dinosaur. Choice B only describes a method of estimating age. Choice D only says that Jane’s remains are intermediate in age.

28

Choice D is the best answer because the argument in the final paragraph is that the common features between Jane’s skull and the 1940s skull are due to the dinosaurs being juveniles rather than the dinosaurs being of a new species. One of the common features that is not found in adult tyrannosaurs but present in those two specimens is a long, low snout. Therefore, if adults are found to have that feature, then the argument that it is a trait only found in juveniles is weakened.

Choice A is incorrect because the argument is based on similarities, not differences, between the skulls. Choice B is incorrect because the presence of holes in other dinosaurs might prove whether or not it is a “juvenile” trait. Choice C would strengthen rather than weaken the argument in the final paragraph.

29

Choice D is the best answer because both passages point to the probability that the two skulls in question are T. rex rather than a new species. The passages discuss various reasons based on paleontological finds in favor of that argument.

Choice A is incorrect because neither passage contests that the view is resolved; the passages leave room for interpretation based on the discovery of more evidence. Choice C is incorrect because both passages conclude that the skulls probably belong to T. rex rather than a new species. Choice C is incorrect because, although both passages refer to the works of Carr, they do not “celebrate” or overly praise his contributions.

30

Choice A is the best answer because, while the passages do not say it is impossible for Nanotyrranus to have existed, they say that there is no conclusive evidence showing that it did exist. All of the unique features could be explained as being those belonging to a juvenile T. rex.

Choices B and D are incorrect because the passage does not say that it was either impossible or necessary for another dinosaur to coexist with T. rex; both passages appear to accept that it was a possibility but not a requirement. Choice C is incorrect because neither passage makes predictions about the nature of skulls found in the future; they just indicate that finding such skulls might help resolve the question of identification.

31

Choice C is the best answer because Carr’s findings—that Jane was probably a juvenile—are introduced to show why the bones are probably from a T. rex and not a new species, Nanotyrranus. In other words, the evidence is used to refute the previous claim that there was a new species.

Choice A is incorrect because the behavior of dinosaurs is not discussed; only physical features are compared. Choice B is incorrect because Passage 1 does not mention growth rings at all. Choice D is incorrect because, while Passage 1 indicates that the skull fusion methodology may have been lacking, Passage 2 does not criticize previous methods at all. It only brings up new evidence.

32

Choice A is the best answer because the first paragraph concisely says that the letter dated the 12th was received. The paragraph then summarizes the contents: news that McCullough will take control and protect of the Indian Territory governed by Ross.

Choice B is incorrect because there is no indication of who Ross is in the first paragraph that might act as an introduction. In addition, Ross later refers to a previous conversation, showing that the men know each other. Choice C is incorrect because Ross is writing “by the first return mail” (lines 1-2), which means that he is using the first opportunity available to send the reply. Choice D is incorrect because there is no mention in the first paragraph of sharing the content of the letter with others.

33

Choice B is the best answer because the first sentence of the second paragraph (lines 16-20) clearly state that Ross plans to avoid participating in the war and has told his people to follow the same course of action.

Choice A is incorrect because Ross refers to the legal code to point out why neutrality is important; he does not suggest changing it. Choice C is incorrect because Ross does not tell the Cherokees to compare other policies, though he himself may have looked at other precedents. Choice D is incorrect because Ross does not discuss what will happen to others who take sides; he only suggests that it is unwise to take sides.

34

Choice B is the best answer because it directly says that the Cherokee people did not bring about the war, nor do they have any reason to become involved in it. This statement clearly signifies why Ross feels that the war does not relate to his people.

Choice A says why Ross feels that a certain course is important but does not on its own explain what that course is. Choice C relates to Ross’s opinion about individuals taking a different stance than the whole group. Choice D refers to a hypothetical case where others invade the Cherokee Territory rather than the situation with the war.

35

Choice C is the best answer because in lines 30-34, Ross describes that “no matter how small” the country is, the people should take pride in it.

None of the other choices are supported by direct evidence from the passage. Choice A is incorrect because Ross does not equate military prowess with pride. Choice B is incorrect because, though Ross appears to value integrity highly, he does not explicitly say so. Choice D is incorrect because there is no mention of a nation’s age in association with pride.

36

Choice B is the best answer because Ross points out that the Cherokee Nation has been established through laws and treaties with the US government, so the Cherokees must be careful not to infringe on those obligations. At the same time, they do not want to antagonize their neighbors in the Confederacy.

Choice A is incorrect because the Cherokees will not maintain the military companies, the Confederacy will; they will just allow the companies on their property. Choice C is incorrect because Ross stresses that there is no need for the Cherokees to get involved in the military conflicts. Choice D is incorrect because there is no reference to contradictions in the Cherokee government; the contradictions are balancing the Cherokee beliefs with the conflicts raging around them.

37

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the current political situation has placed the Cherokees in the predicament of balancing its obligations to the US government with its goodwill towards the people of the Confederacy. Choice C best provides evidence in support of that claim because it explicitly states details of the precarious balance that the Cherokees must take: they need to be hospitable to the South but not antagonize the North or violate any of the laws or treaties.

Choice A is incorrect because it only explains that the Cherokees have pride in their nation; it does not discuss any predicament due to the war. Choice B is incorrect because it does not describe a predicament caused by the war, only Ross’s desire to avoid problems for his people. Choice C implies that balance is needed but does not directly say what the predicament is.

38

Choice A is the best answer because in the context, “assuming” refers to taking on a certain attitude, in this case, avoiding hostility towards the US. Since Choice A means “choose to follow a certain action,” it fits with the idea of following the attitude of neutrality.

None of the other choices are as suitable in the context. Choice B includes the idea of acting in a way that one does not believe in, but Ross believes in the attitude of avoiding hostility. Choice C includes the idea of taking something from someone else to use and return later. Choice D means to “suppose based on probability” rather than to believe in.

39

Choice D is the best answer because “demand” hints at an order or rude request, so by using the word, Ross points out that McCullough’s request is overreaching the bounds of acceptable. “Respectfully declined” highlights a contrast in attitude by showing that Ross, rather than being equally antagonistic in return, is gracious and considerate in his dealings.

Choice A is incorrect because, while “respectfully declined” softens the refusal, there is no hint of ambivalence in Ross’s stance. Choice B is incorrect because Ross tries to maintain a friendly tone throughout the passage and “respectfully declined” is soft rather than harsh. Choice C is incorrect because Ross takes full responsibility for his decision and could potentially provoke displeasure with the strong word, “demand.”

40

Choice A is the best answer because Ross’s second point (lines 70-74) against the organization of militias is that creating militias would cause “internal difficulties among the Cherokee people.”

Choice B is incorrect because, although Ross suggests that the militias violate current treaties, he does not say that new treaties would need to be created. Choices C and D are incorrect because there is no evidence in the passage referring to trade or finances in relation to the formation of militias.

41

Choice B is the best answer because the cited words refer to disagreement. A “misapprehension” is a polite way to say, “an erroneous belief,” and “I hope you will allow” is a polite way to say, “please do XX.” Therefore, Ross is politely pointing out a problem with the proposed plan.

Choice A is incorrect because “affectionate” means “friendly,” and if anything, the statements are coldly formal. Choice C is incorrect because Ross is not expressing sorrow, he is expressing his firm refusal to a suggestion. Choice D is incorrect because, while Ross is dismissing the proposal, he is being exceedingly polite rather than scornful.

42

Choice C is the best answer because the passage compares the amount of armor and defenses between marine and lake sticklebacks and proposes several reasons for the difference. The passage also includes a detailed study of the fossils from one lake, and the author explains the evolutionary changes when marine sticklebacks were introduced into the lake environment.

Choice A is incorrect because the defenses do not make the sticklebacks better predators; the defenses protect sticklebacks from predators. Choice B is incorrect because, while the passage does say that marine environments usually have more predators, that is a minor point to emphasize the reason for changes in evolutionary development. Choice D is incorrect because the passage only discusses two defenses, spines and armor, and how those defenses change over time. The passage does not introduce “a wide range” of other defenses.

43

Choice D is the best answer because it explicitly says that there are a huge number of stickleback fossils that offer an “unparalleled paleontological record of change.” Choice D therefore supports the idea that fossils can help scientists learn about change over time.

Choice A merely states that there are differences between fish; it does not say what can be learned from fossils. Choice B also does not refer to fossils, only to changing water levels. Choice C only discusses variations between inland fish.

44

Choice A is the best answer because lines 14-15 directly state that the armor plates protect sticklebacks when predators try to bite.

Choice B is incorrect because the spines, not the plates, make the fish difficult to swallow. Choice C is incorrect because the armor helps prevent against predators, not create aggression in the stickleback. Choice D is incorrect because the armor plates tend to be an evolutionary disadvantage in freshwater.

45

Choice B is the best answer because “extent” refers to a lessening of the damage from predator bites. Since Choice B means “level,” it accurately shows that the amount of damage is lower if the stickleback has armor.

None of the other choices fits as well in the context. Choice A refers to the length of time rather than the overall level of damage. Choices C and D refers to the physical size of the injury, but they do not convey any indication of whether the size alters the internal damage sustained by the stickleback.

46

Choice D is the best answer because “common” refers to the number of predators that a stickleback runs into in the ocean as opposed to in a freshwater lake; the passage goes on to explain that there are more predators in the ocean.

None of the other choices fits the context as well, though they are alternate definitions of “common.” Choice A is incorrect because the predators are not of lesser status in the ocean. Choice B is incorrect because the predators are not divided into even units. Choice C is incorrect because “common” refers to frequency rather than appearance.

47

Choice C is the best answer because the passage says that sticklebacks that entered the lake had extensive armor, then through evolution, lost it over time. The passage points out that armor is a disadvantage in freshwater but is useful for defending against predators. The logical conclusion is that since there were not many predators in the lake, there was little need to pass on armor traits to offspring.

Choice A is incorrect because, due to the different conditions, less armor was needed in lakes. Choice B is incorrect because there is no reference to a change in the number of sticklebacks, only to a change in characteristics. Choice D is incorrect because it can be reasonably assumed that predators prefer unarmored sticklebacks, as it is easier to eat the unarmored ones. The unarmored ones did not flourish because there were predators present.

48

Choice C is the best answer because the quote is the last sentence of the paragraph, which describes a study that looked at the details of when fish had armor or not. It concisely summarizes the main point of the argument about the changes over time.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no criticism in the quote, which agrees with the conclusion of the study. Choice B is incorrect because the quote is not an isolated example; it is a general statement that encompasses the idea of the entire paragraph. Choice D is incorrect because there is no assertion that the study was important.

49

Choice A is the best answer because the study concludes that in freshwater environments, sticklebacks lose their armor. In addition, freshwater environments have less nutrients available for building armor or bone. Therefore, it is most likely that the armor is lost in favor of building more bone.

Choice B is incorrect because there is no reference in the passage to stickleback hunting methods. Choice C is incorrect because the passage implies that all stickleback defenses are lower in lake environments than ocean environments. Choice D is incorrect because there is no indication that later reproduction is a good thing; the passage implies that fish with earlier reproduction have a greater chance of survival.

50

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the research indicates that it is better for sticklebacks to allocate scarce resources to basic skeletal formation rather than to armor. Choice C makes a direct statement that there is “a high price” in lakes for making bony plates rather than bones. This assertion implies that the price is too high since the fish do not face many predators.

Choices A and B state that many lake-dwelling sticklebacks lack armor, but do not offer any reason why. Choice C refers to the breeding habits but not the nutritional needs of armor compared to bone.

51

Choice D is the best answer because between 0-50, only 1-spine sticklebacks are recorded, and between 200-250, only 3-spine sticklebacks are recorded. These time periods show the greatest consistency.

Choices A and C are incorrect because between 50 -100 and 150 - 200, fish with 1, 2, and 3 spines were found; at around year 55 a specimen with 0 spines was also found. Choice B is incorrect because between 100 and 150, fish with 1 and 3 spines were found.

52

Choice B is the best answer because between years 0-50, no specimens with more than one spine were found. Between years 50-180, specimens with 1, 2, or 3 spines were present. However, after about year 180, only specimens with 3 spines were present. Therefore, the later dates in the sequence were more likely to have a greater number of spines.

Choice A is incorrect because both years show only one dot. Assuming each dot refers to a single specimen, then the number is the same. Choice C is incorrect because there are more dots for 1 or 3 spines than for 2 spines. Choice D is incorrect because only 1 specimen with no dorsal spines was found, and that was about year 55.

1

Content: possession and possessive pronouns

Choice B is the best answer because it is a plural possessive pronoun, so correctly indicates that “papers” belongs to the plural “many people.”

Choice A is incorrect because it is a contraction of “they are,” so does not indicate possession. Choice C refers to place and is not a pronoun. Choice D is singular, so cannot be used to refer to the plural “many people.”

2

Content: parallelism

Choice C is the best answer because the underlined portion is one item in a list, and all items need to have the same grammatical structure. Since the other items are all nouns, “swirls,” “stars,” and “stick figures,” Choice C maintains the established pattern because it is also a noun.

All of the other choices interrupt the parallelism of the sentence because they are phrases or clauses rather than nouns.

3

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice A is the best answer because it means “discover,” so it fits the context of a psychologist trying to discover exactly how doodling affects concentration.

None of the other choices makes sense in the context. Choice B means “to label,” but before a label could be given, the relationship between doodling and concentration needed to be figured out. Choice C means “to judge” and refers to settling a dispute between people or groups. Choice D means “to order officially,” but the psychologist is not telling the doodling to affect concentration.

4

Content: misplaced modifier

Choice C is the best answer because the first part of the sentence, “informed…later,” refers to the participants. For that modifying clause to be logical, it needs to be placed directly in front of the word it modifies. Choice C makes the most sense because it begins with “the participants.”

All of the other choices are incorrect because they start the main clause with a different subject than “the participants.” The modifier “informed…later” therefore incorrectly refers to the wrong noun.

5

Content: subject-verb agreement

Choice C is the best answer because “were” is plural, so correctly agrees with the plural subject “the remaining participants.”

All of the other choices include singular verbs, so they do not properly agree with “the remaining participants.”

6

Content: transitions

Choice B is the best answer because the passage is listing the process that Andrade used during the experiment. Choice B effectively signals the next step in the sequence.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no reason to discuss Andrade’s experience in the middle of a description of the experiment; that information would best be placed at the beginning when discussing her title and workplace. Choice C is incorrect because the information paraphrases what has already been stated in the passage; it is known that she is a psychologist and is studying the effect of doodling on concentration. Choice D is incorrect because “further research” is not at all discussed in the paragraph, so it would be better to introduce the information later in the passage.

7

Content: graphics

Choice A is the best answer because it accurately reports information from the graph. The “memory score” is the third item in the rows for both “names” and “places.” The “control group” column is the first column of data. The figures are 4.0 and 1.8 respectively.

Choice B is incorrect because 0 only refers to the percent difference of false place scores, and .3 refers to the false place scores for both groups. Choice C refers to scores from the column of “percentage different” rather than to the numbers for the control group. Choice D erroneously places the decimal point for “control group, names memory score.”

8

Content: graphics

Choice D is the best answer because the point made later in the sentence is that doodling helped participants retain more information. Choice D gives accurate information from the chart to show that the total memory score, which referred to both things that were actively noted and things which were not actively noted, was significantly higher for people who doodled.

Choice A is incorrect because the given information implies that there is no difference between the recall of people who doodled and people who did not. Choice B is incorrect because it does not provide any reference between doodling and not doodling; it only refers to things which were written down or not. Choice C is weak because, although it shows that the doodling group performed less poorly, it does not emphasize that doodling helped them do better.

9

Content: transitions

Choice D is the best answer because no transition is needed for the ideas in the paragraphs to flow well.

All of the other choices are incorrect because they create illogical associations between the ideas in the passage. The previous paragraph gives statistics showing that doodling helps people concentrate, and the following paragraph says that this is true. Choice A means “in spite of the fact,” so it should not be used in the continuation of the same idea. Choice B means that two things happen simultaneously. Choice C is used to show an opposing case.

10

Content: punctuation

Choice C is the best answer because “to pinpoint…” is the reason for the study. Such a modifier should not be divided from the noun it modifies using any punctuation.

All of the other choices are incorrect because they include punctuation that separates the noun “study” from the words which specify what kind of study is being referred to.

11

Content: style and tone

Choice A is the best answer because it is a reasonably formal and neutral phrase that maintains the professional tone of the passage.

Choices B and D are incorrect because “totally” and “super” are extremely casual, so do not maintain the professional tone of the passage. Choice C is incorrect because “effortful” is casual and awkward when paired with the negating word “barely.”

12

Content: punctuation

Choice B is the best answer because the items in a list should be divided by commas, so there needs to be a comma after “size” and “texture.” No other punctuation is needed in the underlined portion.

Choices A and D are incorrect because there should be no comma separating the noun “grid” from its verb, “is.” Choice C is incorrect because there should be no comma separating “size” from its adjective, “different.” In addition, the final comma should precede rather than follow the “and” in a list.

13

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice D is the best answer because it means “an essential component,” which fits the context that describes how important color is in Whitney’s life.

None of the other choices is as logical in the context of describing the importance of color to Whitney’s life. Choice A means “clearly stated,” as opposed to “integral.” Choice B means “to establish the exact boundaries.” Choice D means “having resolve.”

14

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice C is the best answer because the entire paragraph is about the importance of color to Whitney, and about how Whitney wants the color to have meaning and depth. Choice C reinforces this idea because it says that he always worked with color, but that it took time to determine how to give it meaning.

Choice A is incorrect because it refers to the use of shapes rather than of color. Choice B is incorrect because it describes New York rather than Whitney’s art. Choice D is incorrect because it introduces music rather than emphasizes color.

15

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice B is the best answer because the preceding sentence says that Whitney’s works are not created in a vacuum, and the following sentence describes shades of orange seen in India that he used in paintings. Since Choice B refers to getting inspiration from travels, it effectively joins the ideas.

Choice A is incorrect because it refers to the critical review of his work, so does not introduce the example of where he saw colors to use in his work. Choice C is incorrect because, though it refers to travel, it does not explain why he was in India. Choice D is incorrect because the sentences around it do not refer to music, only to Whitney’s use of color and travel.

16

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice D is the best answer because “of which” is used to show that the subject of the modifier, “several,” belongs to the noun it follows, in this case, “shades of orange.”

Choices A and C are incorrect because they form a comma splice between two independent clauses. Choice B is incorrect because a semicolon needs to be followed by an independent clause.

17

Content: transitions

Choice C is the best answer because it is used to add another idea in the same topic. The paragraph is about how Whitney’s works are not developed in a vacuum, and the first part of the paragraph refers to getting inspiration from travels. Choice C transitions to a new topic of getting inspiration from music while at the same time showing that the subjects are linked.

None of the other choices effectively establishes the relationship between the parts of the paragraph. Choice A is incorrect because it indicates a contrast rather than a new idea that continues the same theme. Choices B and D are used to introduce a conclusion drawn from the previous information rather than another example.

18

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice B is the best answer because “cite” means to refer to something as a specific example. It fits the context that music is an example of something essential. “As” is standard usage to show the following is what is represented.

Choice A is incorrect because “for” introduces a reason for the citation; it is typically used to give the reason for a court summons. Choices C and D are incorrect because “site” refers to the physical location of something.

19

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice B is the best answer because “in the tradition of XX” is a standard idiom that means that the subject follows the same style as the object. If you say that something or someone is in the tradition of a person or thing from the past, you mean that they have many features that remind you of that person or thing.This fits the context that Whitney feels his art is in the same vein as other African American painters.

All of the other choices are incorrect because they deviate from the standard wording of “in the tradition of XX.”

20

Content: precision and concision

Choice C is the best answer because it concisely and professionally provides the relevant information: Whitney accepts a certain point.

Choices A and B are extremely casual and colloquial so do not fit the relatively formal tone of the rest of the passage. Choice D can be eliminated because it is redundant.

21

Content: punctuation

Choice A is the best answer because no punctuation is needed in the underlined portion. If A is at odds with B, A is different from B, or A disagrees with B.

Choice B is incorrect because if you remove “with traditional expectations” as an aside, the resulting main sentence is illogical: “…at odds of African American artists.” Choice C is incorrect because “of African American artists” modifies “expectations,” so should not be separated with a comma. Choice D is incorrect because “traditional expectations” is the object of the idiom “to be at odds with” so should not be divided from each other.

22

Content: transitions

Choice D is the best answer because it signals a contrast in ideas. The transition fits the context which starts by saying that abstract art is not overtly political and implies that it therefore may not seem thought-provoking. The following sentence brings up a point that happens in spite of that perception: Whitney tries to create thought-provoking abstract art.

None of the other choices as clearly indicates the relationship between the ideas in the paragraph. Choice A shows the last event in a sequence rather than opinions which occur simultaneously. Choice B is used to introduce a conclusion based on previous information. Choice C is used to paraphrase or summarize the preceding idea.

23

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice D is the best answer because the focus of the paragraph is on how the Brassicales developed glucosinolates as a defense against Pierinae insects. Choice D maintains the focus by explaining what role the glucosinolates play in the process.

None of the other choices relates as well to the focus of the paragraph. Choice A changes the topic to human health benefits rather than insect defenses. Choice B adds an extraneous detail about Brassicales that does not affect their relationship to insects. Choice C introduces an irrelevant point about the time period.

24

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice D is the best answer because it is concise and grammatically correct. It turns the second two sentences into a dependent clause adding more detail about the action described in the first sentence. “Causing” and “starting” are parallel around the word “and.”

Choice A uses the word “this” twice but attributes different meanings to it, rendering the sentence both repetitive and difficult to follow. Choice B is not parallel: “the glucosinolates mix…” does not have the same structure as “what starts is….” In addition, the semicolon after “enzymes” should be followed by an independent rather than dependent clause. Finally, “what starts” does not make sense after saying “then.” Choice C is incorrect because a colon should be followed by explanatory information related to the main clause rather than by a series of new details continuing a sequence.

25

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice C is the best answer because it means “not fitting” or “incompatible,” which fits the context of plants than cannot be eaten by the insects.

None of the other choices is as logical in the context of describing the taste of the plant. Choice A refers to an appearance or manner that is not flattering. Choice B refers to an inappropriate time. Choice D refers to improper behavior or actions.

26

Content: addition and deletion

Choice B is the best answer because the passage develops around the concept of coevolution, so it is essential that the reader understands what it means. Since it is a specialized scientific term, it is best to include the definition, so the average reader can follow the argument in the rest of the passage.

Choice A is incorrect because the definition of coevolution implies that at times the plants could be viable food sources and at other times not. Choice B is incorrect because there is no need to discuss the methods for studying coevolution; it is sufficient for the reader to understand the general meaning of the concept. Choice D is incorrect because the definition does not weaken a point; it explains why the plants had to keep evolving despite having defenses.

27

Content: tense, mood, and voice

Choice D is the best answer because the underlined portion is referring to a possibility in the distant past. “Could” is a past tense form of “can,” which shows that it was possible for the insects to eat the plants.

Choice A is incorrect because it is a future tense verb, but the passage is writing about an evolutionary change in the past. Choice B is incorrect because it is a present tense verb, so should not be used in a past tense situation. Choice C is used in past tense contexts to show that something happened before something else. This tense does not fit the context of the sentence, in which the underlined portion happens after the description in the first half of the sentence.

28

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice A is the best answer because the paragraph is describing how the insects and plants coevolved regarding chemical defenses. The premise is that at first the plants were inedible, so the best conclusion is shows how the species changed over time. Choice A effectively does this because it says that the plants became the insects’ favored food source.

Choice B is incorrect because it introduces an irrelevant detail about the insects rather than describing their interaction with the plants. Choice C is incorrect because it brings up a totally unrelated topic, dinosaurs. Choice D is incorrect because it says that the insects were able to eat the plants but does not relate to evolutionary changes regarding flavor.

29

Content: possession and possessive pronouns

Choice A is the best answer because it correctly uses an apostrophe after “plants” to show that the chemical defenses belong to more than one plant. No other punctuation is needed in the underlined portion.

Choice B places an apostrophe and “s” after “plant,” making the subject singular, which does not fit the context of the passage. In addition, Choices B and D erroneously place an apostrophe in “defenses,” but “defenses” do not possess anything. Choice C is incorrect because there should be an apostrophe after “plants” to indicate possession of the chemical defenses.

30

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice B is the best answer because “that” turns the second half of the sentence into a modifier that describes “insects.”

Choice A is incorrect because it is a comma splice between two independent clauses. Choice C is incorrect because a semicolon needs to be followed by an independent clause, but there is no subject. Choice D is incorrect because a subject such as “which” or “that” is needed to turn “developed…” into a complete modifying clause.

31

Content: punctuation

Choice C is the best answer because “known as speciation” is a modifier adding more information about the “process.” Therefore, it should be separated from the main clause using commas at the start and end of the modifier.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no comma after “speciation,” so it is difficult to determine where the modifier ends and the main clause resumes. Choice B is incorrect because a colon should follow an independent clause. Choice D is incorrect because if there is only one dash, it should be separating an aside from the main sentence. However, there is no complete clause on either side of the dash.

32

Content: transitions

Choice B is the best answer because no transition is required for the ideas in the sentence to make sense.

All of the other choices are incorrect because they incorporate transition words that do not adequately indicate the relationship between parts of the sentence. Choice A is used to show something that happens despite something else, but there is nothing to contrast with. Choice C means “at the same time,” but there is nothing mentioned that is simultaneous with enjoying the foods. Choice D is used to paraphrase another idea, but the idea is only given once.

33

Content: syntax

Choice C is the best answer because the underlined portion starts an idea that modifies “foods.” It follows another modifier joined by “and”: “that are enjoyed…flavors.” Choice C is a possessive subject that shows that the “chemicals” belong to the noun the clause modifies, “foods.”

Choices A and B create a clause that is not parallel with the modifier “foods that…flavors.” Choice D is incorrect because “which” does not indicate possession so does not show that the chemicals belong to the foods.

34

Content: sentence combination

Choice C is the best answer because it concisely turns the underlined portion into an example of “3D medical objects.” It also eliminates the repeated subject “technicians.”

Choice A is incorrect because it is a comma splice; “technicians” starts a complete, new idea with no word subordinating the clause. Choice B is incorrect because it changes the meaning so that the objects are created using “replacement joints or prosthetic limbs” rather than those things being an example of the objects. Choice D is incorrect because it uses two verbs in the same clause: “replacement joints or prosthetic limbs” is the object of “to make” and the subject of the passive “are made.”

35

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice D is the best answer because the passage continues to describe how 3D printing technology is good for both the hospitals and the patients for financial, health, and time reasons. The best introduction to the topic is Choice D, which says that it would be wise to buy and use 3D printing technology.

Choice A is incorrect because the passage makes no reference to 3D printing companies or their sales methods. Choice B is incorrect because the passage only focuses on 3D printing, not “a wide range of new technologies.” Choice C is incorrect because the passage strongly indicates that 3D technologies will be extremely beneficial, and thus will matter greatly.

36

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice A is the best answer because “conventional manufacturing…match” is a clause specifying the preceding noun, “combination.” Therefore, ”that” is used to link the parts together.

Choice B is incorrect because “and” should join two parallel ideas, and “which” is the start of a modifying clause. However, there is no modifying clause preceding the “and” in the sentence. Choice C is incorrect because it is used to indicate a direction, but “conventional…” is not the result of the first half of the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because it is used to show possession, but “conventional…” is not owned by “combination.”

37

Content: parallelism

Choice B is the best answer because the underlined portion is the second of two verbs joined by “and” which describe the process. The first verb is “to mold,” so the second should be parallel. Choice B does not repeat “to” but has the same infinitive form.

None of the other choices are parallel with the other verb, “to mold.” Choice A is a gerund. Choice C includes a pronoun with no referent. Choice D creates an illogical phrase, “then is to piece.” The words joined by “and then” share the start of the sentence, “The traditional…elements is to.”

38

Content: transitions

Choice A is the best answer because it is a transition that shows that the following information is very different from the preceding information. Choice A therefore fits the context of comparing the very different ways that traditional and 3D medical objects are made.

None of the other choices adequately establishes the relationship between the previous information about the process of making traditional medical objects and the following information about the process of making 3D medical objects. Choice B is used to show parts of a process that occur simultaneously. Choice C is used to add more information on the same subject. Choice D is used to paraphrase a previous description.

39

Content: style and tone

Choice D is the best answer because the paragraph is discussing the precision with which a replacement part can be made; the previous example is how 3D printing allows doctors to create a joint that fits perfectly. Choice D continues with the theme of exactness or precision of fit in creating a new part.

None of the other choices is consistent with the previous example about the precision with which the part fits. Choice A refers to appearance. Choice B discusses the result of using the part. Choice C compares the part to other technology.

40

Content: logical comparison

Choice D is the best answer because it creates the most logical comparison using “cheaper than.” The first item in the comparison is “objects made with 3D printers.” Choice D correctly compares 3D objects to objects, “those,” made in the traditional way.

All of the other choices make illogical comparisons with “objects made with 3D printers.” Choice A compares the objects to a method. Choices B and C compare the objects, a noun, with a clause.

41

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice B is the best answer because a dash adds non-essential but related information to a sentence.

Choices A and C are incorrect because a semicolon should be followed by an independent clause, but Choice A ends with a subordinate clause and Choice B ends with a long phrase that has no active verb. Choice D is incorrect because “which is” is not essential information so should be preceded by a comma or other punctuation to differentiate it from the main sentence.

42

Content: precision and concision

Choice D is the best answer because no additional words are needed to convey the idea that the process happens rapidly.

All of the other choices are redundant because the sentence already includes “immediately,” establishing the rapidity with which the process can be completed. Therefore, no additional words about speed are needed.

43

Content: transitions

Choice B is the best answer because it means “despite that fact.” It fits the context in which the previous sentence describes drawbacks of investing in 3D printing, but the following sentence says that 3D printing is an excellent investment.

None of the other choices effectively sets up the relationship between the previous and following sentences. Choice A means “in addition,” so does not signal a contrast. Choice C is used to introduce an effect or conclusion. Choice D is used to show things which happen simultaneously.

44

Content: punctuation

Choice A is the best answer because “director of…Medicine” is an appositive phrase that renames “Anthony Atala” in more detail, so it should be divided from the main sentence with a comma before “director” and after “Medicine.” “Says” should also be followed by a comma because a sentence that is directly quoted using quotation marks needs to be preceded from the main sentence by a comma.

Choices B and D are incorrect because “says” needs to be followed by a comma to divide the quote from the main clause. Choices C and D are incorrect because “director of…Medicine” needs to have commas to distinguish it as extra information modifying “Atala.”

1

Choice C is the best answer because the first four paragraphs of the passage describe what happens as the narrator reads a book to Naomi: her begging him to continue (lines 2-9), her intent concentration (lines 10-15), and her marking the page when people entered the store (lines 29-34). Starting in Paragraph 5, the topic changes from the present to the past, introducing memories of how his father read to him. The narrator links the early stories with his father to the way he chooses to read to Naomi by saying that his style “was exactly what my father would have done had he been the one reading” (lines 44-45).

Choice A is incorrect because the event is not necessarily amusing or funny; it is a poignant, deeply moving experience that the narrator wants to treasure. Choice B is incorrect because there is no indication that the friendship between Naomi and the narrator is new; they could have known each other for years. Although there is an allusion in line 22 that the narrator “will stand alone,” that is not necessarily because the friendship falls apart; it is implied that Naomi will leave as she enters a different stage of her life. Choice A is incorrect because the start of the passage does not describe Naomi in detail, so could not be called a “character sketch;” in addition, there are no specific ways given that Naomi has changed the life of the narrator other than that he found their time together precious, “Every time I looked at her I became aware of just how seemingly perfect this time was” (lines 17-19)

2

Choice D is the best answer because lines 34-37 specifically say that the narrator did not help a customer because he wanted to continue reading. Since his job was to help customers in his store, Choice D provides a specific example of a time that the reading prevented him from doing his job correctly, in other words, “interfered with his responsibilities.”

Choice A is incorrect because it does not refer to the narrator’s duties or “responsibilities,” only to Naomi’s request. Choice B only refers to the narrator’s emotions regarding reading, not to his work. Choice C does not support the claim that reading interfered with duties because it gives a specific example of putting aside the reading to perform the job correctly.

3

Choice B is the best answer because in the first line, the narrator says that he read forty or fifty pages of a book, a large number. The third paragraph explains how Naomi was paying attention and “taking it all in” (line 14), continuing to say that her attention was not just on the book but on the entire scene. Lines 29-34 show how carefully she marked the exact place that the story left off. All these details indicate that Naomi had “notable” or "worthy of comment" levels of concentration and observation.

Choice A is incorrect because “empathy” indicates an understanding of how others feel, but in lines 34-41 Naomi did not object when the narrator kept a customer waiting while he finished reading a page. This shows she valued the reading more than the needs of the customer. Choice C is incorrect because Naomi only listens; the narrator “dramatizes” or makes the book seem real. Choice D is incorrect because there is no evidence that Naomi has undergone any “hardships” or severe problems.

4

Choice D is the best answer because “ambivalent” refers to having mixed emotions. The narrator treasures the time (lines 17-19, "I became...time was") but says that he knows he will view it with nostalgia because Naomi will not be there, “I would eventually find myself standing here alone” (lines 21-22). This awareness “threatened to destroy the scene” (line 23), but then something would happen that made him enjoy the moment again (lines 24-26). Therefore, he has mixed emotions about the reading.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no evidence that the narrator needed a creative outlet; even more important, he is not “unequivocally,” which means “completely,” delighted because he regrets the fleeting nature of the moment (lines 19-22). Choice B is incorrect because there is no indication of the narrator’s expectations of how Naomi would take the reading; he is less surprised than nostalgic. Choice C is incorrect because the narrator never says that he is less talented than his father; in lines 44-46, he even says that he reads “exactly” the way his father would have.

5

Choice B is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the narrator is “ambivalent” or has mixed feelings about his reading time with Naomi because he knows that it will end. Choice B supports that claim because it shows that although the narrator thought that the time was “perfect,” he knew that in the future he would be torn apart with “heartbreak,” which refers to sorrow so extreme it feels like one’s heart breaks, because it was over and he was “standing alone,” without Naomi.

Choice A is incorrect because it only says that Naomi was paying attention; it does not allude to the narrator’s ambivalent mood. Choice C is incorrect because it refers to an angry customer but not to the narrator’s mixed feelings. Choice D is incorrect because it only says that the narrator tried to imitate his father’s dramatic flair.

6

Choice B is the best answer because “concluded” refers to the final word that the narrator had read before he had to watch the customer: Naomi “put her finger on the exact word or sentence I had just concluded” (lines 32-33). Since Choice B refers to something that is completed or ended, it fits the context of describing the last word that had been read.

None of the other definitions of “concluded” fits the context of putting the finger on the last word read. Choice A is incorrect because it refers to choosing or selecting something. Choice C refers to coming to an opinion based on reasoning. Choice D refers to sending something away.

7

Choice C is the best answer because starting in Paragraph 5, the narrator describes the father’s “dramatic,” or “exciting,” storytelling techniques. It is clear that the narrator uses his father as a model because he refers to such things as gesturing in exciting ways “exactly what my father would have done had he been the one reading” (lines 45-46) and he “tried as hard as I could to do my father proud” (lines 69-70).

Choice A is incorrect because, although Paragraphs 5 and 6 refer to the father’s grand storytelling, there is no evidence that he encouraged others, or children, to be “expressive” or creative. Choice B is incorrect because the description of the father does not show that “a life well lived” is important; they only show that the father enjoyed telling stories. Choice D is incorrect because “renown” authors are famous or well-known. However, the narrator only describes specific “stories he invented himself” (line 55) or tales shared “throughout the course of any given day” (lines 49-50). He does not mention any specific authors or books, only these spontaneous stories.

8

Choice D is the best answer because “the fabric of everyday life” refers to ongoing, essential parts of regular daily activities. The narrator says that his father told stories “throughout the course of any given day” (lines 49-50). These tales were shared “during lunch” (line 50) and “conversations with friends” (lines 50-52). Therefore, the stories were part of everyday life.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no reference in the passage to a “tradition” or long history of anyone else in the family telling stories. Choice B is incorrect because there is no indication that the father told stories about historical events. The examples the narrator cites are fictional or allegorical, as the titles in lines 60-64 are related to animals. Choice C is incorrect because there is no reference to the messages contained in the stories.

9

Choice A is the best answer because “wrong” refers to a time that one should not tell stories; the narrator indicates that the father felt all times were socially acceptable. Since Choice A means “acceptable” it fits the context of describing times that stories could be told.

None of the other choices adequately describes the time that stories could be told. Choice B refers to fairness. Choice C refers to something unethical or evil. Choice B refers to an error or mistake.

10

Choice C is the best answer because lines 65-67 refer to how the narrator willingly let the father repeat stories because the father’s joy at telling stories was so great. Choice C offers a similar situation because it describes someone willing to undergo something more than once because the experience created good memories, in other words, was a “memorable” one.

Choice A is incorrect because the anecdote is about repetition so does not equate well with a situation in which a person waits for, or “eagerly anticipates,” new things. Choice B is incorrect because the person in the situation is doing the same or similar things. However, the quoted lines show the narrator passively watching his father’s performance. Choice C is also incorrect because the person in the situation is doing the action. Furthermore, there is no indication in the anecdote about repeating something in order to improve.

11

Choice C is the best answer because the passage introduces several studies related to the topic of how audiences affect the speed in which a task is completed. Triplett’s first study in the 1890s (Paragraph 2) showed that there was an effect and his second controlled study in 1897 (Paragraph 3) gave more specific data showing an increase in speed when an audience watched a task. However, Pessin and Husband’s experiment (Paragraph 4) contradicted the general statement that the effect was always an increase in speed. Finally, Zajonc’s study (Paragraph 6) “refines,” which means “revises,” the understanding by showing that speed in the presence of an audience depends upon the complexity of the task.

Choice A is incorrect because the passage is not about how fast people learn a task; it is about how fast they complete a task. The results show that difficult tasks take longer to accomplish when there is a group, which argues that learning hard tasks is easier when alone. Choice B is incorrect because, although apparently contradictory results of two tests (Triplett’s in Paragraphs 2 and 3, and Pessin and Husband’s in Paragraph 4) are given, the passage then shows how both are correct within the framework theorized and tested in a third study conducted by Zajonc (Paragraphs 5 and 6). Choice D is incorrect because the passage “chronicles” or “shows” how only one theory, not more than one “competing theory,” changes or develops as new data is added.

12

Choice A is the best answer because “simple” is used in line 26 to describe a very uncomplicated task, winding a fishing reel, that could be quickly learned by the children. “Easy” describes “uncomplicated” well. By contrast, “simple” in line 34 describes the type of story that is NOT told by science; the passage is describing a convoluted route that led to understanding. The opposite of “convoluted” is “straightforward.”

Choice B is incorrect because “mindless” refers to “stupid,” but the task was not stupid. In addition, “sincere” refers to genuine belief in something rather than complexity. Choice C is incorrect because, while “effortless” fits the context of a simple task, “humble” refers to modesty, which does not relate to scientific stories. Choice D is incorrect because “innocent” refers to a lack of experience or lack of guilt, though “uncomplicated” does fit the context.

13

Choice B is the best answer. The experiment is described in Paragraph 3: children of different ages were to reel a fishing line in rapidly. The passage specifies in lines 27 and 28 that “none of the children had played with fishing rods before the experiment.” This point rules out the “possible objection” or complaint that the kids had “prior,” or “earlier,” experience reeling in a line with a rod.

None of the other choices can be ruled out given the description of the task in Paragraph 3. There is a possibility that the participants may have gotten better, or “increased in competence,” at the new task they had just learned, either by doing it themselves or watching others. Therefore, Choices A and D cannot be ruled out. For Choice C, the passage does not describe whether there were variations or differences related to age or development. Therefore, it is possible that the older or more capable children performed differently than younger or less capable children.

14

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Triplett’s experiment was designed to rule out the objection that differences in performance were based on prior or earlier experience with the task. Choice C specifically says that the task had never been done before. In fact, the children had never used the equipment in the task before. Therefore, Choice C shows that the task was completely new to the children.

None of the other choices supports the claim that the experiment was set up so that no one could complain that the children had done the task before. Choice A does not give any details of the study, so it is impossible to say how the objection was ruled out. Choice B only refers to the ages of the children, so does not eliminate the possibility that they had earlier experience performing a similar task. Choice D only describes the results of the study.

15

Choice D is the best answer because Triplett showed that the children performed better when they were observed and concluded that they were using a “latent energy” (line 32) to do the task. Lines 32-33 point out that this energy is “not normally available when they perform alone.” This evidence shows that Triplett believed that humans had abilities that they are not always able to “exploit” or “use.”

Choice A is incorrect because “ultimately mastering” refers to “eventually succeeding.” However, Triplett only tests a very simple task, so there is no evidence that he thinks that people will succeed at almost any task. Choice B is incorrect because Triplett only tests a very simple task. There is no evidence in Triplett’s work about “a general tendency” or “a common trend” about how kids would cope with a difficult task. Choice C is incorrect because Triplett’s work tested competition, not cooperation. Therefore, it is impossible to conclude what he would feel about cooperation.

16

Choice B is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Triplett would most likely agree that human beings have abilities that they are not always able to exploit or use. Choice B directly supports that answer because it says that Triplett drew a conclusion that in front of an audience, people can access a type of energy that they cannot use when alone.

Choice A is incorrect because the lines do not refer to any conclusions drawn by Triplett. Choice C is incorrect because it only says that others did not agree with Triplett’s conclusions, but it does not say what those conclusions were. Choice D is incorrect because it does not describe what the effects are, so does not support the assertion that Triplett would say people have abilities they can only access at certain times.

17

Choice B is the best answer because lines 81-87 (“But the cockroaches…more complex”) describe the behavior of the cockroaches in the complex maze: it took the cockroaches 76 seconds longer to complete the complex maze when there was an audience than when there was no audience. This shows that the cockroaches were slower when there was an audience.

Choice A is incorrect because “hesitant” refers to taking time to make decisions. However, the cockroaches went 76 seconds faster when they were alone (lines 80-84), implying that they made decisions about the correct path faster when alone. In other words, they were more hesitant or careful with an audience. Choice C is incorrect because there is no reference to communication between the creatures. Choice D is incorrect because the cockroaches were given a specific task to complete. They could not choose or “seek out” a different maze.

18

Choice D is the best answer because the experiments conducted by the other researchers refers to physical activities such as riding a bike, reeling a fishing line, or completing a maze, completed by humans and observed by humans. The phrases “reinforce,” meaning “strengthen,” the similarity by emphasizing the relationship between the groups of insects in the study to the same roles played humans.

Choice A is incorrect because any comment on the insect activities does not need special terms relating to humans; using terms associated with human activities creates a comparison with humans. Choice B is incorrect because “skepticism” refers to having doubts about something. However, the author seems to accept the design without questioning the data. Choice C is incorrect because the terms are not necessarily informal or “casual;” they would be considered extremely professional in a setting referring to humans. Therefore, the words do not detract from the formality of the explanation.

19

Choice B is the best answer because “easy tasks” are represented by the dark grey/black bars. The column for “alone” is the farthest to the left. The top of the black bar is between the numbers 15 and 20 on the y-axis marked “average time to complete task (seconds).” Therefore, the average time was between 12 and 20 seconds.

Choice A is the time to complete an easy task when there is an audience, not when alone. Choice C does not apply to any of the bars on the graph. Choice D is the time to complete a difficult, not easy, task when alone.

20

Choice D is the best answer because the graph specifies “inattentive audience” and “attentive audience” for both easy and difficult tasks. A difference between how much the audience pays attention is not mentioned at any point in the passage.

All of the other points are mentioned in both the graph and the passage. Choice A is given as the vertical scale of the graph and the results of all the studies in the passage; for example, lines 78-80 refers to cockroach speed, “reaching the darkened …a crowd.” Choice B is given as the light grey columns on the graph and brought up in the passage in examples of different mazes completed by blindfolded humans (Paragraph 4) or insects (Paragraph 6). Choice C is a vital part of the studies, since they all compare the results of completing a task in front of an audience or alone. The tasks performed alone are in the left-most columns of the chart and the task in front of an audience are on the right.

21

Choice D is the best answer because “relevant to” means “relate to.” Choice D directly states that the results of the study applied to striped animals of a range of species, implying that the conclusion relates to or is relevant to creatures other than just zebras.

Choice A only says that there are questions about zebras. Choice B shows that biting flies are associated with stripes, but it does not directly say that the research relates to the stripes of animals other than zebras. Choice C is incorrect because it only gives the method used by the study, not an analysis of the conclusion.

22

Choice B is the best answer because the phrase “broad brush” is immediately followed by the statement that “more specific research may be needed” (line 37); this comparison implies that the study has established the main ideas, but the details are still unknown. Therefore, studies with “specialized focus,” or studies related to certain details, will be needed to solve the unknown parts.

Choice A is incorrect because the results relate to striped animals, but the results do not apply to “an array,” meaning “a wide range,” of scientific disciplines than biology. Choice C is incorrect because the passage says that “more specific research may be needed” (line 37). Therefore, the passage does not assert that the questions are “unanswerable;” it implies that the questions can be answered if a different study is done. Choice D is incorrect because the passage suggests that more data is needed to figure out the details; if that is the case, then there is not “too much data.”

23

Choice A is the best answer because Passage 2 says “they digest food much less efficiently than other grazers in Africa” (lines 64-65), suggesting that zebras do not digest food well. The conclusion is given in lines 65-67, “As such, zebras…more food.” In other words, they are in the sun longer periods than other grazers because they must eat more. In addition, the point that stripes are more defined in areas that have hotter sun (lines 67-74, “The team…explanation”) is brought up to support the idea that stripes help with “thermoregulation,” or the process of adjusting heat, to protect the animals from the sun.

Choices B and D are incorrect because Passage 2, Paragraph 3 (lines 55-60, “This wall…either”) points out that other creatures have predators, but those animals do not have stripes. There is no reference to how well the species defend themselves or escape. Choice C is incorrect because there is no mention in the passage that there is an “inadequate” or “not sufficient” supply of food for other grazers. In fact, Passage 2, Paragraph 4 (lines 61-67, “other animals…more food”) suggests that there is enough food for other animals, since zebras can survive in the environments even though they require more food.

24

Choice B is the best answer because the paragraph says that zebras “digest food much less efficiently” (line 64), which means that they don’t digest well. The result is that they must be in the sun longer to eat enough food. This drawback is offered as a reason that zebras need stripes: to “thermoregulate” (line 62), defined as a way to “regulate body temperature” in lines 61-62.

Choice A is incorrect because Paragraph 3 brings up comparisons with grazers that do not have stripes. Paragraph 4 continues with a comparison with other grazers. As there is no transition that mentions striped grazers, it can be reasonably assumed that the grazers are also ones with no stripes. Choice C is incorrect because the paragraph does not refer to any “false premise” or “flaws” that the research is based on. Choice D is incorrect because a difference in climate is described in Paragraph 5, not Paragraph 4, as specified by the question prompt.

25

Choice D is the best answer because “definitive” means that all questions related to the issue are answered, so the question is asking for a reason why the study is still missing information. The study’s conclusion is that the stripes help with defending against heat, but Paragraph 6 (lines 75-79) says that “the researchers have not experimentally tested the theory.” In other words, there is no proof of how or why the stripes are effective. This lack of evidence seriously weakens the claim because, according to Paragraph 7 (lines 80-85) the color black is generally not effective at cooling.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication that some facts were “disregarded,” or ignored. Choice B is incorrect because the data-gathering and comparison techniques are described as “one of the most comprehensive zebra stripe studies yet” (lines 42-43); this implies that the methods are accepted as standard or effective. Choice C is incorrect because the passage compared the data with other research; for example, Paragraph 2 (lines 47-54) says the study used data about such things as climate and regions with tsetse flies or lions, presumably to confirm or disprove prior research about zebra stripes being related to those factors.

26

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the study is not definitive or conclusive because it has yet to confirm a key assumption made in the study. Choice D supports that assertion because it says that no research has been done and some people think that the key assumption—stripes generate breezes—is impossible.

Choice A eliminates other theories, but it does not show that Larison’s study had not confirmed an important detail. Choice B is incorrect because it gives the theory but does not explain that a key assumption has not been tested. Choice C is incorrect because it supports the theory rather than gives evidence that a key assumption remains unconfirmed.

27

Choice B is the best answer because “thermoregulation” refers to adjusting body temperature. Lines 80-85 give Caro’s opinion that black is “the last color” someone would want if they wanted to stay cool, implying that he thinks that the black stripes may cause problems with cooling or helping to maintain an even body temperature.

Choice A is incorrect because Caro does not discuss the genetic origin of stripes. Choice C is incorrect because there is no suggestion that Caro thinks stripes are unusual or rare. Choice D is incorrect because “aesthetically appealing” means that something is “attractive to look at,” but Caro does not refer to whether he likes the look of stripes or not.

28

Choice B is the best answer because “particularly” means “extremely” and “susceptible” means “likely to be harmed." In the context, the phrase highlights the fact that warm climates are extremely likely to have many flies, not just tsetse ones. The phrase therefore emphasizes the number of insects because Caro is suggesting a counter-theory to the idea of body temperature regulation.

Choice A is incorrect because the phrase does not refer to any errors made in Larison’s calculation of “geographic range,” or the places where the zebras live. The phrase is used to show that there may be other insects present in that range than Larison took into consideration. Choice C is incorrect because the phrase refers to insects that carry disease, not predators that eat zebras. Choice D is incorrect because the phrase does not differentiate between effects on grazers.

29

Choice C is the best answer because both passages question why zebras have stripes, though they arrive at different conclusions. Passage 1 describes a study by Tim Caro that concludes that “the only factor which is highly associated with striping is…biting flies” (lines 9-10). Passage 2 also describes a study that questions why zebras have stripes, but the researcher, Brenda Larison, concluded that stripes resulted as a method of thermoregulation or adjusting body temperature (Paragraphs 4 and 5).

Choice A is incorrect because there is no discussion of how stripes spread from species to species in either passage. Choice B is incorrect because a “misconception” refers to an idea which is wrong. While Passage 2, Paragraph 3, eliminates some common theories, Passage 1 does not try to convince the reader that other theories are wrong. Passage 1 only says that the biting insect theory is the only correlation they found. Choice D is incorrect because, although Passage 1 mentions that other striped animals were taken into consideration, there is no comparison about how the stripes are different.

30

Choice A is the best answer because neither researcher proposes that “camouflage,” or protective coloring, is the reason. Caro mentions camouflage in line 4 but says that the only connection with stripes his study found was with biting flies (Passage 1, Paragraph 3). Larison does not mention “camouflage” directly, but in Passage 2, Paragraph 3 discredits the idea of the stripes being used to avoid predators, which usually refers to protecting themselves from being seen. Her solution is that stripes evolved to help regulate temperature.

Choice B is incorrect because “elusive” refers to something being difficult to understand. Both researchers would claim that their studies have provided more information about why zebras are striped. Therefore, both would say that the role is less “elusive” or "hard to understand" than in the past. Choice C is incorrect because neither researcher suggests that predation is related to the stripes. Choice D is incorrect because “geographic regions” refers to areas or places. Larison definitely says that zebras in hotter areas have more defined stripes (Passage 2, Paragraph 5); Caro obliquely says that areas are related to striping because because striped species are more prevalent in regions where there are biting flies.

31

Choice D is the best answer because “a correlation among variables” refers to a connection between different elements or factors. Both passages refer to a wide variety of information that the researchers used and compared to draw their conclusions about stripes. Passage 1, Paragraphs 4-7 describe the methods used in Caro’s study. The team first collected data from “a vast range of sources, including museum collections and historical maps” (lines 14-15), analyzed variations in striping (lines 16-22), and finally compared the striping to various environmental factors (lines 23-29). Passage 2 starts by saying that Larimer compared “29 different environmental variables influence the stripe styles of plains zebras at 16 different sites from south to central Africa” (lines 44-47).

Choice A is incorrect because neither passage refers to experiments that “simulated” or “replicated” natural conditions, only gathering of data. Choice B is incorrect because “field observations“ are studies conducted by watching something in the place it lives. However, there is no reference to going to Africa to observe zebras in person. Choice C is incorrect because, although Passage 1 refers to museums and maps (lines 14-15), Passage 2 does not.

32

Choice A is the best answer because Dickens claims that “Universal Distrust” (line 28), which is his term for “wariness,” is one of the evils of society. He claims that worthy men are not elected (line 37), which implies that “inferior” or “less good” people are elected instead. The analogy of the gnat and camels in lines 54-58 indicates that honesty is not valued as much as doubt. The result is posed as a question in lines 58-60, “is it likely to elevate the character of the governors or the governed?”

Choice B is incorrect because “insular” refers to not accepting things from other countries and “unrefined” means that people are not civilized. However, the passage contains no reference to these things; in Paragraph 2, Dickens says that he was welcomed even though he was a foreigner, and line 7 even says that the Americans were cultivated and refined. Choice C, which says that Americans are “astute” or “good” judges of elected officials, is opposite of a main claim of Paragraph 5. Choice D is incorrect because there is no reference that the “suspiciousness” or “distrust” has led to “instability” or a dangerous situation, only to poor-quality elected officials.

33

Choice D is the best answer because Dickens begins by praising the qualities that he found in Americans. For example, lines 6-7 say they are “frank, brave, cordial, hospitable, and affectionate.” Paragraph 2 outlines their generosity and openness to accept him as a friend. In Paragraph 4, the topic shifts to the problem of “Universal Distrust” (line 28), which he develops throughout the second half of the passage. He shows how the distrust leads to poor selection of elected officials in Paragraph 5 and 6.

Choice A is incorrect because the main topic is not about “cultivation” or “culture and education.” Dickens actually lists culture in line 7 during his discussion of virtues. Choice B is incorrect because the first portion of the passage offers a sweeping generality rather than “specific” or “particular” examples of kindness. The second portion of the passage does not ask why Americans are suspicious (the answer is given in the final paragraph as freedom of choice), but instead details the results of the problem. Choice C is incorrect because pride in flaws is an intermediate point from Paragraph 4 that acts as a transition to the topic of universal distrust. Plus, Dickens makes no recommendations to follow; he just describes the problem.

34

Choice C is the best answer because “character” refers to a general aspect of the American people and their social system. Dickens’s opinion of the “character” is that Americans are “frank, brave, cordial, hospitable, and affectionate” (lines 6-7). These are qualities a person is born with or raised to have, which is the definition of Choice C in the context.

Choice A is incorrect because it refers to something that represents something else, but the “character” does not stand for anything else. Choice B refers to a level of society rather than a trait. Choice D refers to the way something is presented, but Dickens is trying to analyze the “character” as he sees it. He is creating a portrayal of something in its natural state.

35

Choice C is the best answer because “unfounded criticism” refers to complaints that have no proof. Choice C says that “any printed lie” is believed. This claim provides support for the idea that Americans will accept anything written about the leaders without taking time to determine if it is true or not.

Choices A and B are incorrect because they refer to individuals in friendships, not to views of public officials. They support the idea of unconditional acceptance rather than mistrust. Choice D is incorrect because, while it criticizes the policy of universal distrust, it does not provide any evidence that Americans readily accept “unfounded criticism of elected leaders.”

36

Choice C is the best answer because “regard” is used to describe the feelings Dickens feels for the Americans he met; he claims that being in America for half a year, he developed friendships that seem equivalent to friendships that took half a lifetime to form. He is describing generosity and other positive traits that he values or respects. Choice C means “values,” so it fits the context well.

None of the other choices fits the description of a rich friendship growing over a period of time. Choice A refers to protection rather than mutual respect. Choice B refers to a hidden reason for developing the friendship, as opposed to the easy, open acceptance he describes. Choice D refers to one part, so does not fit the context of “one part of half a life.”

37

Choice D is the best answer because the question is asking for a “problematic aspect” of suspicion. In other words, the answer needs to be a bad result of suspicion or distrust. Dickens claims that distrust causes people to accept printed lies without proof (lines 51-54, “for any…is believed”) and elect officials who are not of the best quality (lines 36-40, “By repelling…people’s choice”). Therefore, people are actually working “against their best interests,” meaning they do themselves harm, because they do not make good decisions.

Choice A is incorrect because Paragraph 2 implies that people are accepting and trusting of friends; the suspicion is a problem because it leads to poor decisions when it comes to selecting appropriate officials (Paragraph 5). Choice B means that people become brave enough to question if others are correct. That trait is a positive, not “problematic,” result of suspicion. Choice C is incorrect because Dickens does not say that Americans have too much independence.

38

Choice A is the best answer because “reason” is used in the context of describing a situation where Americans “perceive the ruin it works” (lines 30-31), which means they see the damage that distrust causes. Even so, they still distrust. The people follow the same path “in spite of your better judgement,” an idiom which refers to doing something even though you know there is a better path.

Choice B is incorrect because the Americans do not follow the path despite their own “explanation,” which means a “description,” of what is happening. Choices C and D are incorrect because “reason” is preceded by “his,” but a person’s “source” or “protection” is not the thing that is not stopping the person from following a path of distrust.

39

Choice B is the best answer because “dramatize” means to “bring something to life,” and in the context, the “certain intellectual tendency” would be the trait of being overly distrustful. Dickens’s use of “a stranger” emphasizes the point that an outsider can clearly see the problem that the native person can’t. The use of “stranger” makes the passage appear less of a personal attack by Dickens himself, but rather a hypothetical situation that may happen to anyone from the outside viewing the situation.

Choice A is incorrect because the criticisms are ones that Dickens believes are “a truth that ought to be told” (line 22). Choice C is incorrect because “abandoned” means that Dickens no longer believes in the view, but there is no evidence that Dickens now believes something else. Choice D is incorrect because the conversation is hypothetical or made-up, given to illustrate an overall trend that he noticed. It is not a specific conversation with a real person.

40

Choice B is the best answer because Dickens claims in line 37 that Americans are “repelling worthy men from (their) legislative assemblies.” Since “worthy” refers to someone who is deserving or well-suited for something, the phrase means that the people who are elected are not worthy. The opposite of “worthy” would be “not deserving,” as described in Choice B.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no reference as to how well politicians respond to the “constituents,” which are people who elect the officials. Choice C is incorrect because, while Americans may be depicted as changeable because they will topple elected officials, the passage does not say that the politicians are changeable. Choice D is incorrect because the passage does not say whether politicians are in a good role to use their power.

41

Choice A is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that American political leaders are often undeserving of the positions they hold. Choice A states that the worthy people are not elected; this claim supports the idea that the less-worthy people are elected. Since “worthy” means “suitable” or “deserving,” “less-worthy” means “undeserving.”

Choice B is incorrect because it says that Americans are “inconstant,” which means they change their opinions often, but it does not show how that trait causes them to elect undeserving officials. Choice C is incorrect because it only says that the officials are distrusted; it does not give a reason why. Choice D is incorrect because it says that Americans will accept anything as long as it is introduced with distrust, but it does not say that elected officials are undeserving.

42

Choice A is the best answer because lines 40-48 indicate that the reason for “pulling down an idol” is because the person is paid and therefore distrusted. Therefore, the reason for turning against the official is not any real proof, only suspicion that there might be something wrong.

Choice B is incorrect because there is no evidence that officials are actually corrupt; there are only suspicions of corruption. Choice C is incorrect because there is no reference to politicians actually “abandoning” or “leaving” office. Choice D is incorrect because the final paragraph implies that Americans love the “political institutions” of freedom and voting. There is no reference to distrusting the laws or “foundations” of the government.

43

Choice A is the best answer because “a factor that influences effectiveness” is something that makes the vaccine work better or worse. The passage introduces the fact that there is a relationship between bacteria and effectiveness in the first paragraph and describes how that relationship was discovered in the second paragraph. Paragraphs 3-6 detail a study designed to test the theory that gut bacteria is related to the effectiveness of trivalent influenza vaccine. Paragraph 7 refers to results of a different, related test using other vaccines. A summary of the results and possible implications rounds out the passage in Paragraph 8.

Choice B is incorrect because there is no discussion of safety testing in the passage. Choice C is incorrect because the gut bacteria being discussed do not cause illness; the bacteria enhance the ability of a vaccine to fight illness. Choice D is incorrect because no genes of the flu virus are analyzed in the passage; only the patients’ genes associated with vaccine absorption are discussed.

44

Choice C is the best answer because the scientists were anticipating various correlations with trivalent vaccine-specific antibodies but had no idea that Tlr5 had any relation. The author uses “curious” and “unexpected” to highlight the fact that the results were extremely surprising under the circumstances.

Choices A and B are incorrect because “anticipate” and “assume” refer to predicting that something will occur. However, the scientists did not predict that there would be any link with Tlr5 at all. Choice D is incorrect because “overlook a connection” means that the scientists had information that contained a connection but did not understand the meaning. However, the passage is about completely new data, so the connection had not been “overlooked” or "ignored."

45

Choice B is the best answer because lines 21-24 (“in a long…receptor 5”) say that the scientists found a correlation between high Tlr5 coding gene levels and subjects who had strong responses to the trivalent vaccine. This fact implies that all, or a vast majority, of the subjects with the strong response had a similar pattern. The fact also implies that the opposite is true: people with weak responses did not have the same pattern. If the people did, then the pattern could not be clearly linked to the strong response.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no information about white-blood counts related to other vaccines. Choice C is incorrect because there is no information about reactions with other flu strains. Therefore, Choices A and C cannot be inferred from the passage. Choice D is also incorrect because there is no reference to transferring bacteria between species; lines 60-61 (“no specific…response”) indicates that any bacteria would result in a strong immune response.

46

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that trivalent vaccine-specific antibodies can be most reasonably inferred as having a similar pattern of gene expression that was not found in subjects with weak responses to the vaccine. Choice C supports this statement because it says that genes associated with the vaccine included Tlr5, which implies that it had a distinct pattern that was not present in patients who had weak responses.

Choice A is incorrect because it only refers to bacteria; it does not show that people have different patterns of genes depending upon the level of response to the vaccine. Choice B is incorrect because it only says that the researchers were looking for genetic patterns; it does not explain any results. Choice D is incorrect because it only describes what Tlr5 is.

47

Choice D is the best answer because lines 34-39 (“They…microbiome”) explain that the experiment involves a control group with no change to intestinal bacteria and three test groups with intestinal bacteria eliminated. This difference, the only one between the groups of mice, would reveal whether intestinal bacteria are related to a response to the vaccine.

Choice A is incorrect because the variable in the test is the presence of intestinal bacteria; it does not establish how B cells receive signals. Although active viruses are mentioned in Paragraph 6, only one type of vaccine (trivalent inactivated influenza vaccine) was used in the test. Therefore, Choice B is incorrect because different combinations of adjuvants or vaccines were not tested. Choice C is incorrect because the test would not show a connection between stimulated flagellin and Tlr5, as flagellin were not monitored in the test.

48

Choice C is the best answer because the last paragraph emphasizes that there is still a “huge mystery” (lines 68-69) about how and why the connection exists, showing that more research is needed to explain the missing parts.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no doubt that a strong response to the vaccine is useful; the final paragraph outlines what information is still unknown about the process of the response. Choice B is incorrect because there is no hint about “uncertainty,” or “worry,” that the process or interpretation was done wrong; there is just a caution that there is much that is still unknown. Choice D is incorrect because the last paragraph is not necessarily trying to “urge” or “convince” others to work on the project.

49

Choice A is the best answer because “prompting” is used in the context of saying that the response to a vaccine is triggered or stimulated by any type of bacteria. Since Choice A means “stimulating,” it accurately describes the act of making a reaction happen.

None of the other choices fits the context of explaining that one thing causes a reaction to start. Choice B refers to making a recommendation, but the bacteria do not actively tell anything to do something. Choice C is incorrect because the response is not “shortened” or “made less long;” the response occurs. Choice D is incorrect because the response is not “renewed” or “done over.”

50

Choice A is the best answer because the relative concentration is on the vertical scale. Germ-free mice are the farthest right-hand column. The top of this bar is just under the line for .20, making that the closest value in the list of choices.

Choices B and D do not relate to any figures on the chart; these answers could result from misreading the scale. Choice C is the figure for the control mice rather than the germ-free mice.

51

Choice A is the best answer because for both the dotted line for “without Tlr5 mice” and the solid line for “wild (control) mice” slant upwards, in other words, they “increased” or got higher, between the points for 7 and 28 days.

Choice B is incorrect because, while the wild mice had the highest point at 85 days, the “without Tlr5 mice” peaked at about 1.3 at 28 days and dropped to about .95 at 85 days. Choice C is incorrect because the wild mice continued to increase, not “decrease” or get lower, after 28 days. Choice D is incorrect because the lowest levels for both types of mice were at the 7-day mark.

52

Choice D is the best answer because Figure 2 shows that the antibodies increased in all subjects up until 28 days, when the responses changed depending upon whether the mice had bacteria present or not. This data is confirmed by Paragraph 5 (lines 40-44, “seven days…to rebound”). Therefore, the number of antibodies would be greater, meaning that the bars would be higher, in all mice at 14 days than at 7 days, which is the time shown in Figure 1.

Choice A is incorrect because all mice show an increase in antibodies up until 28 days, so at 14 days the mice without Tlr5 would be higher. Choice B is incorrect because Figure 2 shows that the control mice have more antibodies throughout the entire period of the test, so the control mice bar would be higher than the bar for antibiotics mice. Choice C is incorrect because all bars would be higher; the antibody level of control mice continues to increase.

1

Content: logical sequence

Choice C is the best answer because sentence 5 introduces the term “vertical farming” and defines what the term means. The definition should be placed before any other discussion that involves the term, such as the details added in sentence 3. Sentence 5 also refers to “one creative alternative,” which refers to a possibility that can be used in place of something else, so the “something else” should be stated before pointing out that there is another possibility. The most logical “something else” is the “conventional agricultural methods” described in sentence 2. Therefore, the most suitable place for sentence 5 is as a transition after the general discussion in sentence 2 and the details about vertical farming in sentence 3.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they interrupt the logical development of the paragraph. Choices A and D place the definition of “vertical farming” after details of the term are discussed. Choice B places the reference to an “alternative” before any discussion of something that could logically be replaced by “vertical farming.”

2

Content: possession and possessive pronouns

Choice D is the best answer because the underlined portion needs to show that the “use of water” belongs to the plural noun “vertical farming techniques.” Choice D does so because it is a plural possessive pronoun.

Choice A is incorrect because it is singular, so does not agree with the plural noun “techniques.” Choice B is a contraction for “it is,” so as well as being singular, does not indicate possession. Choice C is an adverb of place, so does not show that “use of water” belongs to anything.

3

Content: logical comparison

Choice C is the best answer because the sentence is setting up a comparison about water use using “than.” The two items in a comparison need to be logically and grammatically consistent. The first item is “vertical farmers,” a specific group of people. Choice C compares that group with a different group, maintaining the logical idea of comparing two types of people who use water.

All of the other choices are incorrect because they illogically compare people, “vertical farmers,” with places, “farms.” These ideas are not parallel because one shows “who” and the other shows “where.”

4

Content: addition and deletion

Choice C is the best answer because the paragraph is about the minimal water requirements of vertical farms: the farms use less than traditional farms, and they can use drip, hydroponic, or aeroponic methods. The added sentence refers to a difficulty related to space, so it does not enhance the discussion of water requirements in any way.

Choices A and B are incorrect because the added sentence should not be included in the paragraph. It does not say anything that is “countered” or “opposed” later in the passage, nor does it support the paragraph’s main point about water requirements. Choice D is incorrect because the added sentence does not “contradict” or “oppose” anything said in the paragraph.

5

Content: precision and concision

Choice A is the best answer because it means “enough,” so clearly states what is needed for the vertical farm facilities: at least a certain minimum amount, or enough, light and energy.

Choice B is incorrect because “just about” means “almost, but not quite.” However, the plants will not grow if there is “not quite enough.” Choice C is incorrect because “unobjectionable” means “having no complaints.” However, the problem is not whether anyone complains about the amount of light or energy; the concern is that there is enough light and energy. Choice D is incorrect because it is extremely convoluted. “Plentitude” refers to an “abundance” or “a lot,” and “essential” refers to “needed.” However vertical farming can be done when there is not a huge amount of light and energy as long as the minimum requirements are met.

6

Content: tense, mood, and voice

Choice C is the best answer because the paragraph describes the possibilities of vertical farming that exist now. The rest of the paragraph is also in the simple present tense: “indoor facilities can be placed,” “farms can be located,” and “establishing farms in cities provides…and reduces….” The simple present of Choice C maintains the consistency of the paragraph.

Choices A and B are incorrect because they are in the past tense, so imply that the need no longer exists. Choice D is incorrect because it is the present continuous form, which is used to show an actual event that is happening. However, the statement about need is a general truth rather than a specific case, so it should be in the simple present.

7

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice A is the best answer because the intended meaning of the sentence is that there are two benefits of “establishing farms in cities.” One is the expected benefit of “provides residents with fresh produce.” The second is may be more surprising, so should be emphasized with the idiom “not only XX but also YY.”

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they do not maintain the standard structure for two things joined by “not only.” They use other words rather than “but also.”

8

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice A is the best answer because the next sentence says that “preliminary” or “initial” experiments using LED lighting may solve the problem of lighting for vertical farming. Choice A sets up that idea well because it says that there is a problem related to lighting: it is “prohibitively” or “too” expensive.

Choice B is incorrect because the following sentence does not refer to “air quality” or variations between locations at all, only to solving a problem regarding light. Choice C is incorrect because the following sentence does not refer to the person who designs a building, or an “architect” at all. There is no indication that the designer must have prior knowledge about vertical farms. Choice D is incorrect because the following sentence does not discuss the problem of finding space to put a vertical farm.

9

Content: precision and concision

Choice B is the best answer because it concisely provides all the necessary information: the scale is “large” or “big.”

All of the other choices can be eliminated as redundant. The word “large” means “big,” so there is no need to include “great” or “extensive,” because those words also refer to “big size.”

10

Content: punctuation

Choice B is the best answer because “Dickson Despommier” is enough information to identify the person; “professor of public health and environmental health sciences at Columbia University” is a modifier that explains his position if someone does not know. The modifier is thus considered not essential and should be divided from the main sentence using a comma at the start and end. The comma after “University” is the main clue that this information should be separate and that there should be a comma after Despommier.

Choices A and C can be eliminated because the commas change the modifier so that the main clause does not make sense. If you remove the portion between the commas, it is easier to see that the main clause becomes “Dickson Despommier professor of believes…” and “Dickson Despommier professor believes…,” respectively. Choice D is incorrect because there is no indication of where the modifier starts, so the comma after “University” illogically divides the clause in half.

11

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice D is the best answer because the first paragraph says that the world’s population is growing and that conventional agriculture methods will not be able to meet the population’s nutritional needs in the relatively near future. Vertical farming is introduced as a viable alternative. The second paragraph compares the water use of traditional and vertical agriculture methods. The third paragraph discusses the advantages of placing vertical farms in cities. The fourth paragraph discusses the main drawback of vertical farming: providing light. However, it does say that there are possibilities to solve this problem. Choice D effectively concludes the passage by returning to the idea of the “world’s nutritional needs” and showing that vertical farming is indeed an important solution to the problem.

Choice A is incorrect because “patronizing local businesses” is not a argument made in the passage. The only reference is the comment that vertical farming allows for businesses to be closer to the consumer. Choice B is incorrect because “sunlight” is related only to the problem discussed in the fourth paragraph, light. The solution discussed in that paragraph, LED lighting, does not relate to letting in more sunlight, though. Choice C is incorrect because it concludes the fourth paragraph, but not the argument as set up in the entire passage.

12

Content: punctuation

Choice D is the best answer because the underlined portion is part of a list joined by “and” that forms the subject of the sentence. The three things are “musicians,” “writers,” and “other artists.” Items in a list of nouns should be joined by commas after each item, but no comma goes after the “and.” Therefore, a comma is needed after “writers” but not after the “and.”

Choices A and C are incorrect because there should be no comma after “and” separating it from the last item in the list, “other artists.” Choice B is incorrect because a semicolon is only used in a list when all items in the list are followed by one; the items need be complex and contain commas, which is not the case.

13

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice C is the best answer because the underlined portion is what the “musicians, writers, and other artists” want to do to the cause of civil rights. Choice C fits the context because it means “promote” or “help” and is often used to describe efforts to help a cause.

None of the other choices adequately shows what the “musicians, writers, and other artists” want to do to the cause of civil rights. Choices A and B refer to making something physically larger rather than to helping a cause. Choice D refers to making something more complicated.

14

Content: punctuation

Choice C is the best answer because a comma should be placed at the start and end of information that is added to the main clause. “Celebrated singer Nina Simone” adds more detail to the subject “one such artist,” and is preceded with a comma, so it should be followed by one as well.

Choice A is incorrect because a semicolon should divide two independent clauses, but neither the preceding nor following portion can stand on its own as a sentence. Choice B is incorrect because, while dashes can be used to divide non-essential information from a sentence, there needs to be consistent punctuation at the start and end of the information. Since “celebrated singer Nina Simone” is preceded with a comma, it should be followed by one. Choice D is incorrect because the underlined portion needs a comma to show where the added information ends and the main clause begins.

15

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice B is the best answer because the passage develops the idea that Simone was very influential even though she didn’t “see herself in a leadership role” (last sentence of Paragraph 2). Paragraph 2 says that she was an avid supporter of racial equality but didn’t see herself as a leader, but a friend urged her to reconsider. Paragraph 3 explains some of Simone’s reluctance, saying that she did not feel that music was a good medium for conveying political messages because popular songs are too short. However, her friend continued to push her. Finally, Paragraph 4 offers the trigger that made Simone reconsider: “violent acts carried out against civil rights demonstrators and even bystanders.” The final paragraph concludes by saying that Simone made a tribute when her friend died in the form of a political message; this concludes the idea that Simone accepted her “prominent” or “famous” leadership role despite early “reluctance” or “hesitation.”

None of the other choices refers to a main idea from the passage. Choices A and C are incorrect because the passage does not focus on her early training or career. Choice D is incorrect because, although Simone was talented, the passage shows that Simone found her role “unexpected” rather than “unsurprising.” She did not think that music would work to convey political messages, and she did not see herself as a leader. There is no indication that anyone else was “unsurprised” by her adopting such a role.

16

Content: transitions

Choice D is the best answer because the previous information says that Hansberry tried hard to get other artists involved in the Civil Rights Movement. The following sentence is a logical result, she asked Simone why Simone wasn’t involved. There is no need for a transition word to join this sequence of events.

None of the other choices effectively show the relationship between the preceding and following sentences. Choice A is used to introduce something unexpected or conflicting, but it is expected that a person trying to get other artists involved in a movement would ask an artist why she wasn’t involved. Choice B is incorrect because it means “anyways” or “despite those circumstances,” but the following action happened as a result, not in spite of, the previous claim. Choice C is incorrect because it is used to introduce the opposite case of what is said before.

17

Content: syntax

Choice A is the best answer because the main clause is a statement, “she asked Simone,” so the sentence needs to end in a period. “What” properly introduces a clause that explains the thing that was asked. “What” should therefore be followed by the standard structure of “noun-verb-object” as it is in Choice A.

Choice B is incorrect because “was she…” turns the following portion into the specific question that Hansberry asked Simone. A direct quotation needs to be divided from the main clause with a comma and quotation marks. Choices C and D are incorrect because the sentence is not a question, it is a statement about something that Hansberry said. Therefore, the sentence should not end with a question mark.

18

Content: subject-verb agreement

Choice D is the best answer because the subject is “Simone’s unease,” which is singular. A singular verb is needed for agreement.

All the other choices can be eliminated because they are plural verbs. Therefore, they cannot be used with the singular subject “unease.”

19

Content: addition and deletion

Choice B is the best answer because the paragraph’s main idea is that Simone did not feel that popular music was a good vehicle for sharing political messages. The first point given is that she thought that a three-minute song was too “brief” or “short” to give a “nuanced” or “conveying great detail” message. The underlined sentence gives a second point supporting the main idea: popular music was not serious enough to express an important political message. This point is elaborated in the next sentence, “noble ideas,” meaning her political message, would be “cheapened” or made to seem less valuable. The underlined sentence should therefore be kept because it establishes a very good reason that she felt that the message would seem less valuable.

Choice A is incorrect because the underlined sentence does not “elaborate” or “explain in more detail” any “key term” or “important word.” It offers more reasons to support a general idea rather than describe a specific word. Choices C and D can be eliminated because the underlined sentence is important for the development of the paragraph and should be kept. It does not introduce “irrelevant” or “unrelated” information, and it does not repeat anything described earlier in the passage.

20

Content: sentence combination

Choice A is the best answer because it concisely combines the sentences while retaining their original meaning. “So dismayed that” creates a clear cause-and-effect relationship, showing that the events of the first sentence led Simone to do the actions of writing and performing.

Choice B is incorrect because it eliminates any cause-and-effect connection between the two sentences. The result is that “being dismayed” and “writing and performing” are two separate actions that Simone did, but there is no indication of how the action are related. Choice C is incorrect because “to her dismay” appears to refer to the nearest verb, “caused her to write….” As a result, it appears she was “dismayed” or “upset” about needing to write and perform the music rather than being upset about the violent events. Choice D is incorrect because “her” has no antecedent in the paragraph. In addition, there is a change in emphasis that makes it appear that the events themselves caused Simone to write and perform, whereas the original sentences indicate that Simone’s dismay about the events is what caused her to write and perform.

21

Content: parallelism

Choice B is the best answer because the underlined portion is one of two actions joined by “and” that the stage and airwaves could be used for. The first action is “to promote.” Choice B maintains the same grammatical structure by using the infinitive “denounce,” though it does not repeat the “to.”

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they are different verb forms than “to promote,” so are not parallel around “and.”

22

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice B is the best answer because the question is asking for a choice which shows that Simone “motivate(s) members of her audience to take political action.” In other words, a choice that shows that Simone encourages others to join a political cause. Choice B supports that goal because it says that Simone “encouraged” or “motivated” “listeners,” which is another way of saying “her audience.” “recognizing and dedicating,” meaning “identifying and using,” abilities “to the cause of civil rights” means that she wanted them to join the political cause of promoting civil rights.

Choice A is incorrect because it only says that Simone “wanted to reach people with her message,” but it does not give any evidence that the message was to encourage others to take political action. Choice C is incorrect because there is no reference to the content of her music, just that she became famous. Choice D says that Simone was recognized by the Congress of Racial Equality, but it does not explain why. There is no indication that she tried to motivate others to take any political action.

23

Content: pronouns

Choice B is the best answer because the portion of the sentence in front of the comma is a modifier that needs to refer to the subject of the main clause. Since the subject is the plural “industrial/organizational (I/O) psychologists,” “specialists” agrees because it is also plural.

Choices A and C are incorrect because they refer to a singular “a specialist,” so cannot be used to describe the plural “industrial/organizational (I/O) psychologists.” Choice D is incorrect because “those” has no clear reason, creating an ambiguous sentence. “Those” can be a pronoun, but a pronoun should not be used to rename the following noun. “Those” can also be used to single out a particular part of a general whole, but that usage does not fit the context of offering a definition.

24

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice C is the best answer because the underlined portion is part of a modifier describing “expense.” The author's intent is to show that a company has the possibility of being concerned about the expense. “May be” is a modal verb that shows possibility but not certainty. “Wary” means “cautious” or “concerned,” so fits the context well.

Choices A and B can be eliminated because “maybe” is an adverb, but there is no verb that it refers to. A verb is needed between the subject “companies” and prepositional phrase “of taking on.” Choices B and D are incorrect because “weary” means “tired” rather than “concerned.” Companies may be tired of paying an expense after doing it for a long time, but they would not be tired at the point that they “take on” the expense.

25

Content: possession and possessive pronouns

Choice B is the best answer because “dynamics” and “variables” are both things that belong to the team. Neither word possesses or owns anything in the sentence, so there is no need for apostrophes of possession.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they contain apostrophes that erroneously imply that the “dynamics,” “variables,” or both own something.

26

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice D is the best answer because it means that there are risks that are potentially extremely dangerous. It precisely and professionally conveys the situation astronauts must deal with.

Choices A and C are incorrect because they only imply that there are risks or unpredictability. They do not necessarily include the element of danger. Choice B is incorrect because it means “dishonest,” which refers to moral integrity rather than physical dangers. All the other choices are also relatively casual, so not only are they imprecise but they also depart from the formal tone of the passage.

27

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice C is the best answer because the paragraph starts by saying that successful companies rely on worker happiness; evidence is provided that shows that unhappy employees can lead to significant financial loss. The paragraph then describes how I/O psychologists can help make employees feel happier about their work. Choice C introduces this paragraph well by summarizing the main point: I/O psychologists help make workplaces successful, or “improve workplaces” by focusing on “employee satisfaction,” which is the same thing as “employee happiness.”

Choice A is incorrect because there is no discussion of survey results related to the “effectiveness” or “success level” of I/O psychologists; the only survey results are related to successful companies. Choice B is incorrect because only one factor—happiness—is discussed in relation to employee productivity. A “variety” refers to more than one factor, so does not accurately describe the content of the paragraph. Choice D is incorrect because the paragraph does not differentiate between “recommendations” or “suggestions” and the way that they are “implemented” or “put into effect.” The paragraph only says that I/O psychologists design certain types of programs.

28

Content: punctuation

Choice D is the best answer because a colon should be placed at the end of the main clause of a sentence and before additional detail which elaborates on that clause. A colon therefore fits the context of dividing a clause that says that worker “morale,” or “confidence and enthusiasm,” is important to a company and a second clause that gives specific detail about a survey that supports that claim. No other punctuation is needed in the underlined portion.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because there should be no comma after “study,” which is the subject of the clause, separating it from its verb, “found.” Choice C is also in error because the comma after “morale” creates a comma splice between two independent clauses.

29

Content: transitions

Choice A is the best answer because the previous sentence says that morale is important and that employees with poor morale can cost a company a significant amount of money. The following sentence says something that I/O psychologists do: they research different ways to do something. Choice A links these two ideas by showing that solving the problem in the preceding sentence is the reason that the I/O psychologists do the research.

Choices B and C are incorrect because they indicate that the following happens “in spite of” or “even though” the action in the previous sentence occurs. They do not establish the correct cause and effect relationship that the first is the reason for the second. Choice D is incorrect because it brings up an idea. “variability” or “changing levels,” that is not expanded upon in either the previous or following sentence.

30

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice B is the best answer because the underlined portion refers to something that is part of I/O psychology that helps meet the needs of attracting and retaining high-performing employees. Choice B refers to a deep understanding of something. Therefore, it fits the context of saying that the deep psychological understanding helps solve the difficult problem.

Choice A is incorrect because it refers to knowledge that is based on guesses or feelings rather than on any facts or statistics. However, the passage refers to research done by I/O psychologists (such as in the previous paragraph, “some I/O psychologists research ways to make employees feel valued and engaged”), so the information they provide is based on solid data. Choice C is incorrect because it refers to the ability to see things as opposed to the ability to solve a problem. Choice D is incorrect because it is the ability to make good decisions, in particular, those related to culture, so does not refer to a method for solving problems of companies.

31

Content: graphics

Choice C is the best answer because the claim in the first half of the sentence is that “I/O psychology is still a relatively small field,” meaning that there are not many people who do that job. The first sentence of the passage says that “I/O psychology” is short for “industrial/organizational psychology.” Choice C accurately reports the number of I/O psychologists (the second row in the graph) in 2012 (the first column in the graph). This number, 1,600, is very small considering how many people live and work in the United States.

Choices A and D are incorrect because they refer to an increase in the number of all psychologists or the number of all psychologists in the future. There is no evidence to support the claim that now the specific field of I/O psychology is small. Choice B is incorrect because it does not explain how many I/O psychologists there are now; it could be an extremely large number but very few more are expected to be added before 2022.

32

Content: graphics

Choice C is the best answer because the claim is that “I/O psychology is one of the fastest-growing fields in the country.” The first sentence of the passage says that “I/O psychology” is short for “industrial/organizational psychology.” The second row from the top in the chart contains the information for “industrial/organizational psychologists.” The column on the far right shows the projected percent increase in number of jobs between 2012 and 2022. That percentage is 56, as given in Choice C.

All of the other choices misread the data from the graph. Choice A refers to the projected number of total psychologists in 2022, not the number for only I/O psychologists. Choice B is the percentage of change for a different type of psychologists, those that are “clinical, counseling, and school psychologists.” Choice D is incorrect because it refers to the change in “other psychologists,” but “I/O psychologists” are on a separate line so are not included in that group.

33

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice D is the best answer because the first part of the sentence, “though companies…hire I/O psychologists,” is a dependent clause. It needs to be joined to an independent clause with a comma to complete the idea. Since “doing so…investment” can stand on its own, it is an independent clause.

Choice A is incorrect because “but” turns the following portion into a dependent clause, leaving the sentence without a complete, main clause. Choices B and D are incorrect because a semicolon should divide two independent clauses, but in both cases, neither the preceding nor the following portion can stand on its own.

34

Content: possession and possessive pronouns

Choice A is the best answer because “conservationists” is the subject of the sentence and does not possess anything else in the sentence, so the word does not need an apostrophe of possession. “Hundreds” describes “at-risk species” but does not own it, so also does not need an apostrophe. The underlined portion is correct without any punctuation.

Choices B and C are incorrect because “conservationists” is the subject, so should not have an apostrophe that shows that it owns something. In this case, it does not matter whether the apostrophe comes before or after the “s,” though Choice B is the form for more than one conservationist and Choice C is the form for only one conservationist. Choices C and D are incorrect because “hundreds” does not own the “species,” so there should not be an apostrophe after the “s.”

35

Content: precision and concision

Choice D is the best answer because “ensure” means to “make certain” or “guarantee.” There is no need to repeat the idea; the sentence formed by Choice D provides all the needed information in a concise, clear way.

All of the other choices are incorrect because they are redundant; “ensure” contains the ideas of “guarantee” and “make certain,” so there is no need to restate those points.

36

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice D is the best answer because the topic of the sentence is that “scientists and government officials must define it for themselves,” so “it” needs to be clearly identified. Choice D does so because it clearly shows that “it” is the exact meaning of “a significant portion.”

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they do not accurately show what “it” refers to. Choice A brings up the idea of “negative economic impacts” or “bad effects on the economy,” which is not mentioned in the sentence at all. Choice B is vague because it does establish that there is “disagreement about the terms,” it does not explain what term needs to be defined by “scientists and government officials.” Choice C is incorrect because there is no discussion about critics of the ESA or suggestions for improvement in the sentence; suggestions for improvement come later in the passage.

37

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice B is the best answer because the underlined portion is referring to conclusions about the definition of “a significant portion.” Since the conclusions are “different,” it shows that the conclusion was indeed made rather than a conclusion that is in the process of being made. In Choice B, the idiom “reach a conclusion” is used to show that the process is over.

Choices A and C are incorrect because they are used to show that the people are trying to come to a conclusion but have not completed the process. They are striving for an answer, which does not fit the context of arriving at different conclusions. Choice D is incorrect because “outreach” refers to the “extent of influence” of someone or something, so does not make sense in the context of “an extent of influence of different conclusions.”

38

Content: syntax

Choice B is the best answer because the main clause of the sentence is “conservationists could…of measurement.” The preceding portions should therefore be dependent clauses that modify the main clause. “While” is used as a conjunction meaning “although,” showing that “debating methods” needs to be done before the action of the main clause, identifying at-risk species, is possible. Choice B is used to show that one other thing, “defining the set number of years,” also needs to be done, so effectively explains the relationship between the parts of the sentence: the first two conditions need to be met, then the main action is possible. The abstract structure for B is "While SVO1, and SVO2, SVO3." In this formula, SVO3 is the main clause. SVO1 and SVO2 are dependent clauses.

All of the other choices are incorrect because they create a comma splice between independent clauses. The transitions in Choices A and C are separated from the main sentence with commas, so they do not subordinate “the set number of years would need to be defined” in any way. Since that statement is an independent clause, it cannot be followed by another independent clause, “conservationists could identify at-risk species using this standard of measurement.” Choice D also has no words to subordinate the following clause.

39

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice D is the best answer because the rest of the paragraph describes the two categories of risk established by the ESA compared to the three categories used by the IUCN. The IUCN also lists a larger number of species. Choice D introduces this topic because it suggests that the ESA should be “more inclusive” or “containing more elements” that would make the categories clearer and cover more organisms.

Choice A is incorrect because “tighter restrictions” means “limitations that are stricter.” However, the paragraph is not arguing for rules that are rigid and hard to change; it is saying that there should be more categories to protect more creatures. Choice B is incorrect because the paragraph does not refer to defining terms, which is discussed in the previous paragraphs. It only explains what terms are used by which agencies. Choice C is incorrect because “oversight” refers to “management” or “control.” The paragraph does not say that the management needs changed in any way.

40

Content: sentence combination

Choice A is the best answer because it concisely changes the data in the second sentence into an explanation of the claim made in the first sentence. It reduces unnecessary words so that the second sentence is just a list of terms and their definitions.

In Choice B, “respectively” is not needed because it shows that the following things are in an order already mentioned, but no related order is given. Choice C is incorrect because “being” in a dependent clause refers to a quality of something that affects the action in the main clause. However, names of groups are not a “quality” that affects the categories of risk. Choice D is incorrect because “they are” is redundant; a colon already indicates that the following list is related to the previous claim.

41

Content: punctuation

Choice D is the best answer because “a private environmental group” is an appositive, or a noun that renames the previous noun, “the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).” An appositive should be divided from the main clause using the same punctuation on both ends. In this case, “a private” is preceded by a comma, so “group” should also be followed by one.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication about where the appositive ends and the main sentence begins; the subject “the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)” is separated from its verb, “acknowledges.” Choices B and D are incorrect because the same punctuation should be used at the start and end of an appositive, and a comma is used before “a private.” In addition, a single semicolon or dash should only follow an independent clause, but there is no verb before the underlined portion.

42

Content: subject-verb agreement

Choice C is the best answer because when the complete subject “a comparison of animals classified by the ESA and the IUCN” is simplified, the subject is the singular “a comparison.” Choice C agrees because it is singular.

Choices A and D are incorrect because they are plural, so cannot be used with the singular subject “a comparison.” Choice B is incorrect because the underlined portion is the main action of the sentence, so it must be an active verb. Choice B is not a complete verb; it is a participle because it is missing “to be.”

43

Content: graphics

Choice B is the best answer because the passage’s main argument is that the ESA’s classification system is not complete enough and should be revised along the lines of the system used by the IUCN. Choice B effectively supports this point because it shows that a huge percentage—82.7—of species are not protected by the ESA that would be protected if the IUCN system were used. Choice B also logically completes the sentence, which refers to a “comparison” between the systems.

Choices A and D are incorrect because they only refer to data related to the IUCN system. The average reader has no idea about how many species the ESA lists nor how many classes of animals there are, so the IUCN numbers could actually be smaller than the equivalent figures for the ESA. In addition, data about only the IUCN does not logically complete the sentence, which refers to a “comparison.” Choice C is incorrect because it only refers to one type of species, so does not give a clear reference point for the overall difference between the two systems. For example, the ESA may not include many amphibians, but it could have a much more complete list than the IUCN for all other categories of plants and animals.

44

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice A is the best answer because the argument in the final sentence of the paragraph is that earlier intervention could save money and effort when compared to waiting for drastic, last-minute intervention to protect endangered species. Choice A effectively shows that a different argument than the preceding ones is about to follow: one that is “financially advantageous,”or “saves money.”

Choice B is incorrect because the following argument is not about “pleasing conservationists” or the best strategy “to make conservationists happy.” Choice C is incorrect because the final argument is not that “further” or “more” revision is needed; that argument is proposed earlier in the passage. Choice D is incorrect because the final sentence does not refer to the problems of other “nations” or “countries” at all.

1

Choice B is the best answer because at first Hattie is overwhelmed by the new city and does not like what she sees, there was “too much of everything” (line 37). However, upon watching the interactions of the Negro woman and the white flower seller and the girls on the street, she changes her mind about staying in the city, “I’ll never go back. Never” (lines 83-84).

Choice A is incorrect because there is no reference to the level of activity in Hattie’s life, only to the level of activity of the city. She could actually be anticipating a more “quiet” or “calm” life because black people are not treated poorly, they “did not step into the gutters to let the whites pass and they did not stare doggedly at their own feet” (lines 740-75). Choice C is incorrect because there is no indication that Hattie’s past life was “unrewarding” or “not satisfying.” If anything, she appears to prefer the environment she grew up in, because she misses the woods and is overwhelmed by the new place (lines 25-35, “the main thoroughfare…before she saw it”). Choice D is incorrect because the passage does not mention a memory of the past at all, let alone a “significant” or “important” one. She is observing the actions in the present rather than coming to an “ultimate” or “complete” understanding of something from the past.

2

Choice D is the best answer because the phrases refer to “the dream of Philadelphia” (lines 7-8). She is just arriving in Philadelphia for the first time, so the phrases refer to her “anticipation” or “expectations” of the city. “Round” is often used to refer to things that are ripe and full, so it gives the idea of looking forward to something that is good or promising. On the other hand, a “needle” is sharp and hurts, which shows that she also is fearful or worried. Therefore, her anticipation “encompasses” or “includes” both hopefulness about good things and “dread” or “fear.”

Choice A is incorrect because “fleeting” means “extremely fast.” However, round things or needles are not necessarily “fast;” the description is that these are things held within her body for possibly a very long time. Choice B is incorrect because a “discrepancy” refers to a “difference.” “Subjective perception” refers to something that is thought or believed to be true. However, there is no indication that Hattie thinks that things are different than they really are. She is worried about what Philadelphia will be like but does not see it in a different way. Choice C is incorrect because a “reconciliation” is a “reunion” or “restoration to a friendly state.” However, the phrases emphasize the “seemingly contradictory” or “apparently opposite” feelings that Hattie is experiencing. The phrases do not show that she has “reconciled” or “made the feelings agree with each other.”

3

Choice C is the best answer because “temporary distress” refers to “a short period of anxiety or panic.” The moment she is separated from her mother, “Hattie looked back in panic” (lines 19-20), showing that she first felt “distress.” The emotion continues as she gets outside and tries to find her family because she trembles and searches desperately, “her knees knocked under her skirt and sweat rolled down her back A hundred people had passed her in the few moments she’d been standing outside, but none of them were her mother and sisters. Hattie’s eyes hurt with the effort of scanning the faces of the passersby” (lines 40-45). However, as she waits and watches how Black people are treated, she becomes calmer, showing that the distress is “temporary” or “short.” By the time her family rejoins her in lines 83-84, she is comfortable in the new place, “Mama,” Hattie said. “I’ll never go back. Never.”

Choice A is incorrect because “social obligations” refers to “duties to people in the culture,” but there is no evidence in the passage that separation from her family helped “relieve” or “get rid of” any worries about how she should respond to others. Choice B is incorrect because there is no sign that Hattie is “usually” or “customarily” shy. Rather than showing “shyness” or “hesitancy,” she takes action by continuing to a place she can wait and searches for her family from there. Choice D is incorrect because “a preference for solitude” is “wanting to be alone more than in a group.” However, Hattie is desperate to find her family, “Hattie’s eyes hurt with the effort of scanning the faces of the passersby” (lines 44-45), so she wants to be with them rather than alone. Being separated does not “confirm” or “prove” that she likes to be alone.

4

Choice A is the best answer because “gained” refers to what Hattie did to the “double doors” (line 23). The paragraph shows that she was “borne along on the current of people” (line 22) to the doors, and after that point, “was pushed out onto a long sidewalk” (line 23-24). Therefore, Choice A fits the context because it means that Hattie “arrived at” the doors.

None of the other choices fits the context of what Hattie did with the double doors. Choice B means “made more in number,” but she did not create more doors. Choice C means “caused to have an interest.” However, the doors are inanimate so could not be interested in Hattie. Choice D means “to beat” or “win over,” but Hattie was not in a contest against the doors.

5

Choice D is the best answer because Hattie feels “capable of residing” or “able to live” in Philadelphia, since she decides “She could manage it” (line 39). However, the idea “unnerves” or “scares” her because “her knees knocked under her skirt and sweat rolled down her back” (lines 41-42). The actions of trembling and sweating show fear or nervousness, indicating that she is not comfortable with the idea of living in Philadelphia, even though she thinks she can.

Choice A is incorrect because “charms” refers to “appealing things.” However, her first impression does not include the idea of believing that the city was appealing. Rather, she did not like what she saw: “there was more of everything, too much of everything. But Hattie did not see a promised land in this tumult” (lines 36-38). Choice B is incorrect because there is no hint that Hattie feels that her “identity” or “personality” will “be altered” or “changed” by the city; therefore, there is also no hint that such a change would be “for the better” or “good.” Choice C is incorrect because the passage does not show that she wants to return to the country rather than stay in a “metropolitan area” or “big city.”

6

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that when she arrived in Philadelphia, Hattie felt she was capable of living there, but was “unnerved” or “scared” by the idea of doing so. Choice D provides direct support for that claim because it starts by saying she could “manage” (line 39) or handle” living in the city. It follows that assertion by saying that “at the same time,” or “even as she declared herself adequate” (line 40), she showed signs of nervousness or fear, she trembled, “her knees knocked” (lines 40-41) and sweated a lot, “sweat rolled down her back” (lines 41-42).

Choices A and B show that Hattie was overwhelmed or “unnerved” by the city, wanting to block out the sounds and feeling it was “too much,” but they do not offer any evidence that she felt she was “capable of residing” or “able to live” there. Choice C is incorrect because it compares Philadelphia to Atlanta but does not indicate that Hattie felt “capable of living” in Atlanta. Therefore, it does not support the idea that she felt she was able to live in Philadelphia.

7

Choice B is the best answer because Hattie “anticipates” or “expects” a “confrontation” or “hostile argument” between the White flower vendor and his Black customer because the customer knocked flowers and vases to the ground (lines 60-61, “vases and…pavement”). Hattie thinks that the other blacks will “distance themselves” or “get away from” the confrontation because she expects that “the other Negroes to step back and away” (line 63), literally putting “distance” or “space” between themselves and the problem.

Choice A is incorrect because “condemn the confrontation openly” means that they would protest about the problem in a public way, but Hattie does not think that anyone will complain or speak up to protect the Black customer. However, she does expect that the people will not “intervene” or “stop” the problem. Choice C is incorrect because “defuse” means “lessen the intensity.” However, there is no hint that Hattie thinks that others will say “calming words and actions” to make the confrontation less violent. Choice D is incorrect because Hattie does not suggest that the other Black people will argue about the “significance” or “meaning” of the confrontation. She appears to think that they will take such a confrontation for granted and try not to get involved in any way.

8

Choice B is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Hattie believes that many Black people would react to the confrontation that she expects between the flower vendor and customer who dropped the flowers and vases by “distancing themselves” or “getting away” as much as possible. Choice B shows that she believes that the “other Negros” will “step back and away” (line 63) or physically put “distance” or “space” between themselves and the “object of the violence” (line 64), meaning the “customer.”

Choice A is incorrect because it shows that Hattie expects an “explosion” or “confrontation,” but it does not suggest what she expects the other Black bystanders to do. Choice C is incorrect because it refers to the actions of the customer, not to the expected reactions of the Black bystanders. Choice D is incorrect because, although it shows what Hattie expects Negros to do in certain situations, it does not offer evidence about her expectations to a situation such as that between the flower vendor and his customer. It only refers to walking down the street, not to any specific confrontation between individuals.

9

Choice D is the best answer because the behavior described in lines 73-74 is that Hattie “looked more closely” at the people around her. That action shows that there is a “shift” or “change” is her view of the city. Before lines 73-74, she had a certain set of expectations—White people would treat Black people poorly. However, the encounter between the flower vendor and the Black customer made her suddenly “realize” or “understand” that her expectations might not fit. After she starts “looking more closely,” she notices other behaviors that are different from what she expected. The lines therefore “signal” or “point out” that she has a change in her thinking about the city.

Choice A is incorrect because “overall demeanor” refers to the “complete outward appearance” of a person. However, the change in Hattie is “inside” because it is a new way of thinking about the city and about how Black people can live together with White people without being subservient. Choice B is incorrect because Hattie is not just searching for her mother and sisters, she is starting to look “more closely at the crowd” (line 73). In other words, she is looking at the people and how they act rather than just trying to find specific people in the group. Choice C is incorrect because “waning” refers to “decreasing” or “less” interest. However, Hattie is not ignoring “issues concerning race;” she is doing the opposite. She is actively watching and finding examples of how Blacks and Whites treat each other as they walk down the street.

10

Choice A is the best answer because Hattie sees them “giggling and easy” (line 78) in conversation, meaning that they were “carefree” or “without worries” and laughing together. This was a contrast to what she was expecting, because they “did not step into the gutters to let the whites pass and they did not stare doggedly at their own feet (lines 74-76). She makes the comparison that these Black girls behaved “the way only white girls walked and talked in the city streets of Georgia” (lines 78-79). In other words, only White girls in Georgia could walk without stepping aside and talk casually in a “carefree” way.

Choice B is incorrect because there is no reference about how the girls treat Hattie, or about how she expects to be treated by them. Therefore, she does not refer to how they “dismiss” or “ignore” her. Choice C is incorrect because the topic of the girl’s conversation is not mentioned. The thing that Hattie notices is the “giggling and easy” (line 78) way in which they talk. Choice D is incorrect because Hattie does not refer to “home lives” or the things that the girls do in their houses. She only comments on how they walk down the street.

11

Choice D is the best answer because Passage 1 starts by “identifying certain flaws” or “pointing out some problems,” committed by the British, such as not performing the duties of government well (lines 1-3, “it is true…India”), not understanding the language and culture of the Indians (lines 4-8, “it is true…subjects”), and imposing heavy taxes (lines 10-12, “it is true…of law”). After listing these flaws, the passage hurries to “minimize them” or “make them appear less important”: “I see ample reason for exultation and for a good hope” (lines 14-15). The reason for considering them less important is because of the “perceived accomplishments” or the “things that the writer believes have been done successfully.” The third paragraph expands on the idea that “we have established order where we found confusion” (lines 16-17). The fourth paragraph describes peace and confidence between the states. The fifth paragraph says that the government is “anxiously bent on the public good” (lines 35-36). These are all examples of successful accomplishments that the writer feels make the flaws acceptable.

Choice A is incorrect because the writer does not say that the claims have an “underlying falseness” or “are not true when looked at closely.” Instead, he openly admits that “all this is true” (line 13). Choice B is incorrect because the writer does not say that certain “measures” or “policies” were too “tough” or “hard.” He also does not “express regret” or “show sorrow” for the effects of British policies. Instead, he praises the results because he says there is now “established order” (line 16), “moderation and clemency” (lines 33-34) and other benefits. Choice C is incorrect because the writer does not “evaluate certain criticisms” or “analyze different aspects of complaints.” Instead, he states the criticisms and says they are true without looking at them in detail. He also does not “propose solutions to address them” or “come up with ideas that would help solve them.” He implies that the complaints are acceptable given how much he feels has been accomplished.

12

Choice C is the best answer because “unified” refers to “joining together” the country. Choice C supports the conclusion that Macaulay believed that the British unified India because it says that “the petty dynasties” or “minor kingdoms” were “quelled,” which means “suppressed or “ended.” The “one overwhelming power” that ended the divided kingdom was the British rule.

None of the other choices provides evidence that the British control helped unify or join India. Choice A only says that British government was poorly done at times. Choice B only says that there is hope but does not explain why. Choice D says that the British kept their promise towards the various states. If anything, Choice D could weaken the claim that the country is unified because it still shows that the country is divided into units rather than being a single whole.

13

Choice D is the best answer because “not attended” is used to show the relationship between the plans and their success. Since the sentence is referring to a complaint, the proper meaning is that the plans did not have their desired effect. Choice D means “go together,” so it fits the context of effects that did not just go together as hoped with the plans.

None of the other choices accurately explains the relationship between the plans and success which did not happen. Choice A means “go to the same place often.” Choice B means “to keep or preserve.” Choice C refers to the success “taking the role” of the plans.

14

Choice A is the best answer because “charge” refers to the part of British rule that the “great people” (line 37) are “committed” or “entrusted” to. The intended message is that the people of India are protected or “cared for” by the British, as concisely expressed in Choice A.

Choices B and C are incorrect because the mood that the author says that Britain feels for the people of India is “paternal” (line 36) or “like a father.” “Charge” therefore refers to a positive aspect of Britain rather than an “attack” or “criticism.” Choice D is incorrect because the passage indicates that Britain has a larger role than just “paying money;” it is responsible for the complete protection and management of the country.

15

Choice D is the best answer because Passage 2 starts by saying that the British, or “alien” government “has ruined the country” (line 1). The first paragraph points out the reason that the British were able to enter: “we thought that everything that the rulers did was for our good” (lines 43-44). However, paragraph 2 explains that the original perceptions were wrong and that the Indians are “all in subordinate service” (line 61). It outlines what the true situation is: “at present, we are clerks and willing instruments of our own oppression in the hands of’ an alien government” (lines 71-72). The end of the passage states its purpose: “What the New Party wants you to do is to realize the fact that your future rests entirely in your own hands” (lines 80-81). The final sentence stresses the “negative realities” or “bad truths” of British rule: the Indians will “fall and be for ever fallen” (line 84).

Choice A is incorrect because the author is not trying to “trace the shifts” or “state the changes” in the reactions to the arrival of the British. He is trying to persuade his audience to do something about the problem, “if you mean to be free, you can be free” (line 83). Choice B is incorrect because “weighing drawbacks and benefits” means that both good and bad points are discussed and compared. Passage 2, however, does not discuss any good points or “benefits,” only bad points or “drawbacks.” There is no “weighing” or “comparison” of the two. Choice C is incorrect because, while the writer gives a “historical context” to show why the Indians at first accepted British rule, the purpose is not to “explain the importance” or “show the value or” of British rule. He is protesting that British rule should be ended.

16

Choice B is the best answer because the “initial” or “first” reaction was that “everything that the rulers did was for our good” (lines 43-44) and that the Indians were saved from “internal or external invasions” (lines 48-49). Since “prospect of strife” refers to “possibility of conflict and fighting,” the Indians were “relieved” or “no longer anxious” when they were saved from the fighting: “we felt happy for a time” (line 49).

Choice A is incorrect because Tilak’s concern is the “loss of political independence,” but he does not say that it was the first reaction to British rule. He says that the first reaction was that the people were “happy for a time” (line 49). Choice C is incorrect because “economic stability” refers to the steady production and supply of goods. However, the passage does not refer to manufacturing. The only “stability” brought by the British was an end to warfare of fighting. Choice D is incorrect because there is no mention about a “wariness” or “concern” that there would be “cultural implications” or changes in the ideas, behaviors, and arts of the Indians.

17

Choice D is the best answer because “fostering a widespread misconception” means “promoting a general untruth.” Lines 75-78 say, “Every Englishman knows that they are a mere handful in this country and it is the business of every one of them to befool you in believing that you are weak and they are strong.” In other words, the British retaining control partly by promoting the untruth that they are strong and the Indians are weak.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no reference in the passage so “approaches” or “methods” used by other nations that have colonies. Choice B is incorrect because there is no mention that there are “long-standing international principles” or “world-wide guidelines that have been in place a long time” about human rights. Choice C is also incorrect because other countries are not mentioned, so there is no evidence that support of any form comes from them.

18

Choice A is the best answer because “business” is something that belongs to “every Englishman” (line 15). The “business” is the goal of “befool you in believing that you are weak and they are strong” (lines 77-78). Since Choice A means “goal,” it fits the context of describing what the Englishmen have.

None of the other choices describes “business” as it is used in the passage. Choice B refers to a “party” or “group” of people, but the Englishmen are a group, they do not own a group. Choice C refers to earning a living, but the method of earning money is not to convince the Indians that they are weak. Choice D is incorrect because it refers to a given “privilege” or as opposed to something that the Englishmen want to have happen.

19

Choice C is the best answer because Tilak refers to the stability of the British—an “occupying power”—as resulting in “subordinate service” (line 61), meaning “menial roles.” He says that there is a “great cost” or “high price to pay” because the Indians give up their dignity, “you will fall and be for ever fallen” (lines 83-84).

Choice A is incorrect because Tilak does not say that stability “cannot be achieved” or “is impossible to get.” He does admit that there was stability or an end to fighting between foreigners as well as Indian states, “the internal or external invasions, as they call it” (lines 48-49). Choice B is incorrect because Tilak does not compare “abstract” or “theoretical” stability to stability “in reality” or “that exists.” He never says that theoretical stability is better than the real thing. Choice D is incorrect because Tilak does not claim that stability “occurs naturally” or “happens on its own.” He mentions that before the British came, there was “internecine warfare” (line 48), which is warfare within the country’s borders. Since that warfare was only solved with “intervention by foreign nations” or, in this case, “British rule,” there is no hint that the warfare would have been solved on its own without the British rule.

20

Choice A is the best answer because Macaulay “characterizes” or “describes” the plans as “dictated by the purest and most benevolent feelings” (line 9), meaning that they were only motivated by kindness and love for the Indians. Tilak would “reject” or “refuse to accept” that description because he feels that “in politics there is no benevolence” (lines 55-56). He would say that the British just tried to “sugar-coat the declarations of self-interest” (line 57). By that, he means that the British said that the plans were “benevolent” and designed to help others, but really, they were just doing things to help themselves.

Choice B is incorrect because Tilak would not be “puzzled” or “confused.” He would not think that the plans’ “outcomes” or “results” were “represented” or “described” in a “pessimistic” or “negative” way. He would think that the outcome of “not…attended by the desired success” (line 10) is logical, given that the plans were designed to help the British rather than the Indians. Choice C is incorrect because Tilak would not be “amused” or think that the plans were “funny” because he thinks that they were designed to deceive the Indians into thinking that they were “benevolent.” In addition, there is no indication that he feels that the plans were “far beyond Britain’s capacity to execute” or “too difficult for Britain to achieve.” Choice D is incorrect because Tilak’s passage is not “accepting” or “agreeing to” the policies. He does not “grant” or “admit” that “nothing to be gained by criticizing.” On the contrary, he points out that it is important “to realize the fact that your future rests entirely in your own hands” (lines 80-82). In other words, he would suggest fighting the plans rather than accepting them.

21

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Tilak would most likely reject Macaulay’s characterization or “description” of “some plans” (line 8), arguing that the plans were more self-serving than noble and generous. Since Macaulay’s characterization is that the plans were “dictated by the purest and most benevolent feelings” (line 9), Choice C shows why Tilak would “reject” or “refuse to accept” the description: he feels that any “benevolence” is just a way to “sugar-coat” or “hide” the selfish motivations of the British.

Choice A is incorrect because it only says that the Indians were “dazed,” which means “amazed.” It does not explain why, so does not give any reason that Tilak would reject Macaulay’s description of the plans. Choice B hints that there was a problem, but there is no evidence that shows that Tilak would say that Macaulay described the plans inaccurately. Choice D is incorrect because it says that the Indian situation is not good but does not say that Tilak would refuse to accept Macaulay’s description of the plans.

22

Choice A is the best answer because lines 12-15 introduce the topic of the passage: “In recent research, Feeney et al. show that collective defense against brood parasites can enhance such benefits of cooperation.” In other words, the study “examines the relationship” or “analyzes the connections” between birds that cooperate and birds that are parasites. Paragraph 2 discusses the premise the researchers used in creating their study “sociality can be pivotal” (lines 25-26) to avoiding parasitism. Paragraph 3 says that the researchers found a strong “correlation” or “connection” between the two types of birds, as they tend to live in the same geographical region: “they show that the global distribution of cooperatively breeding birds overlaps strikingly with that of brood parasites” (lines 28-30). Paragraphs 4 and 5 discuss the observed relationships between fairy wrens and bronze cuckoos: cooperating birds tend to have a higher rate of offspring raised, “0.2 more young fledged per season on average” (line 57). The final paragraph summarizes the findings. Therefore, the entire passage is structured to “consider” or “discuss” a study about bird cooperation and parasitism.

Choice B is incorrect because the study does not “determine” or “show” the methods or reasons that cooperative breeding “initially evolved” or “first began.” Lines 63-64 directly say, “they cannot reveal what caused cooperation to evolve initially.” Choice C is incorrect because the survival rates are only compared in the context of larger cooperative groups and smaller cooperative groups. There is no comparison of those rates with those of birds that do not breed cooperatively. If anything, the passage, says that fairy wrens have “low annual fecundity” (line 59), which implies that they raise fewer rather than greater numbers of chicks than other species. Choice D is incorrect because the “breeding patterns” of the two types of birds are not discussed in detail. For example, there is no mention of brood size, numbers of broods per season, length of time in the nest, etc.

23

Choice D is the best answer because the “interpretation of existing data” or “analyzing data from another source” is discussed in the third paragraph. Feeney’s group analyzes data from Birdlife International and the result is “unfolding a new map” (line 27), in other words, finding new information that was not previously seen. That information is “that the global distribution of cooperatively breeding birds overlaps strikingly with that of brood parasites” (lines 28-30). An “overlap” is a type of “association,” so this “striking” or “notable” overlap could be described as a “consistent association.”

Choice A is incorrect because there is no evidence that the group found “previously unknown” or “new” areas where cooperative breeding birds “engage” or “live.” Instead, they used the data that was already collected from Birdlife International about such birds. Choice B is incorrect because Feeney’s group did not use the information from Birdlife International to “validate” or “prove” any theories about “social complexity” or “intricacies in behavior.” The group only used the data to determine where the birds lived. Choice C is incorrect because the data from Birdlife International already “pinpointed” or “showed” where brood parasites live. Feeney just analyzed that data to see if there was a connection between the parasites and the cooperative breeders.

24

Choice B is the best answer because “not reflect” is used to show the connection between “the overlap” (line 31) and “a causal relationship” (line 31). Since the overlap refers to the fact that brood parasites and cooperative breeders live in the same place, the sentence is warning that the connection may not be “causal” or “one makes the other happen.” This point is confirmed by the possibility offered after the colon, “The same unpredictable environments that favor cooperation could also favor alternative breeding strategies such as parasitism” (lines 31-34). Since Choice B means “show,” it fits the context that the overlap may not show a causal relationship.

None of the other choices fits the context of describing how the overlap and causal relationship relate to each other. Choices A and C mean “to think about,” but the overlap cannot think. Choice C means “to make a copy of,” but the overlap cannot make a copy.

25

Choice A is the best answer because “favor” is used to show what the “unpredictable environments” (line 32) do to “cooperation” (line 32) The word is later used to show what the environments could also do to “alternative breeding strategies such as parasitism” (lines 33-34). Since there are more birds with both behaviors in the unpredictable environments, the environments “encourage” or make the breeding strategies “easier.” Since Choice A means “to make easier,” it describes the relationship between the parts of the sentence well.

None of the other choices adequately describes what the environments do to the breeding strategies. Choice B means “look alike,” but environments and strategies do not have similar features. Choice C means “to allow to enjoy certain pleasures.” However, the unfavorable environments do not “allow” or “permit” pleasant behaviors. Choice D is incorrect because it means “praise” or “recommend,” but an environment does not actively compliment or give advice.

26

Choice A is the best answer because the “reproductive advantage” of the wrens refers to something that helps them have more babies. Choice A clearly describes this advantage as an average of “.2 more young fledged per season” (line 57). It also links that advantage directly to the size of the populations because that “reproductive advantage” is for “larger groups” (line 56). In other words, a greater-sized group leads to more babies.

None of the other choices show that show that group size affects “reproductive advantage” by changing the number of babies that live. Choice B just says that the authors do not know why cooperation evolved in birds. Choice C only says that there are more reasons for cooperative behavior than just parasitism. Choice D gives examples of birds that are cooperative breeders that do not face brood parasitism.

27

Choice B is the best answer because line 57 explains that fairy-wrens in larger groups have “0.2 more young fledged per season on average,” which is an extremely low number. However, the passage continues to say that it is significant “given the fairy-wrens’ low annual fecundity” (lines 58-59). Since “fecundity” refers to “fertility” or “ability to produce offspring,” it is clear that fairy-wrens produce very few, as .2 babies per year is considered a large increase.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no reference in the passage to the number of breeding partners or “mates.” Therefore, there is no evidence that the birds only breed as “lifelong mates” or “pairs that do not change.” Choice C is incorrect because, although lines 21-23 say, “parasitized parents typically not only lose their current offspring but also waste a whole breeding season raising a demanding imposter,” there is no evidence that a “breeding season” is only once a year, or “yearly,” for fairy-wrens. Choice D is incorrect because there is no evidence about how many clutches per year a fairy-wren can have or what time of year they lay eggs.

28

Choice C is the best answer because the last paragraph says that the results “cannot reveal what caused cooperation to evolve initially” (lines 63-64), because “brood parasitism alone cannot resolve the question of why some birds breed cooperatively” (lines 64-66). In other words, Choice C is “cautioning” or “warning” the reader not to use the findings to make an “unjustified inference” or a “conclusion that is not based on the facts.”

Choice A is incorrect because the last paragraph does not “concede” or “grant” that it is difficult to “assess the validity” or “determine the correctness” of the conclusions. By contrast, the last paragraph starts on line 60 by saying that “These results show convincingly….” In other words, the results are “convincing” or “persuasive.” Choice B is incorrect because the final paragraph does not “reevaluate a basic premise” or “consider one of the starting assumptions differently.” The final paragraph firmly states rather than “reevaluates” that the premise of a connection between brood parasitism and cooperation exists. Choice D is incorrect because data from other studies are not discussed in the last paragraph.

29

Choice C is the best answer because “nest parasitization” is shown on the y-axis as a percentage, so the taller bars refer to greater percentages. The data for Campbell Park is given in light gray columns. The small groups are on the left and the large groups are on the right. The Campbell Park column for small groups is about 50%, whereas the column for large groups is about 18%, so the small groups have more parasitization. The figures for Serendip Sanctuary are in dark gray. The small group column on the left is about 65% and the large group column is about 45%. Therefore, this site also shows more parasitization for small groups.

None of the other choices correctly interprets the data in figure 1. Choice A is incorrect because the small groups at Serendip Sanctuary had about 65% parasitized. If “half” of the large groups were parasitized, it would be about 32%. However, the actual figure is much more than half, it is about 42%. Choice B is incorrect because “at least 70%” means that the columns are at the 70% mark or taller. “At each site” means that the columns must be taller for both places. Although the dark column for Serendip Sanctuary is close to 70%, it is not quite halfway between the lines for 60% and 80%. The light column for Campbell Park is definitely lower than 70%, though, because it is lower than the 60% line. Choice D is incorrect because “all nests exhibited some degree of brood parasitization” means that every nest was parasitized. However, the percentage for “all nests” is 100, and neither the small nor large groups has a bar that is at 100%.

30

Choice D is the best answer because the columns for “Serendip Sanctuary” are dark gray, and the columns for “Campbell Park” are light gray. For the small group size on the left, the dark gray column is taller, meaning a higher percent of parasitization, than the light column. For the large group size on the right, the same is true: the dark gray column is taller. Therefore, both size groups had higher parasitization at Serendip Sanctuary.

Choice A is incorrect because the total number of nests is not given in figure 1. The only data provided is a percentage of nests that were parasitized, so it is impossible to determine which site had more nests. Choice B is also impossible to determine from the data provided because the overall population and number of birds per nest is not given. Choice C is also impossible to determine because the number of wrens per nest is not given.

31

Choice D is the best answer because “the average length of time spent attacking a cuckoo model” is given on the y-axis of the figure. Each line represents 50 seconds. The time for small groups, in light gray on the left, is between 200 and 250 seconds, about 220 seconds. The time for large groups, in dark gray on the right, is at 300 seconds. Therefore, the “range” or “area of variation” is between 220 and 300 seconds, a range that is included in Choice D.

Choices A and D are incorrect because they do not include the “range” or “extent of time” that includes the time for either the large or small groups. Choice C is incorrect because it includes the average time for small groups but not for large groups.

32

Choice D is the best answer because the passage begins by explaining the general situation of decision-making and deadlines, defining the “four distinct phases: pre-decision, post-decision (but pre-action), action and review” (lines 10-12) and pointing out that the crucial step between decision and action is a “a change in mindset” (line 14). The “particular view” discussed in the passage is one proposed by Tu and Soman: “the key that unlocks the implemental mode lies in how people categorise time” (lines 25-26). Paragraph 4 explains their theory in more detail ,so it is clearly understandable. Paragraph 5 introduces the research itself, “five sets of tests, with volunteers ranging from farmers in India to undergraduate students in Toronto” (lines 39-41). Paragraph 6 explains the results of “another set of experiments” (line 56) about carrying out tasks. The final paragraph summarizes and interprets the results of these two sets of experiments, “making people link a future event to today triggers an implemental response, regardless of how far in the future the deadline actually lies” (lines 71-74). In other words, the experiments provide evidence that supports the view proposed by Tu and Soman about understanding the concept of deadlines.

Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not “call for” or “urge” researchers to “investigate” or “study” anything. The passage is reporting the results of several experiments rather than trying to encourage people to do more experiments. Choice B is incorrect because the studies are not intended to determine the “effectiveness” or “success” of deadlines. The studies are designed “to flesh out [the] idea” (line 39) or to “develop the idea” that “tasks are more likely to be viewed with an implemental mindset if an imposed deadline is cognitively linked to “now”” (lines 27-28). There are also no suggestions for “lines of future research” or “more studies to be conducted.” Choice C is incorrect because “anecdotal evidence” refers to stories about personal experiences, but there are no such examples in the passage. The topic is also not the “benefits” or “good points” of deadlines; the topic is that people do the task sooner if the deadline is linked to the present.

33

Choice A is the best answer because the passage says that there is a decision-making phase followed by an action-taking phase (lines 9-12, “Previous studies…and review”). It continues to say that “once a decision is taken, the mind becomes more “implemental” and focuses on the task at hand” (lines 17-19). The example given is a shift to the “practical” or “specific and useful” problem-solving details such as “where can I get a sandwich” (line 20).

Choice B is incorrect because “benefits awarded” refers to “good things given to” people who “undertake” or “do” a task. However, the passage does not refer to the rewards of completing the task. In fact, the passage supports the opposite claim that the “benefits” are not related because the people in the first research study were all given the same task with the same reward, a “financial incentive” (line 42) for completing it. Choice C is incorrect because the studies show that “speed” or “how fast” the task can be done is not related to the decision to postpone it or not; the tasks given took the same amount of time. Choice D is incorrect because the “goals” or “desired results” of the person who set the task’s deadline are not discussed in the passage. The deadline may be set by someone other than the person who complete the task, as it is in the case of the studies.

34

Choice B is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that just before people enter the action-taking phase, their thinking is “characterized” or “notable for” a concern for the practical planning involved in completing a task. Choice B supports this claim because it shows how the mind goes from a more general, less “implemental” or “practical” stage of wondering about doing something, “should I…” to stage that is involved in solving the “practical details” or “specific pieces” of getting the task done, such as “where….”

Choice A is incorrect because it does not show that there is a shift in thinking just before the action-taking phase. There is no evidence that that phase involves planning the details to complete a task. Choice C is incorrect because it says that there is an “implemental” or “practical” mode but does not indicate that this mode happens just before the action-taking phase. Choice D is incorrect because it says how the implemental mode may be accessed but does not say when the implemental mode is used.

35

Choice A is the best answer because “drives” is used in a question that asks something about the previous theory. The following sentence says that “They believe the key…lies in how people categorise time” (lines 25-27), which gives the answer that “the key” or “the way to start something” is how people categorize time. Since Choice A means “causes” or “starts something,” it fits the context of asking “what causes the action in the previous theory?”

Choice B is incorrect because it means “limits.” However, the question is not asking for a limit because the answer is the thing which starts the progress. Choice C means “speeds up,” which does not make sense in asking a question about a cause. Choice C means “convinces,” but the process of getting things done is inanimate and does not make decisions. Therefore, it cannot be convinced.

36

Choice C is the best answer because the question is asking for a way in which some tasks are considered to be “like-the present.” Lines 27-30 offer the theory that “tasks are more likely to be viewed with an implemental mindset if an imposed deadline is cognitively linked to “now”—a so-called like-the-present scenario.” In other words, “like-the-present tasks” need to be “cognitively” or “in the mind” associated or linked with a “scenario” or “situation” that is in the present, meaning happening now. The examples that the author gives are “a future date within the same month or calendar year” (lines 30-31) and “pegged to an event with a familiar spot in the mind’s timeline (being given a task at Christmas, say, with a deadline of Easter)” (lines 31-34). These examples show that the length of time is not as important as the association, because “the same calendar year” could be almost a full year away, and Easter can be four months after Christmas. Therefore, the deadlines for a like-the-present task can “occur in the distant future” or “a long time from now.”

Choice A is incorrect because the research shows that the skills involved in the task are not important in deciding when the task should be done; the participants in the studies were all given the same tasks, but some viewed the tasks as like-the-present and others did not. Choice B is also incorrect because the “obstacles” or “barriers” to completing the tasks are the same in the research examples, so the number of barriers is not what changes the perception of the task. Choice D is incorrect because the passage indicates that like-the-present tasks are more likely to be completed than unlike-the-present tasks are.

37

Choice B is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that tasks may be understood as like-the-present even though they involve deadlines that occur in the distant future rather than in the near future. In other words, tasks with long deadlines might still be considered “like-the-present.” Choice B supports that claim because it directly gives two examples of deadlines “in the distant future” that could be considered “like-the-present”: a deadline “within the same…calendar year” (line 31) and “being given a task at Christmas, with a deadline of Easter” (lines 33-34).

Choice A is incorrect because it does not say what type of tasks might be considered “like-the-present” or not; it only says that tasks need to be started to be completed. Choice C is incorrect because it describes “unlike-the-present” tasks using “conversely,” which implies the opposite situation, but it only gives the example of a circled date on a calendar. Therefore, it does not show that “like-the-present” tasks may be far into the future. Choice D is incorrect because it only describes “unlike-the-present” tasks without showing what is possible for “like-the-present” tasks.

38

Choice C is the best answer

39

Choice B is the best answer because “emphasize the strength” refers to “stressing the importance.” The “research conclusion” is the thesis given in the final sentence after the colon. The final paragraph stresses the importance of that conclusion by saying that “these,” meaning the details discussed in the passage, support that thesis. That assertion made even stronger by the addition of “other bits of framing and trickery” (line 70), showing that there is even more evidence that was not discussed in the passage that supports the same thesis.

Choice A is incorrect because “propose” means “to suggest.” However, the final paragraph does not suggest that more studies are needed at a later time. Choice C is incorrect because “summarize the methods” involves a brief review of the techniques used. However, no specific techniques, let alone a complete outline or review, is given in the final paragraph. Choice D is incorrect because a “solution to a challenge” is an “answer to a problem.” However, the paragraph does not “recommend” or “suggest” any ways to solve a problem. In fact, it does not say that there is a problem at all.

40

Choice C is the best answer because “willingness” is given on the y-axis, with “Definitely Now” being at the top and “Definitely Later” being at the bottom, so the scale reads with the higher numbers towards the bottom and lower numbers towards the top. The deadline of May 2 corresponds with the far right-hand column marked “unlike-the-present” and “2nd.” “(2nd” refers to the date, as can be determined by looking at the key at the bottom which shows that there were two groups that were each divided into two different deadlines.) The top of the “2nd” column reaches about the 6 on the y-axis.

Choices A and D are incorrect because they do not correspond with any of the data points on the graph. Choice B is incorrect because it is closest to the answers for the “like-the-present” columns, which the key at the bottom shows correspond to April 29th and 30th.

41

Choice B is the best answer because the test described in lines 42-57 refers to farmers who actually took the action of opening a bank account and making a deposit or not. By contrast, the graph refers to subjects who were “asked to imagine” the scenario and say when they would be willing to start such a project. Therefore, an essential difference between results is that one refers to whether the situation was real or hypothetical.

Choice A is incorrect because the study in the passage does conclude that subjects are “unwilling to start” tasks that are “unlike the present” because “those with a deadline in the same year were nearly four times more likely to open the account immediately as those for whom the deadline lay in the following year” (lines 49-53). However, the graph supports the same conclusion. It does not show that such tasks are “eventually completed” or “finished at some point” because it refers to an imagined situation rather than a real one. Choice C is incorrect because the study in the passage was not concluded over a “relatively short time;” it recorded the behaviors of people over a period of “six months” (lines 43-44). Furthermore, the graph did not collect data from “over several months,” it refers to a study “conducted in April,” which is only one month. Choice D is incorrect because the study in the passage found a “large” rather than “small” difference between scenarios: one group was “four times more likely” (line 50) than the other to complete the task. The graph’s data does not show a “more substantial” or “larger” difference because the answers for the scenarios is 4 and 6, so the difference is not greater than “four times as likely.”

42

Choice B is the best answer because the first paragraph introduces a surprising find, “several kilometers below Oceanus Procellarum, … scientists have discovered a giant rectangle” (lines 2-5). This unusual feature is forcing scientists to realize “that the early moon was a much more dynamic place than we thought” (lines 13-14) and also “casts doubt on the decades-old theory that the circular Procellarum region is a basin, or giant crater, created when a large asteroid slammed into the moon” (lines 18-20). In other words, the discovery is suggesting “a new understanding” of the origin of the region. The third paragraph describes how the discovery was made using data from the GRAIL mission in 2012. The fourth paragraph ties the new data to the already-known fact that “the Procellarum region is rich in radioactive elements that billions of years ago would have produced excess heat” (lines 34-36) and explains how that heat could have created the formations, known as “rifting.” The fifth paragraph links the discovery to other celestial objects that have rifting. The final paragraph summarizes the discovery by saying that the researchers “have made a good case” (lines 54-55), meaning that their work is convincing, though there are lots of details left unexplained. Therefore, the passage is primarily interested in discussing a study about the origin of Oceanus Procellarum.

Choice A is incorrect because the “unanswered questions” brought up in the passage are not the ones which “motivated” or “inspired” the launching of GRAIL. Instead, the data from GRAIL revealed a structure, a rectangle under Oceanus Procellarum (lines 2-7, “several…ago”), that created the “unanswered questions” of what causes the rifting (lines 62-63, “so just…unclear”) or why there are more radioactive elements in one area (lines 66-69, “even if…enriched”). Choice C is incorrect because, while radioactivity is part of the theory about how the rectangular formation developed (lines 34-40, “scientists…larger scale”), radiation is only part of the larger discussion about the discovery of the formation and the other factors which caused it. Choice D is incorrect because “multiple planets” are only discussed in a list in lines 49-53 (“With the…ice shell”). The only “findings” or “discoveries” about rifting relate to the rifting on the Moon, not on the other planets.

43

Choice D is the best answer because “geological plumbing system” refers to the “giant rectangle” under Oceanus Procellarum. This phrase is an easy way for the average reader to visualize the area: a system of channels that carry fluid. The image gives a rough idea of the purpose of the unusual “internal structure” or “underground formation”.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no “technical term” or “scientific word” being defined. The phrase is used to describe a rectangular region. Choice B is incorrect because there is no problem described in the passage. A “plumbing system” does not cause, so is not the “source of,” any of the unanswered questions. Choice C is incorrect because the fact that the rectangle may have acted as a way to carry fluid does not “confirm” or “prove” that the result was surprising.

44

Choice A is the best answer because the comment about a basin rim is that “We don’t expect a basin rim to have corners” (lines 20-21). This comment shows how an “observation,” meaning the new data, “conflicts with the existing understanding,” or “goes against what was originally believed.” The original, “decades-old theory” (line 18) or belief was that “the circular Procellarum region is a basin, or giant crater, created when a large asteroid slammed into the moon” (lines 18-20). The comment that basins do not have corners emphasizes why the new data, which shows a rectangular area, weakens the argument that the region is a crater.

Choice B is incorrect because “refine” means “to add detail to” a definition. However, the definition of the “geological feature” of a “basin” is not changed. The thing that has been “refined” is an understanding of how the area formed. Choice C is incorrect because an “analogy” is a “comparison.” However, the comment refers only to a feature of the Moon. There is no comparison with the geology of the Earth. Choice D is incorrect because “measurements” refers to calculations such as height, width, etc. However, the comment does not show that any calculations were “erroneous” or “wrong.” The “erroneous” thing is the understanding of how the region formed.

45

Choice C is the best answer because line 23 directly says that “the work is based on data gathered by GRAIL.” Lines 28-32 expand on that claim saying, “Below known impact basins, GRAIL found the expected ring-like patterns, but underneath the Procellarum region, the mysterious rectangle emerged.” An “anomaly” is something “unexpected” or “mysterious“ so aptly describes the data that GRAIL found. Since that data showed a “striking pattern that demanded an explanation” (lines 32-33), Andrews-Hanna conducted the study to try to provide that explanation.

Choice A is incorrect because the central idea of the study was a “hypothesis” or “theory” based on what was found using GRAIL and that “demanded an explanation” (line 33). The GRAIL data did not “test” or “try to solve” the hypothesis because GRAIL came first. Choice B is incorrect because the study did not use the same “techniques” or “methods” to “gather” or “collect” data. “GRAIL mapped density variations below the surface” (lines 27-28), but the study only proposed a new theory based on data. It did not map density variations again. Choice D is incorrect because “competing interpretations” refers to “conflicting views.” However, there is no indication that there were more than one opposing views of the data. There was an existing view, the decades-old theory that the circular Procellarum region is a basin, or giant crater, created when a large asteroid slammed into the moon” (lines 18-20) that no longer worked, so the study tried to come up with an explanation to replace it.

46

Choice C is the best answer because lines 26-29 describe the type of data GRAIL collected: “Sensitive to tiny variations in the gravitational tug of the moon, GRAIL mapped density variations below the surface (because regions of higher density produce slightly higher gravitational forces).” This quote directly supports the assertion that the information showed “variations in the density of materials” that were “beneath” or “below” the surface.

Choice A is incorrect because “graduations in shading” refer to “differences in color.” However, there is no indication that GRAIL observed changes in color, only changes in density due to gravity. Choice B is incorrect because there is no reference to “volcanic activity” in connection with the data that GRAIL provided. The only “volcanic activity” discussed in the passage is theoretical rifting that may explain the variations recorded by GRAIL. Choice D is incorrect because “influencing” refers to “creating an effect” on something. However, the influences recorded by GRAIL are not ones which change the “gravitational tug.” GRAIL recorded the opposite, influences or changes caused by the “gravitational tug.”

47

Choice B is the best answer because the question is asking for an assumption that the team made when “evaluating” or “analyzing” the GRAIL data. Lines 36-40 say that “the study team theorizes that as this region cooled, the rock would have cracked in geometrical patterns, like honeycomb patterns seen on Earth in basalt formations, but on a much larger scale.” In other words, the team “theorized” or “assumed” that the rock would crack in “similar” or “almost the same” ways to the cracking of basalt rock on Earth when it “cooled” or “changed in temperature.”

Choice A is incorrect because there is no evidence that the team assumed that the patterns on the surface “mirror” or “are the same as” geometric patterns that are “subterranean” or “underground.” The team accepts the difference because they agree that the crater is round, and the underlying surface is rectangular, like “a nearly square peg underneath a round hole” (lines 1-2). Choice C is incorrect because the team rejected the idea that an asteroid collided with the surface for the reason that “We don’t expect a basin rim to have corners” (lines 20-21). Instead, they hypothesize that the higher temperatures in the Procellarum region came from “radioactive elements that billions of years ago would have produced excess heat” (lines 35-36). Choice D is incorrect because, although it is mentioned that another moon in the solar system, Enceladus (lines 51-53, “There are…ice shell”), has rifting, there is no evidence that while the team evaluated the data, they hypothesized that rifting on the Moon will “give insight” or “help understand” the behavior of other large moons.

48

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that when evaluating the data gathered by GRAIL, the team led by Andrews-Hanna hypothesized that the Moon would react to changes in temperature near the surface similarly to how Earth would react. Choice C supports this claim because it shows that the team “hypothesized” or “theorized” that the rock would crack similar to rocks crack on Earth when the area “cooled” or “changed temperature.”

Choice A is incorrect because it only says that the data revealed something unexpected. Choice A does not provide any evidence regarding assumptions that the team made. Choice B is incorrect because it only says that the region was hot. It does not refer to changes in temperature or assumptions that the team made regarding changes in temperature. Choice D is incorrect because it describes what the scientists theorize but does not show how the theory relates to changing temperature on the Moon and Earth.

49

Choice D is the best answer because the explanation for the change in color, or “what occurred to create the dark spot,” is given in lines 43-45: “Lava spilled out and paved over the Oceanus Procellarum, creating the dark spot that is seen today.” “Lava” is molten rock that pours from a crack or volcano. In this case, the lava came from cracks that “eventually grew into rift valleys” (lines 41-42). Therefore, “material” or “lava,” was what “rose to the cracked surface,” “paved over” or “covered” the region, and created the dark spot.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no mention of “rigidity” or “inability to change shape” associated with the Moon’s surface. By contrast, the weight of the material caused a change in shape, because it “caused the whole region to sink slightly and form the topographic low” (lines 46-48). Choice B is incorrect because there is no mention of a “change in the composition” or a “difference in the materials forming” the crust. There is only a discussion of how the existing materials moved to make the dark spot. Choice C is incorrect because the gradual cooling caused the surface rock, not “layers beneath the crust” to “contract” or “get smaller.” Lava from the layers beneath the crust were then able to flow out through the cracks.

50

Choice B is the best answer because the passage describes the Oceanus Procellarum as appearing “circular” (line 18) and indicates that impact basins are usually circular. The new data from GRAIL reveals a completely different, rectangular structure “below the surface” (lines 27-28). Therefore, scientists originally thought that it was an impact basin as a result of a “misinterpretation” or “incorrect understanding” of the “physical characteristics” or “what can be seen” in the region because they did not have access to information about the structures that could not be seen.

Choice A is incorrect because GRAIL did not collect “evidence of tectonic and volcanic activity,” which would include the movement of crust plates on an inner layer of magma. Instead, GRAIL collected data or “evidence” about “density variations below the surface” (lines 27-28). Choice C is incorrect because there is no reference to unexplained changes that are “observed” or “seen” taking place on the surface of the Moon now. In addition, the assumption that the Oceanus Procellarum is an impact basin is based on an event—an asteroid collision—that occurred in the distant past, so would not be caused by activity on the surface now. Choice D is incorrect because there is no reference to “evidence” or “proof” that similar patterns “shared a common origin” or “had the same cause.”

51

Choice A is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that scientists originally identified Oceanus Procellarum as an impact basin as a result of a “misinterpretation” or “incorrect explanation” of the “physical characteristics” or “parts that can be seen” of the region. Choice A indicates that the original identification or theory was based on the “circular” shape of the region. In other words, the scientists made an incorrect theory based on the parts that could be seen.

Choice B is incorrect because it does not refer to why the scientists originally thought that the Oceanus Procellarum was an impact basin; it only offers the source of the data for the revised theory. Choice C is incorrect because it does not say why the Oceanus Procellarum was originally thought to be an impact basin; if anything, the lines imply that it was clearly different from the other impact basins. Choice D is incorrect because it refers only to the revised theory and not to the original interpretation of an impact basin.

52

Choice D is the best answer because the other known examples of rifting give a “broader context” or “more background” about rifting, so that the conclusions that the team came to make more sense. Without that paragraph, a reader may incorrectly think that rifting only occurred on the Moon, so the process seems very hypothetical and open to doubt. With the paragraph, the reader knows that rifting is found in several very different places in the Solar System, so it is possible that it also exists on the Moon.

Choice A is incorrect because Frey does not say that the Earth and Moon have “identical” or “the same” tectonic mechanisms. In fact, he says the opposite, that the mechanisms must be different: “The moon is not big enough to have the same strong convective cooling process that Earth has in its interior, he explains, and ordinarily convection is one of the main mechanisms thought to lead to largescale rifting. So just what caused the rifting remains unclear” (lines 58-63). Choice B is incorrect because there is no evidence in the passage that the Procellarum “continues to experience” or “still has” rifting. The implication is that the process occurred in the distant past when the area was cooling. “Creating the dark spot that is seen today” (line 45) indicates that the spot is now not changing in its appearance, so the rifting is probably done. The example of the other planets in the fifth paragraph, in fact, implies that the process may be occurring elsewhere. Choice C is incorrect because there is no indication that the “understanding” or “view” of the rifting on other “celestial bodies” or “planets and moons” was “revised” or “changed” because of the GRAIL data. The GRAIL data only focuses on the Moon.

1

Content: punctuation

Choice D is the best answer because “while…1995” is a phrase that explains the time of the main clause, so should be separated from the main clause using a comma after “1995.” “Vik Muniz” is essential information for describing the subject “Brazilian-born artist,” because without the name, the subject could be any artist born in Brazil. Therefore, there should be no commas dividing “Vik Muniz” from the main clause.

Choices A and C are incorrect because commas before and after “Vik Muniz” turns the name into non-essential information describing the main subject, which is not the case. Choice B is incorrect because no comma should divide an adjective such as “Brazilian-born” from the noun it describes. Choice C is also incorrect because there is no comma after “1995” to distinguish the time phrase at the start of the sentence from the main clause.

2

Content: subject-verb agreement

Choice B is the best answer because the underlined portion refers to the plural “their parents.” Choice B is plural, so accurately describes more than one parent.

All of the other choices are singular nouns, so they cannot be used to describe more than one parent.

3

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice D is the best answer because the paragraph describes the process that Muniz uses to create the photograph: pouring and arranging sugar, photographing the image, putting the sugar into a jar and attaching the photo to the jar. Choice D effectively sets up this information because it shows that an outline of a process will follow.

Choice A is incorrect because the following paragraph contains no reference to boredom; the previous paragraph also points out that the motivation to create the art was “to pay a tribute to these hardworking families.” Choices B and C are incorrect because there is no evidence that the families saw the finished photographs; the intent was to show others about the work that the families invested.

4

Content: parallelism

Choice A is the best answer because the underlined portion is one verb in a list of actions joined by “and” that Muniz did in the past, “when he was finished.” The other verbs are “photographed” and “pasted.” Therefore, “poured” should also be in the simple past to maintain the parallelism of the list.

All the other choices can be eliminated because they do not contain the same grammatical structure as the other items in the list in the sentence.

5

Content: possession and possessive pronouns

Choice C is the best answer because the underlined portion is a possessive pronoun that shows who owns the jar. The proper noun is the subject of the sentence, “the sugar from each piece of black paper.” Since “sugar” is considered a singular unit, the proper pronoun is the singular “its.” The next sentence also says the “corresponding sugar” to the “jar,” meaning that each sugar belongs to one jar.

Choice A is incorrect because it is used to refer to a man rather than an object. This makes the jar appear to belong to Muniz. However, the word “own” makes it clear that there is one jar each for more than one thing, but there is only one Muniz. Choice B is incorrect because it is plural, so does not refer to the singular “the sugar” from a particular project. Choice D is incorrect because it is used to refer to a previously unmentioned subject, but “sugar” is clearly identified in the sentence.

6

Content: punctuation

Choice D is the best answer because all the parts of the underlined portion are essential to the sentence, so there should not be any punctuation in that section of the sentence.

Choices A and B are incorrect because the subject of the sentence is “The Museum of Modern Art in New York," the name of an institution. A subject should not be divided from its verb, so there should be no comma after “York” and preceding “included.” Choices A and C are incorrect because “its 1997 New Photography Show” are all needed to explain what the photographs were included in. Therefore, there should be no comma after “1997.” Choice C is also incorrect because there should be no comma after “photos” dividing the prepositional phrase of place, “in its…” from the main clause.

7

Content: addition and deletion

Choice B is the best answer because the following paragraph offers many examples of Muniz’s work and explains what they are made of: common materials such as food and garbage. The added sentence introduces this idea well because it says that Muniz makes original works and copies using common materials. “Since then” in the added sentence also provides a strong contrast because it transitions from the previous paragraph’s detailed description of the creation of one work of art to a series of works completed after that point.

Choice A is incorrect because the added sentence contains no objection; it just describes the type of works that Muniz creates. Choices C and D are incorrect because the added sentence effectively sets up the following list of examples so should be included in the sentence. The information does not blur the focus, it sets up the topic, so Choice C can be eliminated. The added sentence does not break down a claim, so Choice D can be eliminated.

8

Content: transitions

Choice D is the best answer because the underlined portion introduces a sentence that is one example in a list of different artworks created by Muniz using different media. Each point is a separate item, so no transition is required.

Choice A is incorrect because it is used to introduce an idea that is opposite a previously-given statement. However, the following example is not completely different or opposite; it is another supporting case of using ordinary materials to make art. Choices B and C are used to introduce a conclusion drawn from previous information. However, the information that precedes is that Muniz made landscapes using thread; that is not the cause of making a Da Vinci painting using chocolate syrup.

9

Content: precision and concision

Choice C is the best answer because the sentence already establishes that the paintings are “famous,” so Choice C provides the only information that is needed.

All the other choices can be eliminated as redundant because “well-known” has the same meaning as “famous.” Both words are not needed when describing the same noun, paintings.

10

Content: sentence combination

Choice A is the best answer because it clearly and concisely combines the underlined portions into a modifier “after…materials” that sets the time of the main clause, “Muniz gives permanence….”

Choice B is incorrect because “painstakingly…first” is a modifier that describes what Muniz does, so it should be placed directly in front of “Muniz.” However, it is mistakenly followed by “and.” “And” should join two portions of a sentence with the same grammatical structure, which is not the case. Choice C is overly wordy, repeating the subject “Muniz” two more times using the pronoun “he.” In addition, “after he does that” is implied by “then,” so both are not needed. Choice D is incorrect because “first” and “then” both refer to the main clause, confusing the sequence of events.

11

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice A is the best answer because it summarizes the main artwork brought up in the passage and sets those as the parameters for the following assertion about Muniz’s work. Since it refers to material discussed throughout the passage, it provides a solid conclusion to the entire essay.

Choice B is incorrect because “despite” implies that the following description of Muniz’s work occurs regardless of his interest in the children. However, the passage stresses that the children and the families were a trigger that began his interest in such a project. Choice C is incorrect because it says that Muniz is tired of “ephemeral” or “disappearing quickly” materials, but those are one of the reasons that the work surprises and challenges viewers. There is no evidence that he is tired of such materials for his art. Choice D makes the following assertions about Muniz’s art something that happens despite the fact that his work is shown in museums. However, the museum shows are a result of his goals to surprise and challenge viewers.

12

Content: possession and possessive pronouns

Choice C is the best answer because the underlined portion is a pronoun that should indicate that the “citizens” belong to the subject “communities.” The pronoun “they” in “they often regard…” is a clue that the subject is plural. Choice C is the proper possessive pronoun to refer to a plural noun that does not include the speaker or listener.

None of the other choices correctly refers to “communities.” Choice A is singular, so should not be used with a plural noun. Choice B is a general pronoun used when a specific antecedent is not present, but “communities” is a specific noun given in the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because “communities” does not involve the speaker; the pronoun “they” earlier in the sentence also shows that the first-person “we” is not being used.

13

Content: transitions

Choice D is the best answer because the previous sentence is that communities measure arts based on “quality of life.” The following information is that there is another important consideration, economic contribution. Choice D effectively joins these ideas by saying that the first purpose is important or “vital,” but “while” shows that the following purpose is just as important.

Choice A is incorrect because it erroneously implies that economic contribution is measured using “quality of life.” Instead, they are two completely different ways of measuring the value of art. Choice B is incorrect because it sets up a specific example of a previous claim rather than showing a contrast. Choice C is incorrect because “thus” introduces a conclusion based on the previous information, but economic contribution is not a result of “quality of life” measures.

14

Content: possession and possessive pronouns

Choice A is the best answer because the “contributions” belong to the “arts.” The passage is referring to the contribution of more than one specific art, as it refers to “artistic and cultural institutions” and “theaters, museums, and clubs.” The plural word “arts” is made possessive by adding an apostrophe at the end. No other apostrophes are needed in the underlined portion.

Choices B and D are incorrect because “art’s” is the possessive form of the singular word “art,” but the passage is describing the contributions of the arts in general rather than a specific type of art. Choices C and D are incorrect because “contributions” do not possess anything, so they do not need an apostrophe. It does not matter whether the plural “contributions” in Choice C or the singular “contribution” in Choice D is used; both are incorrect in the context.

15

Content: style and tone

Choice C is the best answer because it is a professional idiom that means that something is an important part of something else. This interpretation fits the context of describing arts groups as being an important part of communities because they act as both consumers and employers. Choice C also maintains the relatively formal tone of the rest of the passage.

Choice A is incorrect because it means “make an effort to help out,” which does not fit the context of describing contributions to the community which are a side effect of being consumers and employers. In addition, “seriously” is often used in casual speech, so makes the phrase sound less formal. Choice B is redundant because “fully” and “totally” have the same meaning. Choice D can be eliminated because “big-time” is extremely casual, so it does not fit the professional tone used in the rest of the passage.

16

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice D is the best answer because “all of which” acts as the subject of a dependent clause referring to the previous noun, in this case, the list of activities performed by arts organizations. A dependent clause should be divided from the sentence with a comma, as is correctly done with the comma after “catering.”

Choice A is incorrect because “all of these” is a noun that can stand on its own, so does not subordinate the following clause to the main clause of the sentence. The result is a comma splice between two independent clauses. Choice B is incorrect because “all of which” should not follow “and.” “And” needs to join two things that have the same grammatical structure, but the preceding portion is an independent clause and the following portion is a dependent clause. Choice C is incorrect because “all of which…” is not a complete sentence so cannot stand on its own after a period.

17

Content: transitions

Choice C is the best answer because it is used to introduce a point that expands upon previous information. This transition fits the context because the previous information is the benefit that arts organizations employ people within the community, and the following information is the expanded benefit that the jobs will most likely continue to remain in the community.

Choice A is incorrect because it is used to introduce a contrast or unexpected change rather than continue with more detail on the same topic. Choice B is incorrect because it is used to bring up a specific example illustrating the previous statement, but the following information is not a specific case. Choice D is incorrect because it is used to introduce a paraphrase or different wording to help make an explanation clearer, not to introduce a new thought.

18

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice D is the best answer because the quote is referring to something expected to happen in the future: the jobs will probably not be shipped overseas, so they will probably remain in the community. “To be likely to (infinitive verb)” is an idiom that correctly introduces a prediction.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they do not follow the proper construction for the idiom “to be likely to (infinitive verb).” Choice A is used to show something which is probably occurring now because “likely” divides a present progressive tense verb, “are remaining.” Choices B and C are not standard usage.

19

Content: graphics

Choice B is the best answer because the underlined portion is referring to the price spent per local attendee. The cost of admission is brought up in the main sentence, so it is important to notice how the figures relate to admission price. Notice that the fine print under the chart says, “the cost of admission to the event itself is excluded from the analysis,” which means that the figures are “in addition” to the cost of admission. The first column relates to “local attendees.” The bottom row of the chart shows the “total spending” at $17.42.

Choice A is incorrect because it gives the average price of spending for all attendees (final column), not the average for only local attendees. Choices C and D are incorrect because they say that the figures are “including” the price of admission, which contradicts the information below the chart. Choice D is also extremely convoluted. Because the “average spending of all attendees” is not mentioned in the passage, it is impossible for the reader to know how much the average local participant spent.

20

Content: graphics

Choice C is the best answer because “a relevant detail” is an important point that supports the claim that spending is boosted by attendees to arts events. Choice C not only provides accurate information from the chart (the columns for lodging, gifts and souvenirs, and ground transportation are all higher for non-local attendees), but it also emphasizes that all of these, not just some, contribute to increased spending if people are from out of town.

Choice A is incorrect because, while true, the reader has no idea about how much money is spent for child care. Since child care is mentioned as having less of an effect on spending, it does not strengthen the claim that spending is boosted by people attending an arts event. Choice B also could weaken the main claim because it offers a reason that some of the previously-cited information might be less profitable than first imagined. Choice D also does not reinforce the claim because without any framework for reference, $3 may seem to be a very low figure. As a result, it does not appear that arts events bring in a lot of money for the community.

21

Content: parallelism

Choice A is the best answer because the underlined portion is one action in a list of two actions performed by the subject “spending by arts organizations” and joined by “and.” Since the first verb is the simple present-tense “supports,” Choice A correctly maintains the parallelism by using the same tense.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they are not consistent with the verb “supports.” Choice B is plural rather than singular, so does not agree with the subject, “spending.” Choices C and D are not in the simple present tense.

22

Content: sentence combination

Choice B is the best answer because a comma followed by “including” subordinates the second sentence and eliminates any ambiguity about what “this” in the original sentence means.

Choice A is incorrect because “some” has no clear antecedent; it appears to refer to the closest plural noun, “economies,” but the economies do not include revenues returned to the government, the “billions” do. Choice C is overly wordy because “revenues” is followed by a pronoun “ones” that means the same thing. Choice D is incorrect because “money…” is the start of an appositive phrase, or noun that renames the noun that precedes it. However, the revenues are referring to “billions” rather than “economies.”

23

Content: transitions

Choice C is the best answer because the previous information is about a problem in the health care industry, and the following information is another detail that is contributing to the problem. Choice C effectively signals the relationship between these parts because it is a common phrase that is used to highlight that the following increases the severity a previously stated problem.

Choice A is incorrect because it indicates that the following information is something that eases or lessens a previously-stated problem, not something that contributes to it. Choice B is used to introduce a point that directly occurs because of the previous problem, but the students are not choosing different fields because of the lack of general practitioners. Choice D is incorrect because it is used to bring up a counterargument to a previous claim, not support the initial claim.

24

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice C is the best answer because the first part of the paragraph sets up the topic by saying that there is a lack of primary care providers and the problem is getting worse. Choice C effectively bridges this introduction to the body of the passage by explaining how the pharmacists are related to the problem: they help fill the role. The body of the passage rounds out this theme by explaining some roles that pharmacists can do, such as perform vaccines and adjust medications, to lessen the strain on primary care physicians.

Choice A is incorrect because the location where a pharmacist works is a minor detail compared to the overall topic of how they can help take on some of the duties of general practitioners. It also does not effectively show how the introductory information relates to pharmacists. Choice B is incorrect because the passage is not necessarily about the fact that pharmacists have the required knowledge now; the argument is that all pharmacists should be trained so that they do. Choice D is incorrect because the passage shows ways that pharmacists can replace the general practitioners, not the specialists.

25

Content: style and tone

Choice B is the best answer because the claim of the paragraph is that pharmacists can now provide services such as performing vaccinations. The first reason in the sentence is that the service saves patients’ money. This reason is a benefit for the patient. Choice B is similar because it also offers a benefit for patients: they don’t need to go to medical facilities.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they do not offer a benefit for the patient, so they are unlike the first reason in the sentence. Choice A shows how pharmacies benefit. Choice C shows how pharmacists benefit. Choice D does not provide a new reason, it only says that the previous reason is logical.

26

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice A is the best answer because it means “to give authority,” so it fits the argument that pharmacists should be allowed or given authority to perform more tasks usually done by physicians.

Choice B is incorrect because it means “to excite or make happy.” However, the argument is not that the pharmacists should be happy; they should be given authority to perform a task. Choices C and D are incorrect because they are variations of “encouraged.” The context, though, does not indicate that the pharmacists are not interested in performing the work.

27

Content: punctuation

Choice D is the best answer because “traditionally performed by physicians” is a modifier that describes the type of “task.” The modifier is considered essential because without it, the sentence would imply that pharmacists should be allowed to perform all tasks, and that all tasks are traditional done by the physicians.

All the other choices are incorrect because they divide essential parts of the sentence from each other. In Choices A and B, a comma after “tasks” indicates that pharmacists should be allowed to do all tasks; it removes the restriction explaining what kind of task and turns that restriction into a comment about all tasks. In Choices B and C, a comma after “by” or “performed” divides the passive verb “performed” from the prepositional phrase describing what does the performing.

28

Content: punctuation

Choice D is the best answer because the subject of the sentence is “CDTM programs.” “Which are common in hospitals and other clinical settings in many areas” is a relative clause adding more detail about the programs. As it is not essential to knowing what the subject is, the relative clause should be separated from the main clause with commas at the start and end.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no comma after “areas,” so it is not clear where the relative clause ends and the main clause begins. Choice B is incorrect because there is no comma after “programs,” erroneously restricting the subject only to “CDTM programs which are common.” “in hospitals and other clinical settings” is a prepositional phrase offering two places that describe where the programs happen, so they should not be removed from their noun, “programs,” with a comma. They should also not be separated from each other after “hospitals.” Choice C is incorrect because “in many areas” should qualify “hospitals and clinical settings” rather than “programs.” In other words, it should be inside the parentheses. Also, like Choice B, there should be no comma after “hospitals,” since the “and” is joining two simple nouns in a list.

29

Content: tense, mood, and voice

Choice B is the best answer because the paragraph is in the present tense discussing a situation that exists today: a division in the roles of pharmacists and physicians. Choice B shows that the situation is happening now rather than something that is over.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they do not fit the context. Choices A and C are past tense, but the passage is describing a situation that is true now. Choice D is conditional, meaning that it is giving a possibility that is not true now, but may be true if some condition is changed. However, the fact that the division of labor is helpful and cost-efficient is true now; additionally, there is no condition in the sentence that needs to be met.

30

Content: pronouns

Choice B is the best answer because the underlined portion refers to actions of pharmacists within something. Choice B clearly establishes that the “something” is a program, leaving no ambiguity about the modifier at the start of the sentence.

All of the other choices are incorrect because the underlined portion is a modifier that refers to the following word, “pharmacists.” Since the following word is a plural noun, the plural pronouns in Choices A, C, and D all appear to refer to the “pharmacists.” However, the actions of the pharmacists are not something that is part of the people, the actions are part of the program.

31

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice A is the best answer because a semicolon is properly used to divide two independent clauses from each other.

Choice B is incorrect because a comma needs to be followed by a subordinate clause, not an independent clause. The result is a comma splice. Choice C is incorrect because a colon should be followed by a statement, not a prepositional phrase, that explains the main clause. However, the following portion does not explain the previous claim; it adds new facts about the situation using the preposition “with.” Choice D is incorrect because a semicolon should be followed by an independent clause, not a dependent one.

32

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice D is the best answer because the main point about the CDTM program is that pharmacists can take over some of the duties of physicians. Choice D clearly explains how the situation in the first half of the sentence relates to that main point: the situation is an example that shows how pharmacists reduce the burden on physicians.

Choices A and B are incorrect because they focus on the nature of the medications rather than on the main point about CDTM programs allowing pharmacists to take over some of the duties of physicians. Choice B only shows how patients benefit; it does not link the benefit to the idea that CDTM programs help reduce the strain on general physicians.

33

Content: precision and concision

Choice A is the best answer because it concisely provides all the necessary information. The methods, or “ways,” are “innovative,” which is another way to say “new.”

Choices B and D are incorrect because “innovative” refers to something that is new and not done before, so “new” and “original” are redundant. Choice C is incorrect because the sentence uses the word “other” to describe the “ways.” Since “other” refers to an alternative, and the sentence says that the ways are an alternative to CDTM, there is no need to repeat “besides CDTM.”

34

Content: syntax

Choice C is the best answer because the sentence is a statement: scientists wonder something. Although “wonder” may appear to be a question, the structure is the same as any other noun-verb-object sentence, so the sentence should end with a period.

Choices A ad B are incorrect because the sentence is a statement about what scientists do, not a question. Therefore, a period, not a question mark, should end the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because “how were…” is a question structure, so should not follow “wondered” as an object.

35

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice A is the best answer because the claim in the first half of the sentence is that “oceans formed as icy comets collided with Earth after its surface cooled.” Choice A says that water in ice from a comet is the same as water on Earth. That similarity supports the idea that the water on Earth could have come from comets.

Choice B is incorrect because “challenged” means “contradicted” the theory. If the theory were contradicted, the claim would be weakened rather than supported. Choice C is incorrect because, though it shows that comets came close to Earth, it does not say that comets landed on Earth, nor does it say that comets contain any ice that could have turned into the oceans. Choice D only says that the entire debate is undecided, so does not support the claim that water came from comets.

36

Content: subject-verb agreement

Choice B is the best answer because the subject of the sentence is the plural “discoveries.” “About a mineral called ringwoodite” is a modifier that describes what the discoveries are. Choice B is a plural verb, so it agrees with the plural subject.

All the other choices can be eliminated because they are singular verbs so do not agree with the subject “discoveries.” Although the underlined portion is preceded by the singular “mineral called ringwoodite,” that is part of a phrase that describes the “discoveries.”

37

Content: punctuation

Choice B is the best answer because “a mineral…pressures” is an appositive, which is an added piece of information that defines the noun in front of it, “ringwoodite.” Appositives should be divided from the main clause with a comma at the start and end, so there needs to be a comma after “pressures.”

Choice A is incorrect because punctuation is needed after “pressures” to distinguish where the appositive ends and the main clause resumes. Choice C is incorrect because a semicolon needs to divide two independent clauses, but in the context, a semicolon divides the subject from its verb. Choice D is incorrect because, although “a mineral…pressures” could be given as an aside using dashes, the punctuation needs to be consistent at the start and end of the aside. Since “a mineral” is preceded with a comma, “pressures” needs to be followed by one.

38

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice D is the best answer because the paragraph starts by saying that ringwoodite was found in Brazil in 2009. The paragraph then describes a theory that scientists thought ringwoodite existed on Earth as it did in other celestial objects. Choice D sums up the paragraph by explaining how these two points are related and emphasizes the importance of the find: it helps support the theory.

Choice A is incorrect because the paragraph is about a discovery that occurred in 2009; there is no evidence in the paragraph that offers a reason that 2014 would be considered a “significant year.” Choice B is extremely vague; it does not clearly point out why the belief was “founded” by establishing a connection between the find in Brazil and the theory. Choice C is incorrect because it refers to a small detail of the paragraph rather than summarizing the main point.

39

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice D is the best answer because the information that follows is an argument that if the Earth contained ringwoodite, it might have been able to store enough water to make oceans. Choice D clearly introduces the topic of why finding the ringwoodite is “noteworthy” or important: the mineral can store water.

Choice A is incorrect because the fact that there are other minerals does not make ringwoodite noteworthy. The properties of ringwoodite make it notable compared to the other minerals when it comes to the argument of where Earth’s water came from. Choice B is incorrect because the size of Earth’s core is irrelevant to the argument that ringwoodite is notable because it can store water; the ringwoodite was found in the mantle, not the core. Choice C is incorrect because there is no connection why tectonic activity pushing mantle rock to the surface makes ringwoodite notable.

40

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice D is the best answer because “so” is used to introduce a conclusion, which logically connects the parts of the sentence. The first portion is a statement that the mineral can contain a lot of water. This statement is followed by a logical conclusion, that the mantle could have held water because of that mineral’s ability. “So” subordinates the second half so it is a dependent clause modifying the first, main clause.

Choices A and B are incorrect because “up to…water” and “vast amounts…zone” are both independent clauses. Joining them with a comma creates a comma splice. “Therefore” does not subordinate one of the clauses because it is set aside with commas at the start and end of the word. Choice C is incorrect because “while” turns the following portion into a dependent clause, so it cannot follow a semicolon. Semicolons divide two independent clauses.

41

Content: precision and concision

Choice C is the best answer because it provides all the information necessary to understand the author’s message that vast amounts of water may exist even though it is hot.

All of the other choices can be eliminated as redundant. “High temperatures” means that something is hot. Therefore, “heat” is not necessary to include when using that term.

42

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice B is the best answer because the sentence has two distinct parts which are joined at the underlined portion. Since the first part contains “although,” is a dependent clause that needs to refer to a main clause which could stand on its own as a sentence. Choice B includes a comma after “history” to divide the two clauses. The portion after the comma begins with the noun “the mantle…” and has a verb “may have been able…,” so it can stand on its own as a complete sentence.

Choices A and C are incorrect because they include additional words, “and although” and “but.” These words turn the following portion into a dependent clause, which leaves the sentence without a main, independent clause. Choice D uses a semicolon, which should be used to divide two independent clauses. It does not fit the context because the portion preceding the semicolon is a dependent clause.

43

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice A is the best answer because it means “to experience.” This interpretation fits the context, which is describing a physical transformation that occurs to rocks.

Choice B is incorrect because it refers to a decision to do something, but rocks passively experience the described process. Choices C and D are incorrect because they include a negative emotional connotation. However, rocks do not feel pain or difficulty because they are inanimate.

44

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice C is the best answer because the first paragraph starts by introducing the question, “How did Earth’s oceans form?” The first paragraph then mentions a theory involving comets but dismisses it by saying that some scientists feel that the water has been on Earth all along. Since Choice C says that the water “came from within,” it offers an answer to the introductory question and supports the theory that the water has been here all along.

Choice A is incorrect because the first paragraph does not delve into geological processes, either visible or not. It only questions where the oceans’ water comes from and offers two possibilities. Choices B and D are incorrect because the first paragraph does not discuss ringwoodite, a sample of it, or its properties, at all.

1

Choice B is the best answer because line 1 starts by saying that the artist, Tchartkoff, had talent. Paragraph 2 explains the professor’s viewpoint of the artist through the advice that the professor gives, “you have talent; it will be a shame if you waste it” (lines 6-7). These lines show that the professor notices that the young man has a tendency towards becoming “a fashionable artist” (line 11), meaning that he is willing to sacrifice quality art for money. Paragraph 3 shows that the artist “could control himself withal” (lines 26-26), meaning that he was usually inclined to focus on the quality of his work. However, he gets frustrated when he did not have enough money to pay his bills, as expressed in lines 50-53 (“but when…of mind”). The conflict is summed up in the final paragraph, when the artist exclaims in “vexation” (line 60) or “frustration” that it might be better to sell fashionable portraits rather than struggle to paint well.

Choice A is incorrect because, though the professor gives his advice in Paragraph 2, there is no indication about how much Tchartkoff follows, or is “influenced by,” that advice. The passage implies that he by nature is interested in doing good artwork, so his avoidance of fashionable painting may be a result of that rather than of the professor’s warnings. “The professor was partly right” (line 23) shows that the professor’s comments described the artist, but do not show that there was any change. Choice C is incorrect because, although the painter is “vexed” or frustrated (line 60), he is not completely “mad” or “insane.” Lines 55-58 ("then did…of mind") show that he was “almost” in a frame of mind of giving up, but not quite there. Choice D is incorrect because “personal life” refers to things like relationships and everyday events, none of which are discussed in the passage.

2

Choice C is the best answer because the first paragraph says that Tchartkoff had talent and that his work showed he was thoughtful, observant, and looked closely at nature. These are “defining artistic traits,” or the “main points noticeable in his art.”

Choice A is incorrect because “ironic” means “sarcastic,” and “outlook” refers to “viewpoint.” However, there is no reference that Tchartkoff views life in a sarcastic way; if anything, the paragraph describes a serious, observing personality. Choice C is incorrect because the “central conflict” of the passage is the contrast between producing good art and earning money; the only thing mentioned in the first paragraph is that Tchartkoff created very good art. Choice D is incorrect because only Tchartkoff is mentioned in the first paragraph; the professor is introduced in Paragraph 2.

3

Choice A is the best answer because the professor critiques the artist’s work in lines 11-15 as “your colouring begins to assert itself too loudly; you’re your drawing is at times quite weak; you are already striving after the fashionable style, because it strikes the eye at once.” In other words, the professor thinks that the work is “garish” or “showy.” By contrast, strong drawing would refer to work that is “technically accomplished” or “skillful” rather than just “catching the eye.”

Choice B is incorrect because the professor complains about art that “strikes the eye at once” (lines 14-15), implying that art that is just “pleasing to the eye” is not as good as strong artwork. He warns that popularity leads to weak art, as line 19 states, “talent is ruined, not developed” by painting fashionable, or popular, art. Choice C is incorrect because the professor warns that the drawing is “weak” in line 13, implying that there should be a very strong groundwork for the finished painting. Choice D is incorrect because the professor does not refer to “morals” or a code of good and bad.

4

Choice B is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Tchartkoff’s professor believes that great art should be technically accomplished and not garish. Choice B offers the professor’s critique of Tchartkoff’s art. Since the professor complains that the drawing is “weak,” he thinks it is not “technically accomplished” or “strong” in composition. This implies that the weakness is a bad trait and that good art should be technically strong. In addition, Choice B supports the claim that great art should not be “garish” or “showy” because the professor complains that the art “assert[s] itself too loudly” (line 12) and “strikes the eye at once” (lines 14-15). Therefore, he feels that great art should be more understated.

Choice A is incorrect because it does not explain the professor’s view of good art; it only shows that the professor fears that Tchartkoff may waste his skills. Choice C is incorrect because it shows Tchartkoff’s attraction for luxuries but does not offer any opinion about art. Choice D also does not give an opinion about art; it only talks about Tchartkoff’s interest in luxuries.

5

Choice B is the best answer because lines 17-20 (“it is seductive…that means”) say that the “fashionable art” is a way to get money but not increase skill. Therefore, “fashionable” refers to art that is “popular” or “trendy;” it will sell at the time but is not lasting or high-quality. The following paragraph supports this interpretation because it says that the professor was only “partly right” (line 23) because he was sometimes tempted to make fashionable art, but that on the whole he was dedicated to following the path of masters like Raphael, Guido, Titian, and the Flemish masters (lines 30-34, “his taste…masters”).

Choice A is incorrect because it refers to something that has good “style” or “sophistication,” which implies an enduring quality that lasts longer than a “trend” or short interest. Choice C is incorrect because it refers to anything new rather than only to things which are popular and sell well. Choice D is incorrect because it describes things that are traditional or standard rather than new and exciting for a short time.

6

Choice C is the best answer because lines 37-39 state that “in private he did not agree with the professor that the secrets of the old masters are irremediably lost to us.” In other words, Tchartkoff felt that the “insights” or “secrets” are accessible or can be reproduced, whereas the professor felt that these points were “irremediably lost” or “impossible to reproduce.”

Choice A is incorrect because, while the professor stresses that making money from selling fashionable paintings destroys integrity, Tchartkoff does not necessarily disagree. Lines 47-49 (“this did…own work”) show that he dedicated himself to good work rather than tried to sell popular paintings, implying that he felt that the professor was right. Choice B is incorrect because both the professor (lines 21-22, “let others…fail you”) and Tchartkoff note that fashionable artists “amassed in a twinkling a funded capital” (line 47). Choice D is incorrect because only Tchartkoff refers to non-professional painters, or “daubers” (lines 44-45). The works are described as having “vivid” or “bright” color (line 46) rather than any “serious” quality.

7

Choice A is the best answer because “dire want” is used to describe the time when “he had no money” (lines 50-51) to buy brushes and paints or pay his rent. Therefore, “want” refers to his times of serious “need” or lack of the basic resources he needs to survive as an artist.

None of the other choices fits the context of describing a time with no money to buy necessary things. Choice B refers to something that is not present but does not specify what is not there. Choice C refers to a strong desire to achieve a goal, but the situation described is just fulfilling basic needs rather than achieving a goal. Choice D refers to a strong desire for wealth but is usually used to describe a situation in which a person has enough money but wants more.

8

Choice D is the best answer because “a laborious undertaking” is something extremely difficult and “suitable compensation” refers to “enough money.” Lines 42-47 (“it sometimes…funded capital”) show Tchartkoff’s frustration at seeing painters who do not maintain high standards earn a lot of money, whereas he has no money and tries to produce great work. The final paragraph expresses his anger that he has created good work but could not get “twenty kopeks for the whole of them” (lines 64-65). The final sentence sums up the dilemma, “Why do I worry, and toil like a learner over the alphabet, when I might shine as brightly as the rest, and have money, too, like them?” (lines 74-77). In other words, he thinks it might be better to just give up his struggles and paint the type of pictures that will earn money.

Choice A is incorrect because Tchartkoff has no money or fame, “who will buy, not even knowing me by name” (lines 69-70). Therefore, his standards have not led to “short-lived fame.” Choice B is incorrect because Tchartkoff complains that the professor tells him to be patient (lines 59-62, “yes, it…to-morrow”) but does not appreciate the realities of being hungry. This quote shows that Tchartkoff feels that it may be sometimes acceptable to drop the high standards but that the professor would encourage a continuance of the standards, more patience. Choice C is incorrect because Tchartkoff questions whether it is necessary to be always maintaining high standards. He wonders if painting some fashionable pieces for money might help reach certain goals such as paying for rent and food.

9

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Tchartkoff finds that maintaining his artistic standards is “laborious” or “difficult” and does not provide suitable compensation or “income.” Choice D shows Tchartkoff’s concern that maybe it would be better to stop “toiling” or “working hard” and just paint fashionable pictures like the other artists. Then he would have “suitable compensation” or enough money.

Choice A shows that Tchartkoff is tired of being patient, but it does not explain why: it does not provide evidence that maintaining high standards is hard and does not earn enough money. Choice B is incorrect because it only supports the idea that Tchartkoff feels that he cannot earn enough money from his art. It does provide evidence about maintaining standards or show that the work is hard to produce. Choice C is incorrect because it says that Tchartkoff is not famous but does not provide evidence about effort or money.

10

Choice C is the best answer because a “catalog of frustrations” is a list of complaints. The final paragraph lists the complaints quite clearly. It starts with Tchartkoff’s getting tired with his professor’s advice to be patient (lines 59-62, “yes, it is…to-morrow”). The question “but what money have I to buy dinner to-morrow” (lines 61-62) show his hunger and frustration at having no money. He then says that even if he could sell his pictures, they would not bring in any income (lines 62-65, “if I did…of them”). He complains about the effort of producing quality work, “they are useful” (line 65), but wonders if they are worth the effort, “what use is it” (line 67). This tone continues throughout the paragraph to the very end, when he wonders if it would be better just to draw fashionable pictures and earn money (lines 74-77, “why do I…like them”).

Choice A is incorrect because the final paragraph summarizes Tchartkoff’s argument that maybe it is better not to strive so hard for technically excellent work. The final paragraph does not provide “contradictions” or “arguments against” that viewpoint. Choice B is incorrect because “hypocrisy” refers to pretending to believe in one thing but doing another. However, the final paragraph shows that Tchartkoff is being true to his beliefs because he could say that great art is important but just draw fashionable paintings and get a lot of money, but he does not do that. Choice D is incorrect because there is no reference to what Tchartkoff paints. The “subject matter” or topic of his work is not discussed in the passage.

11

Choice C is the best answer because “curiosity” refers to one form that false memories can take. The other extreme is given in lines 7-8, “other times they have real implications.” Such a real implication is the example of an innocent person who has gone to jail because of a false memory (lines 8-10, “innocent…different way”). The opposite extreme of such a real problem is a simple “oddity” or “strange thing.”

Choice A is incorrect because “curiosity” refers to a situation that does not cause any “concern” or “worry;” the opposite situation of a “real implication” causes concern. Choice B is incorrect because it refers to an inquiry or doubt rather than something that is just noticed and that is not very important. Choice D is incorrect because it refers to the quality of “amazement” or “admiration” rather than just something that is different or not usual.

12

Choice D is the best answer because lines 6-10 (“false memories…different way”) give an example of “real implications” or “actual problems” that could arise from false memories: innocent people can go to jail. That is a “consequence” or “effect” that is “genuinely damaging,” meaning that the false memory can cause real harm.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no mention that false memories can affect a person’s “deductive reasoning ability” or ability to logically solve problems. Choice B is incorrect because “correlate” refers to “associated with” something. However, the passage implies that false memories can happen in various situations; they are not just “correlated” or “associated with” large amounts of information. For example, the first paragraph gives the example of remembering one thing, going to a party, which is linked to repetition rather than quantity of information (lines 2-6, “the party…cache”). Choice C is incorrect because the study conducted by Patihis and his team referred to remembering words from a list. Such a study is testing information that was just presented rather than memories from the distant past, implying that false memories are not necessarily “commonly associated” or “usually linked with” events from long ago.

13

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the passage implies that false memories can have “consequences” or “results” that are “genuinely damaging” or “cause real hurt.” Choice C gives a specific example of one way a false memory could hurt someone—an innocent person goes to jail. Therefore, Choice C provides solid evidence to support the answer to the previous question.

Choice A is incorrect because it only gives an example of a false memory but does not show how that memory could cause serious hurt or real problems. Remembering a party that you didn’t attend could cause confusion but has no apparent permanent bad effect other than embarrassment. Choice B is incorrect because it says that there are “real implications” or “serious effects” from false memories. However, it does not explain that the effects are necessarily bad or cause harm. A “real implication” could be a positive thing. Choice D is incorrect because it only says that everyone has false memories. It does not say that those memories can cause damage or harm.

14

Choice A is the best answer because “exact” is describing a date. The context shows that the date is a very “specific” or “precise” one when a certain event happened.

Choice B is incorrect because it refers to being extremely careful or strict. However, a date cannot perform the act of being careful or strict. Choice C is incorrect because it refers to a moral concept, truthfulness. A date is inanimate so does not have moral qualities. Choice D is incorrect because it refers to being clear or obviously different from something else, so does not adequately describe remembering the particular date on which an event happened. The date is not normally notable or different from others, the event is.

15

Choice C is the best answer because Paragraph 4 describes the methods used in the study. The word lists were designed with a “critical lure,” which is defined as “a word commonly associated with the words on the list, but that did not actually appear on the list” (lines 37-39). Therefore, the words had a “central theme” or “common idea” that led the participants to assume that other, related words were also on the list.

Choice A is incorrect because “appear in conjunction” means “at the same time.” In other words, that the word lists would be shown with a “visual image” or picture. Lines 44-47 (“both groups…they hadn’t”) say that the participants “also” had false memories when shown photographs. The “also” indicates that the photographs were in a separate activity from the word lists. Choice B is incorrect because “intended to evoke emotional reactions” means “meant to trigger an emotion.” However, there is no mention of words that would make a participant feel, for example, happy, sad, or angry. The only words discussed are the relatively neutral sleep-related words “pillow,” “duvet” and “nap” mentioned in lines 41-42. Choice D is possible, but whether or not all the words were “straightforward” or “simple” not supported by any information from the passage.

16

Choice B is the best answer because lines 51-52 say that the study “communicates something that memory-distortion researchers have suspected for some time.” If the researchers “suspected” or “had a good guess” that no one is immune to memory distortion, then those researchers would not be surprised that the study showed that no one is immune.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no evidence to show that the goal of proving that no one is immune to memory distortion is “questioned,” meaning “doubted” or “argued” by other scientists. Choice C is incorrect because there is no discussion of the level of “innovation,” meaning “creativity,” of the “methodology” or “procedures” used. If anything, the procedures appear relatively straightforward. Choice D is incorrect because “definitive” means “conclusive” or “complete.” However, the “resolution” or results of the study are not complete because there are still pieces that are not understood. For example, lines 55-56 say that “the study doesn’t… explain why HSAM people exist at all.”

17

Choice A is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the result of Patihis’s study was not a surprise to some scientists. Choice A directly states that the study’s findings “were suspected” or “predicted” by some scientists. If that is true, then those scientists would not have been surprised that the results matched what they believed was probably true.

Choice B is incorrect because it does not refer to the results of the study; it brings up a point that was not determined. Choice C is incorrect because it discusses a future study and does not address the question of what scientists felt about the results of the completed study. Choice D shows one result of the study, but does not provide evidence that any scientists would have expected those results.

18

Choice B is the best answer because the vertical axis shows the “mean proportion of indications of recognition of included words.” The HSAM group is the black column on the left and the ordinary group is the grey column on the right. The black column for the HSAM group is higher than the mark for 0.7, meaning that it was “over” 0.7. The ordinary memory group’s grey column is over 0.6 but under 0.7, so is “between” those two figures.

Choice A is incorrect because the HSAM group column is lower than the mark for 0.8, indicating that it was “lower than” rather than “over” 0.8. The ordinary memory group is likewise lower than 0.7. Choice C is incorrect because the HSAM column is taller than the ordinary memory column, showing that the values were different. Choice D is incorrect because the chart does not include any evidence about the number of words per list.

19

Choice C is the best answer because Figure 1 refers to words included in the word list and Figure 2 refers to words NOT included in the word list (the “critical lures”). On both charts, the “ordinary memory group” is the pale grey column on the right. The column for “critical lures” reaches about 0.7 on the vertical axis, whereas the column for “word list” reaches only about 0.65, as it is between the marks for 0.6 and 0.7. Therefore, they remembered more, or a “greater proportion” of “critical lures” than “word list” words.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no data about words that were not on the list that were not critical lures. Choice B is incorrect because the length of time to complete the test is not mentioned in the figures. Choice D is incorrect because “confusing critical lures for included words” refers to the number of critical lures that they thought were on the list but were not. That number is shown in Figure 2. Since the grey column is at about the 0.7 mark, that would indicate 70% of the time rather than 50%.

20

Choice D is the best answer because Figure 2 shows the proportion of “critical lures” that the participants said were on the word list, but which really were not on the word list. Both the columns for the HSAM group and the ordinary memory group are about the same height, at 0.7. This shows that the chance of a “distortion” or error in memory is the same for both groups. The passage supports this data because it says in lines 47-49 that “Here too, HSAM subjects cooked up as many fake images as the ordinary folks.” The “too” refers to the fact that the errors were the same, “as many” in the visual as well as the word list tests.

Choice A is incorrect because, while the passage says that HSAM people can recall “minute” or “tiny” details of daily events, Figure 2 does not refer to memory of daily events at all. Choice B is incorrect because Figure 2 only refers to the word list results; it does not refer to visual lures at all. Choice C is incorrect because, as explained for Choice D, both the passage and the figure show that HSAM and ordinary memory people perform about the same when it comes to memory distortion. In other words, they are just as “susceptible” or “vulnerable” rather than more skilled at avoiding false memories.

21

Choice B is the best answer because “a particular conclusion” is that bean plants use fungi to communicate. The passage begins by outlining this communication method in Paragraphs 1 and 2. Paragraphs 3, 4, and 5 describe the methodology of the experiment, in particular, how the plants were raised so that they had contact with each other or not. Paragraphs 6, 7, and 8 detail how the results were analyzed and explain the possible meaning of the results. Paragraph 9 summarizes the passage by repeating the conclusion about communication.

Choice A is incorrect because the finding is not “addressing a problem” or coming up with a solution to a problem. Instead, it is proving whether plants communicate using fungi. Choice C is incorrect because, while a “research methodology” or procedure is discussed, that procedure does not “revolutionize” or “completely change” any process. The methodology just describes the way the experiment was done. Choice D is incorrect because the study does not “undermine” or “break down” a theory. Instead, it provides evidence in support of the idea that plants communicate using fungi.

22

Choice C is the best answer because an “analogy” is a comparison used to clarify an explanation. The first paragraph compares the fungal hyphae of plants with Wi-Fi. This comparison makes the explanation of a “subterranean internet” more accessible and understandable for the average reader.

Choice A is incorrect because communication is not necessarily “more widespread” or “covering a larger area.” The paragraph does not explain how much area is involved, or how much is “recognized” or “understood,” it only compares the fungal communication with Wi-Fi. Choice B is incorrect because “plant and parasite interactions” refers to the relationship between the plants and the things which harm them. However, the paragraph only briefly mentions an aphid attack in line 9. The discussion is about the relationship between the beans and fungi, which are not “parasites” because they are helpful. Choice D is incorrect because “unorthodox” research would be research that uses questionable or controversial methods, but the study follows standard procedures. Therefore, no “rationale” or “explanation” is needed to justify the methods used.

23

Choice C is the best answer because the question asks for a fact that Johnson “relied on,” meaning that he accepted as being true in order to make the experiment work. Choice C refers to the release of “noxious chemicals,” or “harmful or unpleasant chemicals,” which are discussed in Paragraphs 6, 7, and 8 as “volatiles.” Johnson measured the amount of these volatiles given off by different plants and compared the results based on the assumption that “the volatiles from an infested plant attract wasps and repel aphids” (lines 56-57). If the plants gave off the results randomly or due to a different cause, then the volatiles could not be used to determine if the plants were reacting to the aphid attack—or communicating about an aphid attack—or not.

Choice A is incorrect because the experiment was designed to test if the fungal hyphae warn other plants or not. Therefore, Choice A is not an assumption that was necessary for the experiment to work. Choice B is incorrect because the passage says that the wasps hunt aphids (line 13, “aphid-hunting wasps”), so the implication is that the wasps help rather than harm the plants. There is no evidence of harm in an “ongoing” or “continuing” relationship. Choice D is incorrect because “aggressive maneuvers” would be the methods that the wasps use to attack the aphids. However, it does not matter to the experiment whether the aphids are able to “withstand” or “endure” these attacks. The important detail is whether the plants make chemical responses to protect themselves when attacked or communicated to about a nearby attack.

24

Choice C is the best answer because Paragraph 1 introduces the possibility of an internet-like communication, or a method of “conveying information,” between plants and says that Johnson thinks he has proved such a thing. Paragraph 2 explains that Johnson set up an experiment to find out and show “if fungi were the messengers” (lines 14-15).

Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not describe the relationship between wasps and aphids in detail, so the question of “how” is not answered; the passage only says that the wasps hunt aphids and are attracted by the volatile chemicals emitted by the plants. Choice B is incorrect because the method of the experiment relied on the fact that the plants would emit volatile chemicals. Therefore, Choice B was an assumption rather than a question to be answered. Choice D is incorrect because “restricted from growing” means “unable to expand.” However, the roots were allowed to grow freely within their areas. They were only restricted from touching or reaching the roots of other plants.

25

Choice A is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the experiment mainly tried to answer the question of whether plants use fungal hyphae to help convey information or “communicate.” Choice A directly supports that answer because it says that he “set out to find out,” meaning he wanted to discover or learn, if a “message could spread from plant to plant,” or “communicate.” Furthermore, Choice A shows that the experiment was set up to determine if the method of communication—the “messengers”—were the fungi.

All of the other choices are incorrect because they only show the methods used in the experiment. They do not show what question the researchers were trying to answer. Therefore, they do not provide good evidence in support of the answer to the previous question.

26

Choice D is the best answer because Paragraph 3 describes the ways that the plants were raised, and Paragraph 4 describes the way the plants were separated from each other. These are the physical arrangement of the experiment. The paragraphs therefore explain the “conditions” or “factors” involved in setting up the experiment.

Choice A is incorrect because “methods” refers to the “procedures” or “ways of conducting” the experiment, but Paragraphs 3 and 4 only describe the physical arrangements. Choice B is incorrect because “formulate” means to “say” or “express” the goal. However, the goal of learning about plant communication is not discussed in Paragraphs 3 and 4. Choice C is incorrect because the “findings” of an experiment are the results. However, the results of what happened are not mentioned until Paragraph 7.

27

Choice C is the best answer because “control” refers to one of two chambers in an experimental apparatus. One of the chambers contained “a sample of the volatiles” (line 49) and the other had “an odorless control” (line 50). In science, a “control” is a standard for checking the results of an experiment, or a thing used to make a “comparison.” This interpretation fits the context of comparing an odorless sample with a sample from a plant.

Choice A is incorrect because “regulating” means “commanding” or “using power.” However, the odorless chamber did not use power to change anything else. Choice B is incorrect because “restrictive” means “setting limits.” However, the odorless chamber was not a “mechanism” or “machine” for setting limits. Choice D is incorrect because “supervising” refers to giving orders and managing something, but the odorless chamber was a passive place that the insects entered or not.

28

Choice A is the best answer because Paragraph 8 describes the results of the experiment: aphids were attracted to uninfested plants that had both hyphae and roots blocked (lines 61-65, “if both hyphae…chamber”). However, plants that were not infested but which were in uninterrupted contact with infested plants exhibited “the same results” (line 58) as infected plants. The interpretation of this data is given in lines 70-72, “Broad beans, then, really do seem to be using their fungal symbionts as a communications network, warning their neighbours to take evasive action.” In other words, plants that attracted aphids did not get the distress signals via fungal contact, but the plants that repelled aphids were getting the distress signals.

Choice B is incorrect because the passage does not refer to repelling wasps at all. The wasps were either attracted by infested plants (lines 51-54, “the researchers…other chamber”) or “were indifferent” (line 65). Choice C is incorrect because the passage indicates that the plants with hyphal connections communicated warnings, leading to less attraction of aphids (lines 58-61, “crucially, the team…blocked”). Choice D is incorrect because there is no reference to aphids attacking or “compromising” the roots.

29

Choice A is the best answer because “mutually beneficial” refers to a relationship in which both “organisms,” or “creatures,” receive something they need. The arrangement in the passage is good for both the beans and the fungi because the beans can communicate and prepare for insect attacks. At the same time, the fungi get nutrition from the “leguminous hosts” (line 76) namely, the bean plants.

Choice B is incorrect because the relationship appears relatively balanced, as both get useful things, and neither is harmed. Choice C is incorrect because “parasitic” refers to one creature getting a benefit at another creature’s expense. However, neither the fungi nor the bean plant is harmed by their being together. Choice D is incorrect because “necessarily codependent” refers to not being able to survive without each other. However, the passage says that the plants without the fungal contact can produce volatile gases, which are a type of chemical.

30

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the relationship between the bean plants and fungi is “mutually beneficial,” or “helps both organisms.” Choice D supports this answer because it says that the plant is helped because it quickly can attract wasps to defend against the aphids, and the fungi is helped because the “host,” which is a source of nutrients, is preserved. Therefore, Choice D shows that both organisms get something useful from the arrangement.

None of the other choices provides direct support showing that both organisms are helped by being together. Choice A is incorrect because it says, “the results are the same,” but does not describe what the result is or whether it is useful to the plant and fungi or not. Choices B and D are incorrect because they do not show how the fungi benefits, though they imply that the plant does better when the fungi are present.

31

Choice B is the best answer because Douglass says that the abolition of slavery was to create “freedom,” including freedom of what job to do, “it is the right to choose one’s own employment” (lines 4-5). Line 16 says that the labor policy therefore “defeats the beneficent intention of the Government,” or goes contrary to the purpose of the government.

Choice A is incorrect because Douglass does not refer to Bank’s stance on slavery, only to the stance that the government supposedly held when it abolished slavery. Choices C and D are incorrect because Douglass does not call the new system “worse,” or an “improvement,” meaning “better.” He claims that there is no change, the new system “is absolute slavery” (line 14).

32

Choice A is the best answer because the phrase “they practically reduce him to slavery” means that “in all ways but by name, he is a slave.” Since Choice A means “actually but not officially,” it summarizes the status of the negro under the new policy.

Choice B is incorrect because it means “logically” or “sensibly,” but Douglass does not see any sense or logic in the negro working like a slave. Choice C is incorrect because it refers to something done “skillfully” or “in an original way.” However, he is not praising the policy. Choice D is incorrect because “partially” means “only to a limited extent.” Douglass’s argument is that the policy is turning the negro completely into a slave, not only slightly or in a limited way.

33

Choice B is the best answer because the counterargument is that “this pressing of the Negro’s right to suffrage is premature” (lines 31-32); in other words, people should wait before granting the negro the right to vote. However, Douglass argues that there is a “universal characteristic” or “constitution of the human mind” (lines 35-37) that if a truth is ignored once, it is harder to change the incorrect view later (lines 37-40, “that if it once…afterwards”). This argument shows that if suffrage is denied now, it probably will not be granted in the future.

Choice A is incorrect because Douglass does not use “emotional language” to describe the “suffering” from the policy of waiting for the right to vote, which is the policy proposed in the counterargument. Choice C is incorrect because Douglass does not describe the reasons that people support the counterargument other than that they think it is “the natural course of events” (lines 34-35). The natural course would not be considered “self-interest” or “to reach their own goals.” Choice D is incorrect because Douglass does not say that the counterargument is a “temporary” or “short-lived” solution. In fact, he says that it will be harder to change minds later, so “this is the hour” (line 40) to act or the proposed solution might continue “for centuries to come” (lines 45-46).

34

Choice D is the best answer because “disposition” is used to refer to the viewpoint that negroes do not need suffrage. Douglass says that unless that viewpoint is changed now, it may last “for centuries to come” (lines 45-46). Since Choice D means “viewpoint,” it fits the context of the stance on suffrage.

Choice A is incorrect because it refers to a “routine” or “specific way of doing things” rather than a way of thinking about things. Choice B is incorrect because it refers to a specific physical location. Choice C is incorrect because it refers to an agreement or resolution, but the issue of suffrage is not ended because negroes cannot vote.

35

Choice B is the best answer because Dana says that in ancient times “slaves were of the same race with their masters” (line 51), so they “reached an equality with their masters” (line 55). By contrast, in the US there is “a slavery of race” (lines 56-57) which has taught that slavery “is a divine institution” (lines 58-59), or God-given right that justifies turning former slaves into “four millions of disfranchised, disarmed, untaught, landless, degraded men” (lines 76-78).

Choice A is incorrect because Dana does not specify who selected the jobs for the slaves in antiquity; neither does he say that US slaves are only allowed to do agricultural and domestic labor. Choice C is incorrect because Dana does not explain why or how people in ancient times were turned into slaves. Choice D is incorrect because Dana says that in the US, “a black man cannot testify in court; by their laws he cannot hold land; by their laws he cannot vote" (lines 72-74). Therefore, as well as being “discriminated against socially” or not equal socially, they are also not equal in law.

36

Choice D is the best answer because the question is asking for a quote that supports the idea that “the condition” or “situation” of Southern Black men,” which Dana refers to as “negroes,” must be improved fast to “avoid negative long-term-consequences,” which means “prevent bad results for a long time into the future.” Choice D supports this idea because “it has got to be decided very soon” (line 81) indicates that he things that the situation needs to be “improved quickly.” He also says that if the wrong choice is made, “institutions will be built upon…a debased negro” (lines 83-83). In this context, “institutions” refers to long-lasting patterns of behavior, which could be worded as a “long-term consequence.” “Debased” refers to “having no dignity,” which is definitely “negative.”

Choice A is incorrect because it refers to the current situation and does not say that a decision needs to be made soon. Choice B is incorrect because it refers to the intent of “emancipation” or “freeing” the slaves. It does not discuss long-term consequences if a decision is not made soon. Choice C is incorrect because it refers to laws, but not to the content of the laws or improving the situation quickly.

37

Choice D is the best answer because “fired” refers to the nature of the “Southern heart” for the past thirty years. Since Choice D means “to excite or make angry,” it fits the context of stirring the emotions of anger and frustration, as indicated by the statement that negroes are “the cause of their defeat and humiliation” (lines 64-65).

Choice A is incorrect because it means “ignore.” However, the emotions of the “Southern heart” are very passionate so they are not being ignored or put aside as not important. Choice B is incorrect because it means to “clarify” or “explain.” No one is explaining the emotions, though, they are experiencing or feeling them. Choice C is incorrect because it refers to motivating or forcing something, but the emotions are naturally occurring.

38

Choice B is the best answer because Douglass refers to the Emancipation Proclamation, or the declaration of freedom for slaves, as “a mockery and delusion” (line 4). In other words, it did not “ensure” or “make certain” that black men had true freedom and equality. Dana supports the same view, as he says in lines 66-67 that “many of them do not allow a free negro to live in their States.” In other words, the free negroes do not have the same rights as white men. He continues to say that negroes cannot testify in court, own land, or vote (lines 72-74, “By their laws…cannot vote”). This statement reinforces the view that negroes are not “equal” to other citizens.

Choice A is incorrect because Douglass says that despite the abolition of slavery, the “civil conflict” or “social problem” of the Banks policy exists, and that “our streets are in mourning, tears are falling at every fireside” (lines 41-42) in a state he refers to as “Rebellion” (line 42), which is another term for “civil conflict.” Dana does not directly say that there is a “rebellion,” but claims that there are social problems despite the abolition of slavery. Choice C is incorrect because only Douglass refers to Bank’s forced policies (lines 10-15, “that I understand…whom punished”); Dana does not. Choice D is incorrect because neither man says that the abolition of slavery defeats “achieving the goals” or “fulfillment of the founding ideals” of the government. Instead, they indicate that abolishing slavery was one step towards achieving equality, the “founding ideal,” but that there are still other barriers in the way, such as the prohibition of black people to vote.

39

Choice A is the best answer because Douglass says that “this is the hour” (line 40) to press for suffrage, implying that he feels that suffrage, or an “extension of black-men’s rights” since black men are not allowed to vote, is “possible to achieve” or “feasible.” On the other hand, Dana indicates that the “extension” of gaining suffrage is opposed by white men who blame black men: it is opposed by people who “look upon the negro as the cause of their defeat and humiliation” (lines 64-65).

Choice B is incorrect because, although Douglass believes that the war has “harmed the employment prospects” or “job opportunities” for black men, Dana does not say that Southerners “recognize the important role black workers can play.” Instead, he points out that many states “do not allow a free negro to live in their States” (line 67) let alone play an “important role.” Choice C is incorrect because Douglass does not say that white Southerners are “more opposed” or “more strongly against” the rights of black men than they were before. More importantly, Dana does not say that black men are seen as “equals” in the South. Instead, he brings up several specific examples (lines 72-74, “By their laws…cannot vote”) of how they are not treated the same. Choice D is incorrect because, while Douglass appears to think that the rights of black men might be expanded to include suffrage, Dana points out that the rights may never be expanded because the restrictions will become “institutions” (line 82). In other words, they will be almost impossible to change because they will be culturally accepted, even if the memories of the war begin to fade.

40

Choice B is the best answer because Dana’s comments in lines 72-74 refer to restrictions on freed black men: they cannot testify in court, own land, or vote. Douglass would consider these conditions to “constitute” or “be part of” a form of slavery because in Paragraph 2 of Passage 1 he describes the need for “immediate, unconditional, and universal enfranchisement” (lines 22-23) or the same rights as others in the society. In other words, black men should not be denied any rights that others are allowed to have. Douglass’s stance is that “without this, you might as well almost retain the old name of slavery for his condition” (lines 25-26).

Choice A is incorrect because “insensitive” refers to something that is “heartless” or “thoughtless.” However, Douglass would probably thank Dana for pointing out the problems in an effort to promote the same cause rather than say that Dana is inconsiderate by mentioning them. Choice C is incorrect because Dana is not saying that black men are satisfied with the conditions he is describing. Dana says that these conditions “degrade” (line 78) negroes, implying that they are humiliated rather than satisfied with the situation. Therefore, Douglass would not tell Dana to stop making the assumption that black men are satisfied, because Dana is not making that assumption. Choice D is incorrect because Dana is not assuming that slavery will remain illegal in former slave states. Dana admits that slavery is now illegal; his argument is that the treatment of free blacks is similar to the treatment of slaves.

41

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Douglass would probably respond to Dana’s comments by saying that the condition of not having “universal enfranchisement” (line 23)—the conditions that Dana describes— “constitute” or “are” a form of slavery. Choice D supports that claim because it says that the conditions are equivalent to slavery, though the name is not used. Choice D points out that the only difference is that black men are bound to society rather than an individual master.

Choice A is incorrect because it refers to Banks’s policy rather than to the conditions that Dana is describing. Choice B refers to the intents of the government rather than saying that conditions described by Dana are the equivalent of slavery. Choice C states Douglass’s stance, but does not say that the conditions that Dana describes are a form of slavery.

42

Choice B is the best answer because the passage discusses research that “expands” or “increases” knowledge of a specific bird species, Gouldian finches. In lines 1 and 2 of Paragraph 1, the purpose of the study is explained: “in order to determine if head colour really does indicate personality traits in Gouldian finches.” Paragraphs 1 and 2 describe the predictions of the researchers. Paragraph 3 describes how aggressiveness was tested, Paragraph 4 describes how taking risks was tested, and Paragraph 5 describes how boldness was tested. Paragraph 6 states that the tests were repeated “after a two-month interval” (lines 64-65) to confirm the results. Finally, Paragraphs 7 and 8 analyze the results and provide possible reasons for the correlations that were found.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no description of ways the finches “defend” or “protect themselves” against attacks by predators. There is only a discussion that black-headed finches are more willing to go near a possible predator sooner than red-headed finches are. Choice C is incorrect because there is no reference that other researchers have “openly dismissed” or “ignored” the topic of personality traits in finches. In fact, the first paragraph implies that others have taken the topic seriously because there are references to other theories and research. For example, “had previously been found” (line 8), indicates that others had “previously” or “before that time” studied the personality traits. Choice D is incorrect because the passage does not refer to “other animal behaviors,” only the similarities between finches. There is also no reference to “evidence” or “proof” of a “common ancestry” or “distant relatives that were the same.”

43

Choice C is the best answer because the second prediction tested “the birds’ willingness to take risks” (line 34) by seeing how fast the birds returned to a feeder after being shown a “silhouette of an avian predator” (lines 37-38). This test relies on the assumption that finch behavior has a “correlation” or “similarity” so that they react the same way that people or other animals do. The scientists assume that by returning to the feeder, they are taking a risk, just like a person would. However, if behaviors are different or do not correlate, the reason for returning could be completely different. For example, the birds could have forgotten about the predator or could have realized that it was a paper cut-out rather than “took a risk.”

Choice A is incorrect because the second prediction tested whether there was a difference in behavior between red- and black-headed finches. The prediction that there would be a difference could hold true for reasons other than the benefit of taking risks to the black-headed finches. Choice B is incorrect because the second prediction related to risk-taking, not to aggressiveness; aggressiveness was tested in the first prediction. Choice D is incorrect because “innate” behaviors are ones which the creature is born with and “acquired” behaviors are ones that the creature learns. However, there is no mention about “distinguishing” or “telling apart” such behaviors. The tendency to take risks could be innate, acquired, or a combination of both.

44

Choice D is the best answer because “displacements” is one of two examples of “aggressive interactions” (line 28) done by the finches. The other aggressive interaction is “threat displays” (line 29). Since the situation is fighting over food and “displacement” means “moving something from its position,” it can reasonably be inferred that the “displacement” in question is one of moving the bird from its position at the food source.

Choice A is incorrect because “social dominance” refers to status of the birds relative to each other. However, status is an ongoing relationship, so it is unlikely that the birds would change it multiple times during a 30-minute encounter. Choice B is incorrect because “flees” means “leaves.” Even if one bird is “intimidated” or “frightened” by the other, it would not be able to get completely out of the cage. The researchers are counting actions that go on inside the cage. If the bird left, then there would only one “aggressive interaction.” Choice C is incorrect because “submission” refers to “giving in” or “admitting a loss.” However, if that is the case, there would be only one aggressive encounter.

45

Choice B is the best answer because lines 37-38 state that the birds were scared with “a silhouette of an avian predator.” In other words, a cut-out shape of a bird predator. Since this is not a real creature, the passage uses quotations in line 47 to remind the reader that the predator was not real. Instead, it was a “simulation” or “imitation.”

Choice A is incorrect because “notably dangerous” means “extremely dangerous,” so “not notably dangerous” implies “only somewhat dangerous.” However, the predator was not real at all, so there would be no reason to emphasize that it was somewhat dangerous. Choice C is incorrect because the passage says that the experiments were repeated more than once (lines 64-65, “these experiments…over time”). There is no need to emphasize that point using quotation marks. Choice D is incorrect because “disruptive nature” refers to the problem-causing quality of the predator’s presence. However, quotations do not show that the presence caused trouble and problems. They only emphasize the word “predator” and show that there is something unusual about the way the term is used.

46

Choice B is the best answer because “atypical” means “not usual.” Therefore, the question is asking for a behavior that would not be normal for a single red-headed finch. Lines 64-67 say that “these experiments were repeated after a two-month interval and showed that different birds differed in their responses but the responses of individual birds were consistent over time.” In other words, each bird reacted differently, but any given bird had “consistent” or “the same” responses. If that is true, then the red-headed bird should either approach the novel object without hesitation or avoid the object. Changing responses from approach to avoidance would be unusual or “atypical.”

Choice A is incorrect because if behaviors are “consistent” or “the same” over time, then a behavior that is done “just as slowly” the second week as the first week would be expected or usual. Choice C is incorrect because returning in the same order would show that both finches are reacting at about the same level of concern to the predator each time. Therefore, the behavior is expected because it is “consistent.” Choice D is incorrect because the reaction is the same between repetitions of the experiment. In other words, it is “consistent” and typical rather than “atypical.”

47

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that it would be “atypical” or “unusual” for a red-headed finch to approach novel objects without hesitation one week but entirely avoid them the next. Choice C directly says that the responses of individual birds were “consistent over time” or “the same every time.” Since the answer to the previous question shows an example where the bird does “inconsistent” or “different” behavior, that would be considered unusual.

Choice A is incorrect because it only refers to the response to one experiment and does not show that reactions were usually consistent or the same when the experiment was repeated. Choices B and C are incorrect because they compare the reactions of red-headed birds to black-headed birds. They do not say how specific birds reacted to repetitions of the same experiment.

48

Choice A is the best answer because lines 81-84 say that “boldness [in investigating novel objects] and risk-taking behaviours were found to be strongly correlated: regardless of head colour they always occurred together.” “Correlated” means “closely related or linked,” so the sentence means that boldness and risk-taking were always either high or low. Choice A gives an example of a high risk-taking behavior (returning quickly after seeing a predator) and a low boldness behavior (not approaching a novel object). Therefore, it gives an unusual or “unlikely” combination of high risk-taking and low boldness.

Choice B is incorrect because risk-taking and boldness are closely associated traits, so a low risk-taking and a low boldness level are to be expected. Choice C is incorrect because “failing to display aggression” is a trait associated with black-headed finches, as is approaching a novel object (lines 69-71, “red-headed birds…not explorative"). Therefore, Choice C is a likely combination for a black-headed bird. Choice D is incorrect because displaying aggression but having low boldness is common among red-headed finches.

49

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that an individual bird would be unlikely to return quickly to a feeder after a predator display (a show of risk-taking) but fail to approach a novel object (a lack of boldness). Choice C specifically says that risk-taking and boldness are “strongly correlated” or “extremely linked to each other. Therefore, Choice C shows that a risk-taking bird should have a high boldness rather than a lack of boldness.

Choice A is incorrect because it only says that aggression is not associated with risk-taking; it does not say that risk-taking and boldness are linked. Choice B is incorrect because it explains why red-headed birds might take few risks, but it does not show why an individual bird that takes risks would not want to approach a novel object. Choice D is incorrect because it does not establish a connection between risk-taking and boldness.

50

Choice D is the best answer because the final paragraph offers possible reasons for the risk-taking behaviors. Line 94 says that the red-headed finches “occupy the safest foraging locations.” The black-headed birds need to “find food away from the dominant redheads” (lines 92-93) in these locations. In other words, they need to take risks to “struggle” or “complete” to “obtain” or “find” the food. Lines 19-22 also give this possible explanation, saying that “it may pay the black-headed birds to take more risks and be more explorative so they find food resources before the dominant red-headed birds do.”

Choice A is incorrect because lines 59-61 say that “red-headed birds showed less interest in novel objects than did black-headed birds.” Therefore, black-headed birds are more interested in novelty. A lack of interest is therefore not a reason for them to take more risks. Choice B is incorrect because “conspicuous color” refers to “easy to see color.” This description fits the red-headed birds that are “conspicuous against natural backgrounds” (lines 76-77), not black-headed birds that blend in to the backgrounds well. Choice C is incorrect because lines 77-78 say that “more conspicuous birds have been found to suffer higher predation rates.” In other words, birds that are easier to see attract the predators. Since the black-headed birds are not aggressive (lines 30-33, “the results…birds”), they would not attract attention or have a need to take risks.

51

Choice D is the best answer because the “mean number of aggressive interactions initiated” is given on the vertical scale. “Red-headed pairs” are given in the column on the left-hand side of the chart. The top of the column is just above the number 2 on the vertical scale, as best indicated by Choice D.

None of the other choices correctly represents the “mean number of aggressive interactions initiated” for “red-headed pairs.” Choice A is the figure for black-headed pairs. Choices B and C do not correspond to any of the data points on the chart.

52

Choice A is the best answer because the “mean time taken to approach a feeder after a “predator” presentation” is given on the vertical scale. The units are in “seconds.” The column for “black-headed” finches is on the right-hand side of the chart. That column reaches approximately the 200 mark on the vertical scale.

None of the other choices correctly interprets the data in the chart. Choices B and C do not correspond to any of the data points. Choice D is the figure for the “red-headed” finches.

1

Content: possessive determiners

Choice B is the best answer because the underlined portion should show what the “mechanics” belong to: clocks. Choice B is a plural possessive pronoun so correctly refers to the plural noun.

Choice A is incorrect because it is a contraction for “they are” so does not indicate possession. Choices C and D can both be eliminated because they are singular, so do not agree with the plural referent “clocks.” In addition, Choice C is incorrect because it is a contraction for “it is” and does not show possession.

2

Content: sentence boundaries

Choice C is the best answer because “charting” correctly makes the following section refer to the subject of the sentence, Banneker.

Choices A and D are incorrect because they create a comma splice between two independent clauses; there should be a word subordinating the second idea if a comma is used. Choice B is incorrect because “charting…” is not a complete sentence, so cannot stand on its own after a period.

3

Content: introductions, conclusions, and supporting details

Choice A is the best answer because the paragraph is about Banneker’s meeting Ellicott and learning more from him. Choice A sets up this topic by emphasizing the “fortuitous” or “lucky” act of making a good friend.

Choice B is incorrect because the paragraph does not refer to any “upheavals” or “problems” at all. As a result, Choice B distracts from the main topic of meeting Ellicott. Choice C is incorrect because it refers to “several people,” whereas the paragraph only discusses the meeting with one person, Ellicott. Choice D is incorrect because it does not include any reference to the essential topic, Ellicott, so the reader is not prepared for a discussion about meeting a new person.

4

Content: subordination and coordination

Choice D is the best answer because “whose” accurately subordinates the following section by turning the “knowledge about science and astronomy” into the subject of the dependent clause. “Whose” also shows that the knowledge belongs to the preceding noun, “Ellicott.”

Choice A is incorrect because “whom” does not show possession of the “knowledge.” In addition, “whom” is used when the preceding noun is the object of the clause rather than the subject; it does not fit the context because the “knowledge” is doing the act of “impressing him.” Choice B is incorrect because “his” is ambiguous, as it appears to refer to the subject “Banneker.” “His” cannot be used to refer to a different noun than the following “him” without more clarification. Choice C turns the following portion into a time phrase rather than a description of Ellicott. The repetition of “Ellicott” is unnecessary and confuses the flow of the sentence.

5

Content: precision and concision

Choice C is the best answer because it clearly states all the necessary information to understand the sentence.

All the other choices can be eliminated as redundant. The sentence already states that “they met,” so there is no need to repeat the idea of “met” or “meeting.”

6

Content: tense, mood, and voice

Choice D is the best answer because the action described occurred in 1791, clearly in the past. Choice D establishes that time because it is a past-tense verb. The verb should be in the singular to go with the singular subject “Major Andrew Ellicott.”

Choice A is incorrect because, although it is a past-tense verb, it is plural, so cannot be used to describe an action of the singular subject “Major Andrew Ellicott.” Choice B is incorrect because it is a future-tense verb that does not fit the context of an action which occurred in the past. Choice C is incorrect because it is a present perfect tense, which is used to describe an action which started in the past, but which is continuing to the present. Not only is the tense inaccurate, but “have” is plural, so cannot be used with a singular subject.

7

Content: conventional expressions

Choice C is the best answer because “particularly” is an adverb that is used to give emphasis to a certain point; it means “specifically.” It should be used on its own before the specific item being singled out for recognition. In this case, “the ability to chart…Earth” is a specific point that is necessary for what is demanded.

None of the other choices are standard usage with the word “particularly” in the context. Choice A is used when the following word is an infinitive verb, not a noun. In Choice C, “particular” is an adjective that should follow a noun and form of “to be;” it is used to mean that something is fussy or especially concerned about the following thing. Choice D is incorrect because “in” should be followed by “particular” rather than “particularly.”

8

Content: sentence/paragraph order

Choice C is the best answer because sentence 3 says that “his cousin George” likely recommended Banneker for “the job.” This sentence therefore needs to be placed so that “his” has a logical referent and “the job” is already introduced. Sentence 5 refers to Andrew Ellicott and the job of “a capable assistant,” so sentence 3 logically follows it.

All of the other choices interrupt the logical flow of the paragraph. Choice A places the reference to “his cousin George” before any person has been introduced who might act as an antecedent for “his.” Choice B makes it appear that the subject of the preceding sentence, “President Washington” was the person who had a “cousin George.” Choice B, however, has no logical “job” that Banneker might be recommended for. Choice D is incorrect because “Banneker” is mentioned in the previous sentence, so it appears that Banneker’s cousin recommended him for the job. It also separates the reference in sentence 3 to “the job” from the statement that an assistant was needed, making it harder to determine what is being referred to.

9

Content: transitions

Choice D is the best answer because the first half of the paragraph is referring to events in 1791. The following portion is referring to things that are happening or possible to see now. Choice D effectively warns the reader that the time being discussed is changing from the past to the present.

None of the other choices alerts the reader to a change in time. Choice A is incorrect because it is used to add more detail about the same topic, so it appears that the following information is describing something that happened in the past when Major Ellicott set up camp. Choice B is used to introduce something that is considered obvious, but the reader does not necessarily know that there is a place at Jones Point. Choice C is incorrect because it is usually used to indicate a relatively short interval of time in the past, not a long period of two centuries that leads to the present.

10

Content: word question

Choice A is the best answer because it means “mark” or “observe.” It fits the context of saying that the plaque “observes” or “shows respect” for the hard work of Ellicott’s team.

Choice B is incorrect because it means “commit to memory” or “learn,” but the plaque is an inanimate object that cannot remember anything. Choice C means “to make larger,” but the plaque does not increase the role that the men played, it just reminds people that the men did the work. Choice D is incorrect because it is somewhat negative and means that something is incapable of change or development.

11

Content: addition and deletion

Choice D is the best answer because the entire passage is about Banneker and his contributions to the nation. Adding details about activities that occur at a place he once was distracts from the focus on Banneker, so the sentence should not be included in the passage.

Choices A and B are incorrect because the added sentence refers to activities that are not related to Banneker, so the sentence should not be included. It does not contribute to describing how the present-day Jones Point relates to Banneker, nor does it encourage the reader to travel to Jones Point. Choice C is incorrect because the paragraph is not about “publications” or “books and articles” that Banneker wrote.

12

Content: addition and deletion

Choice B is the best answer because “hydropower,” “wind power,” and “solar power” are specific examples that explain what is meant by “renewable energy sources.” Without the revision, the reader may be unfamiliar with the term and mistakenly think that the passage is about something else or become confused about the topic.

Choice A is incorrect because the passage is not structured in the order of “hydropower,” “wind power,” and “solar power.” It instead turns to the topic of CAES and how that works to store energy. Choices C and D are incorrect because the revision helps the reader understand an important vocabulary word, so the revision should be made. The examples are not “too different” because they are all defining one term, and they do not conflict with the statement that it is hard to store surplus or extra energy from these sources.

13

Content: conventional expressions

Choice A is the best answer because “times of XX” is a standard expression to describe a period in which XX occurs. It fits the context of describing a period when demand is at its “peak,” or “height.”

Choice B is incorrect because “for” is not standard usage with the idiom “times of XX.” Choice C is incorrect because “peeked” means “looked quickly” or “glanced.” It is not an adjective that means “high.” Choice D not only uses “for” in place of “of,” but it also uses “peaked,” which does not fit the context because it is an adjective meaning “pale and tired.”

14

Content: precision and concision

Choice D is the best answer because the sentence already says that CAES is a “method of storage.” There is no need to repeat that idea at this point of the passage.

All of the other choices can be eliminated as redundant. The sentence includes the information that CAES is a “method of storage,” so “one method,” “a particular means of storage” and “a form of storage” needlessly repeat the same idea.

15

Content: sentence/paragraph order

Choice D is the best answer because sentence 2 refers to “the expanding air.” The determiner “the” should be used after the first reference to an object, so sentence 2 needs to be placed after the first reference to “expanding air,” which is in sentence 5.

All of the other choices are incorrect because they interrupt the flow of the passage. They use the term “the expanding air” before any reference to air expanding has been made. Choice A is especially problematic because it divides “these spaces” in sentence 3 from its antecedent in sentence 1, “naturally…caverns,” making the reference hard to find.

16

Content: sentence boundaries

Choice C is the best answer because a colon is correctly used to add more detail that explains a claim made in the main clause. In this case, the claim is that only two places use CAES, and the detail is the name of the two places.

Choices A and B are incorrect because “one in…Germany” is not a complete sentence because there is no active verb. Therefore, it cannot follow a semicolon or stand on its own as a sentence. Choice D is incorrect because a colon should divide a clause that can stand on its own from added detail. “One” does not make sense placed on its own at the end of the main clause. “In McIntosh, Alabama” is essential information to clarify which “one” is being discussed so should not be divided from “one” using any punctuation.

17

Content: subordination and coordination

Choice C is the best answer because “the McIntosh…power” and “the German…megawatts” are both complete clauses. “And” subordinates the second while showing that the content has the same relative importance.

Choice A is a comma splice because it connects two independent clauses. Choice B is incorrect because “as well as” does not have the same meaning as “and.” It is used to show “not only XX but also YY,” where XX and YY are two nouns or two actions, which does not fit the context of listing two plants that generate different amounts of power using complete clauses. Choice D is incorrect because a semicolon should join two independent clauses, but “while” subordinates the second part so it cannot stand on its own.

18

Content: addition and deletion

Choice A is the best answer because the underlined sentence gives the reader perspective about the data in the preceding sentence. The average person probably does not know how much energy “110 megawatts” or “321 megawatts” really is. However, the underlined sentence puts those numbers into easily understandable terms: enough energy for 431,000 homes. The reader therefore can see that there is a large “impact” or “effect” from the CAES power plants.

Choice B is incorrect because the following information is not “another point about how to provide electricity.” Instead, the following information says that the same method of providing electricity is planned for other areas. Choices C and D can be eliminated because the underlined sentence is important to the understanding of the preceding sentence. It does not matter that different homes use different amounts of energy; an average gives a good general idea. The paragraph is also not just about the McIntosh facility, it is about all places that use CAES now.

19

Content: punctuation

Choice C is the best answer because the underlined portion is the end of a long noun that is the subject of the sentence: “reinforcing them and building the infrastructure for CAES.” The following words, “can cost” forms the main verb of the sentence. No punctuation should divide a subject from its verb.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they divide the subject from its verb in the main clause. Choice A makes “reinforcing…CAES” appear to be an unnecessary comment set aside with commas. In Choice B, a semicolon should only divide two independent clauses, but neither portion can stand on its own. In Choice D, a single dash is used to add more detail after a complete clause, but the preceding portion has no verb.

20

Content: subject/verb agreement

Choice D is the best answer because the complete subject of the sentence is “traditional methods of CAES.” The main noun, “methods,” is plural, so the verb also needs to be plural.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they are singular verbs, so they do not agree with the plural subject “methods.”

21

Content: word questions

Choice B is the best answer because the underlined word is referring to “collecting” escaping heat so that the heat can be used for something else. Choice B has the basic meaning of “take into one’s possession,” which describes “collecting” or “trapping” the heat that would otherwise escape.

None of the other choices fits the context of catching heat for reuse. Choices A and B refer to detaining or catching someone for a crime, but the heat is an inanimate thing that has not broken any laws. Choice D refers to catching something forcibly and suddenly. However, there is no indication that the process of gathering the heat is fast and requires force; it is most likely an ongoing process.

22

Content: introductions, conclusions, and supporting details

Choice B is the best answer because the main subject of the passage is described in the first paragraph: renewable energy sources have a problem of needing to store surplus energy to use when demand is great. CAES is offered as the solution to this problem. The body of the passage then outlines what CAES is, its current use, and challenges with using it. Choice B concisely summarizes this topic by saying that CAES is “promising,” or “has potential,” for solving the problem.

None of the other choices addresses the main topic of the passage. Choice A is incorrect because “stumbling blocks” refers to things that are in the way. However, the passage says that there are other “stumbling blocks” than just national energy policies: suitable locations are hard to find, something needs to be done with the excess heat, and the cost of setting up the plants is expensive. Choice C is incorrect because “dismaying” creates a tone of sadness or frustration, but the passage is basically upbeat about suggesting CAES as a possible way to solve an energy problem. The main topic is not the “inefficiency” of CAES, but the possible application of it. Choice D is incorrect because the passage does not mention residential applications of CAES at all.

23

Content: combine sentences

Choice D is the best answer because the second sentence becomes a modifier for the subject to show that “Johnson” did not act alone in the project. It concisely conveys the necessary information without changing the intended meaning of the original sentences.

Choice A is incorrect because “and” makes the actions appear sequential, or one event happening after the other, but the original sentences imply that the act of announcing the plan was done at the same time as having encouragement. Choice B is incorrect because it subtly changes the meaning of the original sentences. “Announcing an…dictionary” is subordinated so that it describes “Johnson.” The main action is that the booksellers encouraged Johnson, but the reason for the encouragement is not necessarily the announcement. Choice C retains the original meaning but is ambiguous because “this” has no specific referent. “This” should be followed by a word such as “action” for clarification.

24

Content: subordination and coordination

Choice B is the best answer because “and” subordinates the following clause. “And” correctly shows that the events were sequential. It also indicates that the topic of the second clause has the same approximate level of importance as the topic of the preceding clause.

Choice A is incorrect because it creates a comma splice between two independent clauses. Choice C is incorrect because the conjunction “as” refers to two things that happen simultaneously, but the completion happened before the response to the release. Choice D is incorrect because “with” should be followed by a noun, not a clause.

25

Content: possessive determiners

Choice D is the best answer because the “laborious journey from planning to publication” belongs to the dictionary. Choice D is a singular possessive pronoun, so correctly shows that the journey belongs to a single object mentioned earlier in the paragraph.

Choice A is incorrect because it is used to describe a generic object that is not mentioned earlier in the passage, but “dictionary” is specifically given. Choice B is incorrect because it refers to the things owned by more than one subject, but only one subject, the book, is given. Choice C is incorrect because it is the contraction for “it is” so does not indicate possession at all.

26

Content: style and tone

Choice B is the best answer because it is a formal word that refers to the “most important” person in a field. It maintains the professional tone established in the rest of the passage.

All of the other choices can be eliminated as being too casual or colloquial. Although they all refer to “most important,” they do so in a way more suitable for casual conversation than for a written passage for publication.

27

Content: subordination and coordination

Choice B is the best answer because “marking…” turns the following portion into a modifier that describes an action of the subject, “Johnson.”

Choice A is incorrect because “his marking” turns the following portion into a noun. A noun after a comma needs to rename the word preceding it, but “his marking…” does not describe “writers.” Choice C is incorrect because “and” should join two items that are grammatically equivalent. Because it is preceded by a clause, it should be followed by a clause. There is no active verb, so the parts are not parallel. Choice D is incorrect because “by” shows the method that is used to complete a task. However, Johnson did not read using the method of marking passages. Marking passages was something he did as well as reading.

28

Content: introductions, conclusions, and supporting details

Choice D is the best answer because the paragraph discusses the challenges of writing accurate definitions. The paragraph says that he tried to be more precise than any previous writer, but his sources showed that definitions changed over time. The final portion of the paragraph says that Johnson found the problem important enough to mention it in the preface of his book. Choice D effectively sets up the paragraph because it uses “next” to show that the there is a change in time; the activities were done in order. It then clearly explains to the reader what the new activity is.

Choice A is incorrect because the previous paragraph, not the following paragraph, discusses the passage selection. Therefore, Choice A does not inform the reader that there is a change in topic. Choice B is incorrect because the following paragraph does not mention the scribes at all. Choice C is incorrect because the following sentence mentions “no other writer,” but otherwise there is no comparison between the works of the authors. Therefore, Choice C only refers to a minor detail of the paragraph.

29

Content: introductions, conclusions, and supporting details

Choice A is the best answer because in the quotation, Johnson says that it is impossible to perfectly “embalm” or “preserve” language; language will become “corrupt” and “decay.” In other words, he says that language changes no matter how careful an author might be. Choice A sets up that quotation because “inherent” refers to a natural part of something, and “mutability” means “ability to change.” Johnson admits that language will naturally change.

Choice B is incorrect because the quote contains no reference to the “status” or “position in society” that writers of dictionaries held. It only says that language will change. Choices C and D are incorrect because the quote does not give any reasons for how any word was chosen or why any word was included in the book.

30

Content: tense, mood, and voice

Choice A is the best answer because the paragraph is in the past about a decision that Johnson made in the past. The simple past tense clearly establishes the time that the action occurred.

Choice B is incorrect because the past perfect describes an action that began in the distant past and ended before another past action that is given in the immediate context. However, there is no other action that comes after “using the dictionary to promote words he liked.” Choice C is incorrect because it is a future tense, but the action was completed in the past. Choice D is incorrect because it is a present tense, but the action is not happening now.

31

Content: addition and deletion

Choice C is the best answer because the topic of the paragraph is a discussion about Johnson’s opinions about language. The preceding statement is that Johnson promoted words he liked and protested ones he disliked. The following section offers two specific examples of Johnson’s attempts to influence the use of certain words. Adding a sentence about the length of the dictionary compared to others—especially since the length was not exceptional—interrupts the flow of the general statement to the examples and does not contribute to the topic in any way.

Choices A and B are incorrect because the sentence interrupts the flow of the passage. The contextual information is not relevant to the paragraph, nor does it show that Johnson covered an exceptional number of words. Choice D is incorrect because the number of words is not given earlier in the passage.

32

Content: transitions

Choice B is the best answer because the underlined portion comes between two very different examples. The preceding example is about a term that Johnson liked, considering it “elegant and useful.” The second example is about a term that Johnson disliked, considering it “not to be imitated.” Choice B is used to introduce a contrasting or opposite situation, which fits the context well.

Choice A is incorrect because it is used to introduce two things that are very similar, highlighting the point of comparison. However, the author is stressing two extremes of Johnson’s critique of words. Choice C is used to introduce an example, so may seem appropriate because the following portion is a specific case. However, Choice C refers to the preceding statement, which is a contrast and not a general case that the following example represents. Choice D is incorrect because it means “in spite of that.” The two examples do not occur in spite of each other, though, they are two extremes that illustrate a prior claim.

33

Content: punctuation

Choice C is the best answer because “at the very least” is an aside that qualifies the action of the sentence. Therefore, it should be divided from the sentence using the same punctuation—in this case, a comma—at both ends.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because the punctuation at the start and end of the aside is not consistent, so it is hard to determine where the clause starts and ends. In Choices A and B, the dash appears to close an idea started with the dash after “language.” However, that leaves the main clause as either “he could not preserve his language at the very least…” or ““he could not preserve his language try to shape it…” In Choice D, a semicolon should divide independent clauses from each other, but neither the portion before or after the semicolon can stand on its own.

34

Content: conventional expressions

Choice A is the best answer because “conventional wisdom” is a term for a generally accepted belief. It is standard usage to use both words together when describing such things as common corporate policies.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they are not standard usage with “wisdom.” Choices B and D refer to something that is done repeatedly so that it becomes usual. However, they are not typically used to describe something that is commonly accepted as true. Choice C is used to describe a sequence of actions rather than “wisdom.”

35

Content: punctuation

Choice B is the best answer because “However, in recent…benefits” is a complete idea that can stand alone as a sentence. Additional information that expands on the idea should be placed after a dash. Also, “while keeping…” is an action that occurs simultaneously with the act of “they have done so.” It is also an important part of the statement, because “keeping costs down” and “performing well financially” are essential in expressing why “doing so” is remarkable. Therefore, no punctuation should be placed after “so” to divide the following portion from the main idea.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because there should be no comma after “so” dividing the essential details of saving money and performing well financially from the rest of the sentence. In Choice C, a colon does not work well because it should be followed by an explanation that clarifies the previous clause rather than a detail that is not an explanation. In Choice D, there should be punctuation after “and” to divide the clauses from each other and eliminate a run-on sentence.

36

Content: combine sentences

Choice A is the best answer because it maintains the meaning of the original sentences while presenting the information in a clear and logical way. “If” clearly shows that the first portion is the thing that could be changed and “the additional cost…” after a comma is the potential result of that change.

Choice B is incorrect because it does not show that “increasing prices” is a possible change that could lead to the given outcome of only a 30-cent difference. Without “if,” “increasing prices” is an action taken by the stores. Creating an “additional cost that averages 30 cents…” is the possible thing that could be changed. Choice C is incorrect “would be increased” refers to “the additional cost” rather than “store prices.” Therefore, it is grammatically incorrect because there is no preposition before “store prices” to explain how that part of the sentence relates. Choice D is incorrect because it changes the meaning so that the “additional cost” is doing the action of making up for an expenditure. The “additional cost” does the action using the method of increasing store prices.

37

Content: punctuation

Choice B is the best answer because “one with better-than-average pay and benefits and another with lower employee wages” is an appositive phrase, or a noun that renames the noun that precedes it, “two chains of warehouse club stores.” An appositive phrase should be divided from the sentence with a comma at both ends.

All of the other choice can be eliminated because the punctuation should be consistent at the start and end of additional information added to a sentence, so a comma is needed to go with the one after “wages.” In addition, all of the other choices need to be preceded by an independent clause, which is not the case.

38

Content: parallelism

Choice C is the best answer because the underlined portion is the second half of a comparison. Both halves of a comparison need to be grammatically consistent and things that logically can be compared. The first item is “the number of sales per employee at the higher-wage club store.” This phrase can be reduced to the main idea of “a number.” Choice C makes a logical comparison because it refers to the “number” of sales at the lower-wage store.

None of the other choices makes a logical comparison with a “number” of sales. Choice A compares a number with “employees” or people. Choice B is ambiguous because “ones” could refer to “number,” “sales,” or “employees.” Choice D is incorrect because it compares the number with the store itself.

39

Content: subordination and coordination

Choice D is the best answer because the main clause of the sentence is “Professor Wayne F Cascio…found that….” The first part of the sentence should therefore be a modifier that refers to the subject, Professor Cascio. Choice D turns the first part into an action done by the subject, logically completing the sentence.

The comma in Choice A makes “when examined” into a modifier referring to the following noun, “the same pair of club stores.” However, that illogically turns “the same pair of club stores” into an appositive renaming the following noun, “Professor Cascio.” Choice B is incorrect because it turns the first portion into a noun that describes the following word, but “Professor Cascio” is not “an examination….” Choice C is incorrect because “they” has no referent; the subject is the singular “Professor Cascio,” and there is no group other than “businesses” or “workers,” neither of which conducted the study.

40

Content: graphics

Choice B is the best answer because it correctly reports the information from the table regarding employees that “leave their jobs each year,” which is defined as “turnover.” The lower-paying club store is the one which has a lower “estimated average hourly wage,” which is Company A in the top row. The “annual full-time employee turnover rate” in the top row is 44%, and the “annual estimated cost of turnover per full-time employee” is $5,274.

All of the other choices have errors in interpreting the data from the table. Choice A is incorrect because the chart shows two “estimated hourly wage” entries. One is $10 and the other is $17. The “lower-paying club store” would therefore pay wages of $10. Choice C is incorrect because 110,200 refers to the total number of full-time employees at the store, but there is no evidence that every employee leaves the job. Choice D is incorrect because $5,274 represents the “cost of turnover” to the company, presumably for things like hiring and training a replacement as discussed in the passage. $5,274 is not the wages of the employee.

41

Content: graphics

Choice C is the best answer because the point made in the first part of the sentence is that the “turnover rate at the higher-paying club store…was lower.” Choice C directly says what the turnover rate is and also offers the cost of the rate. This is a direct contrast to the higher figures given earlier in the paragraph for the turnover rate and costs of the lower-paying store.

Choice A is incorrect because it only refers to the average income of the employees; it says nothing about turnover rate. Choice B only says that the staff was smaller; it does not explain what percent of that staff leaves the job. Choice D is incorrect because it only compares the wages of the employees; it does not mention turnover rate. It is already known that the employees have higher wages, so this information does not further the discussion at all.

42

Content: introductions, conclusions, and supporting details

Choice C is the best answer because the following information is that many companies other than the two in the studies benefit even though they pay employees higher wages. Choice C prepares the reader for the list of specific fields given by saying that the companies highlighted in the study are not “unique” or “one of a kind.”

Choice A is incorrect because it weakens the claim that paying higher wages is beneficial or helps businesses “thrive” because it says that a store that does not pay higher wages is still “successful,” or “thriving.” Choice B is incorrect because the following point is about the value of paying higher wages, not about the number of employees in the companies. Choice D is incorrect because it implies that the results of the study might only apply to the stores in the study because they are different than stores in other fields. Therefore, it does not adequately introduce the idea that other stores benefit from the same practice.

43

Content: tense, mood, and voice

Choice D is the best answer because it is a singular verb so agrees with the singular subject, “the success.” In addition, the passage is written in the present about results that are still applicable today, so the simple present is used.

Choices A and B are incorrect because they are plural verbs so do not agree with the singular subject, “the success.” Choice B is also incorrect because the present perfect indicates that the action occurred in the past up to the present but will not continue into the future. However, there is no hint that the results will not be applicable in the future. Choice C is incorrect because it is a conditional tense, which means that it is referring to a possibility that is not occurring now. However, the results of the test are real and currently highlight the point about paying employees higher wages.

44

Content: introductions, conclusions, and supporting details

Choice A is the best answer because the passage argues that paying higher wages is ultimately beneficial. The body of the passage focuses on two studies that demonstrate this claim in detail. Therefore, the best conclusion to the passage is a summary about how paying higher wages is “beneficial” or “a profitable strategy.”

Choice B is incorrect because the passage does not describe any problems about “implementing” or “putting the plan into effect.” Therefore, it does not summarize any points or provide a logical conclusion. Choice C is incorrect because employee morale is only briefly mentioned in the passage; it is a supporting reason that employees do not leave their jobs and that they help customers better. Morale is therefore only part of the argument about why paying employees is good for the company. Choice D is incorrect because there is no discussion of “debate” about whether the policy is good or not. Therefore, Choice D does not summarize the passage.

1

Choice D is the best answer because the first paragraph begins by saying “she came to the play” (line 1) full of ideas about “the finery, the merriment, the beauty she had seen” (lines 3-4) of the women on her way to the theater; the body of the paragraph describes her visions of those women in detail and explains that she wants to be like them (lines 18-19, “It ached her to know that she was not one of them”). Paragraph 2 changes to the nature of the play, and Carrie “longed to be of it” (line 35) because it also represented the same luxurious lifestyle that she envisioned the women in the city as having. Paragraph 3 returns to Carrie’s impressions of the city as she leaves the theater and heads home. Finally, Paragraph 4 brings Carrie to her home, where Carrie dreams of having a life like the one she saw in the theater, “if she could only have such a part” (lines 71-72).

Choice A is incorrect because Carrie feels that her life is far removed from the character in the play (lines 71-72, “if she could only have such a part”). Choice B is incorrect because, while Carrie depicts herself as being completely common and poor, there is no indication about “how she is perceived by others.” In other words, there is no information showing how anyone else views her. Choice C is incorrect because the passage contains no description of Carrie’s “actual appearance,” or what she looks like.

2

Choice B is the best answer because Carrie imagines everyone else as having an elegant life that she does not have. In Paragraph 1, Carrie looks at the beautiful clothing and is miserable because she wants to be like the women wearing the garments, “it ached her to know that she was not one of them—that, alas, she had dreamed a dream and it had not come true” (lines 18-20). She felt that the play was so lovely that she did not want to go back to her regular life (lines 40-42, “She was…never return”). When she does go outside in Paragraph 3, she compares the indulgent purchases of the women who were “spending money like water” (lines 53-54) when she regretted that she barely had enough to even attend a play (lines 56-58, “And she…a month”). Finally, even her home seemed “a commonplace thing” (line 60) compared with “what the rest of the world was enjoying" (lines 60-61).

Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication that Carrie has “natural talent” or any abilities that are "languishing" or "not used." She just feels that she would thrive in a more luxurious environment. Choice C is incorrect because the passage indicates that Carrie has yet to realize her goals, “she had dreamed a dream and it had not come true” (lines 19-20) and “she had never achieved what she had expected” (lines 22-23). Therefore, the passage does not claim that goals are “unfeasible” or impossible to achieve. Choice D is incorrect because Carrie appears to value money over anything else and feels that she would be happy if she had it, “if she could only have such a part, how broad would be her life” (lines 71-72).

3

Choice A is the best answer because “stirred” is used in the context of describing how she arrived at the play, “stirred to her heart’s core.” In other words, Carrie arrived emotionally “affected” or “touched” by what she had seen. Choice A fits this context because it is used to describe being affected by a deep emotion.

Choice B is incorrect because Carrie is not necessarily “displeased” or “upset” to the bottom of her heart. Instead, she is envious and desires the riches she feels are out of her reach. Choice C is incorrect because it refers to urging someone to do something. However, Carrie was not urged or driven to the bottom of her heart. Choice D is incorrect because it refers to optimism, but Carrie feels that the riches are out of her reach.

4

Choice D is the best answer because “trivial” means “unimportant” or “foolish.” A “knick-knack” usually refers to a small, worthless household object. However, the knick-knacks are things which are “silver and gold” (lines 7-8), which usually implies valuable treasures or jewelry. The contrast in terms emphasizes that the items are not really the precious objects that Carrie thinks they are. In addition, Carrie views the play as extremely moving and something that she wants to keep viewing (lines 40-42, “She was soon…never return”). However, since a “concoction” is “an elaborate but untrue story,” the word shows that Carrie is taken in by something that is not extremely valuable.

Choice A is incorrect because “knick-knacks” and “concoctions” are not necessarily “popular” or “liked by many people.” Choice B is incorrect because “knick-knacks” and “concoctions” are not valuable things, so there is no reason that she should be attracted to money or “materialistic.” Choice C is incorrect because Carrie does not have “little value” for the thing; she wants them so much it hurts,” it ached her to know that she was not one of them” (lines 18-19).

5

Choice D is the best answer because the questions are just asking about the lives of the women she sees: how did they get their wealth (lines 6-9, “whence came…gold") and where do they live (lines 8-12, “Where were…provide?”)? However, each question is full of adjectives such as “elegant,” “astonishing,” and “gorgeous,” that stress that Carrie thinks that the clothes and residences must be extremely luxurious.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication that the women have private struggles. The questions show the pampered lives that Carrie assumes that they lead, complete with ornate “mansions” (line 15) and attended by servants such as “richly groomed footmen” (line 14). Choice B is incorrect because the questions summarize Carrie’s view of where the women probably live. They do not offer any hint that her interpretations are accurate. Choice C is incorrect because Carrie does not have “contempt” or “scorn” for the women, she is jealous of them, “It ached her to know that she was not one of them” (lines 18-19).

6

Choice B is the best answer because Carrie is depicted as loving the play (lines 40-42, “she was soon…never return”). She also is shown as longing to be like the women she sees on her way to the theater (lines 18-19, “It ached…them”). Choice B says that the play was appealing for people like Carrie who wanted things that she did not have. Such a statement also implies that the play would not be interesting to other types of people such as the narrator. This view is reinforced by the term “bon-mots,” which is used to describe witty jokes. To describe the play as a “bon mot” hints that the narrator feels it did not have a serious message or lasting impact.

Choice A is incorrect because it only describes Carrie’s views of the women on the way to the theater; it does not show that the narrator has a different view of the play than Carrie does. Choices C and D say that Carrie was extremely moved by the play, but they do not give any hint that the narrator was not also extremely moved by it.

7

Choice A is the best answer because “conducive” means “making something likely to happen.” However, the passage says that Carrie “had dreamed a dream and it had not come true” (lines 19-20), meaning that her life was not helping to make her dreams happen. This point is reinforced in lines 22-23, “she had never achieved what she had expected.”

Choice B is incorrect because there is no indication that Carrie’s life was “productive” or “achieving a desired result.” Instead, Carrie is depicted as frustrated because she has not gotten what she wanted. Choice C is incorrect because Carrie is not shown as “interacting” or communicating with “interesting people.” Instead, she watches beautiful people from afar. Choice D is incorrect because there is no indication that Carrie wants to be an actress. Lines 71-73 (“Oh, if she…appealingly”) does not refer to literally acting a part on the stage, it refers to Carrie’s desire to have a life similar to that of the beautiful actress in the play.

8

Choice A is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Carrie regards her day-to-day lifestyle as one that has not helped her achieve her ambitions. Choice A supports that answer because it directly says that for the past two years, she had not reached her goals or ambitions. Her “indifference” or “lack of interest” implies that she had been involved enough in her everyday life that she did not notice that she had not reached her goals.

Choice B shows Carrie’s admiration for the life of the stage but does not show that she has not achieved her goals. Her personal “sufferings” are not defined, which implies that they were not very serious. Choices C and D do not refer to Carrie, only the activity on Broadway.

9

Choice C is the best answer because lines 30-38 (“They have the…the stage”) show that Carrie was attracted to the way the people in the play were “suffering under ideal conditions” (lines 30-31) and that “Carrie longed to be of it” (line 35).

Choice A is incorrect because lines 30-38 (“They have…the stage”) refer to how Carrie is attracted to the “sufferings” of the people on stage, implying that they suffer from “everyday problems.” Choice B is incorrect because there is no evidence to support the claim that the characters in the play “forget the past,” because there is no detail about the actions of the characters. Choice D is incorrect because there is no reference to how the people in the play view their “material possessions,” which refers to their money and belongings.

10

Choice A is the best answer because Carrie feels that “there were places in which she could even do better” (lines 69-70) in the performance, meaning that she thought she could do better than the actress. In other words, the actress’s performance was “inferior” or “less good” than Carrie’s image of her own performance.

Choice B is incorrect because Carrie’s description stresses that she was moved by the emotional “authenticity” or “realism” of the performance: “Her sufferings had been so real. The anguish which she had portrayed Carrie could feel” (lines 66-67). Choice C is incorrect because there is no comparison between the performances of the different characters. The passage only says that Carrie particularly remembered the sweetheart. Choice D is incorrect because there is no hint that the performance was “difficult” to watch. The woman was graceful and her clothing beautiful (lines 65-67, “the grace…so real”), implying that it was lovely to watch her performance and that Carrie noticed it all in detail.

11

Choice B is the best answer because the passage is describing the results of two main experiments that compare how the brain analyzes real and fictional information. Paragraph 2 describes the first experiment in which participants “had to decide whether the scenarios portrayed were possible or not” (lines 15-16) when given sentences involving real and fictional people. Paragraphs 3-5 interpret the results of that experiment according to changes in activated parts of the brain. Paragraph 5 also introduces the second experiment, which includes a variation in the people given in the scenarios. Paragraph 6 summarizes the passage by providing an explanation for the differences in the brain activity of the participants.

Choice A is incorrect because “advocate for more research” means “encourage that more research be done.” However, the passage does not try to get anyone else to do more research. Choice C is incorrect because the tests were not just related to processing “factual” or “real” information; they were specifically set up to observe differences in reaction between “a situation that is real as opposed to one that is entirely fictional” (lines 3-4). Choice D is incorrect because there is no argument that people have made mistakes about interpreting any brain function; the passage also does not say that one scenario, real compared to fictional, is less understood than the other.

12

Choice C is the best answer because “operate” is used in a question that can be paraphrased as, “how does the brain work when assessing the scenarios?” Since Choice C refers to “working” or “performing” an action, it fits the context of asking how a brain processes the information.

All the other choices are incorrect because they require an object such as “information” to show what is being operated upon. Choice A refers to “handling” or “controlling,” Choice B refers to “using” and Choice D refers to “managing,” but they do not make sense without an object.

13

Choice A is the best answer because “important similarities” would be things that are the same, or “common,” to both scenarios. Choice A directly says that there are some “common” features between “both types of situation,” so best supports the claim.

Choice B is incorrect because it refers to differences rather than “important similarities.” Choice C is incorrect because it only refers to scenarios involving real people. Therefore, it does not support any claim comparing scenarios with real people to scenarios with fictional people. Choice D only refers to scenarios involving fictional people, so, like Choice C, does not support any claim comparing scenarios with real people to scenarios with fictional people.

14

Choice B is the best answer because Paragraph 3 describes the activation of the brain in the first experiment. It says that “common to both types of situation” (lines 20), meaning “similar in both types of situation,” was at least “some level of mental activity” (line 21) in parts of the brain responsible for “general recall facts or events” (line 23). The paragraph then continues to say that this activity was notable whether the scenario was informative or interactive (lines 23-27, “such activity… characters)”). This claim indicates that all types of scenario involved memory recall.

Choice A is incorrect because the Paragraph 3 says there is a finer distinction in brain activity only when a fictional or real scenario is given, “these [distinctions] depended on the type of character involved” (lines 29-30), showing that the fine distinction does not exist between interactive or informative scenarios. Choice C is incorrect because there is no data relating to the final decision about the possibility of an event; there only a discussion of brain activity while processing the information. Choice D is incorrect because there is no reference to brain activity that was not “classifiable;” in other words, the passage does not discuss brain activity that could not be labeled or identified.

15

Choice B is the best answer because Paragraph 5 discusses a study that tested the reaction of the amPFC in relationship to “differing degrees of personal relevance for the participants” (lines 55-56), in other words, how much the amPFC reacted to people who were important to the participant or not. The study showed that the reaction was “highest in the case of friends and family members and lowest in the case of fictional characters” (lines 62-63). Therefore, a situation involving a childhood, implying good, friend of the subject, would have the strongest amPFC reaction of the answer choices given.

The other choices can be eliminated because lines 59-61 say that “the amPFC and PCC was indeed proportionally modulated by the degree of relevance of the characters described” with the most activation for good friends and the least activation for fictional characters. Therefore, Choices A and D would have lower activation than Choice B because the interaction involves a real person, but ones that the participant is not closely attached to. Choice C would have the lowest activation of the choices because it involves a fictional character and the other choices involve real people.

16

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the greatest increase in amPFC activity in a research subject’s brain results from scenarios in which a real protagonist interacts with the subject’s childhood friends. Choice C says that there was a “proportional,” or “directly related” level of activation depending upon the “degree of relevance” of the characters. Since “degree of relevance” refers to how important the character is to the participant, a real childhood friend that the participant spent a lot of time with would most likely trigger a strong amPFC reaction.

None of the other choices refers to an amPFC reaction to any scenario. Choice A only describes one scenario of the first test. Choice B explains that in the second test, participants were given scenarios with different levels of personal relevance, but it does not explain the results of the test. Choice D refers to awareness of real characters in general.

17

Choice D is the best answer because Paragraph 6 offers the interpretation of the data from the studies, summarizing with, “to understand a fictional character, you need to dig deeper into your imagination, because he or she is bound up to fewer nodes of reference in your network than are real…people in your life” (lines 83-87). In other words, the fictional network is “less broad in scope” or “smaller” because there are “fewer nodes of reference” than the network for any type of real person.

Choice A is incorrect because the reason for storing information is not discussed in the passage. Choice B is incorrect because Paragraph 5 indicates that there is a proportional difference in brain activity between the method of retrieving information and the relevance of the person (lines 59-63, “As predicted…characters"). If there is a difference in brain activity, then the storage method is also probably different. Choice C is incorrect because Paragraph 5 indicates that the information is all contained in the same areas, the amPFC and PCC. Paragraph 6 indicates that the information is linked to the same “real world” references of things such as “basic behavioral features as human beings” (line 69).

18

Choice B is the best answer because “alien” is used to describe a world that is less familiar than the real world. It is paired with “inscrutable,” which means “impossible to understand.” Choice B fits this context because it means “strange” and “unfamiliar.”

Choice A means “not staying the same throughout” or “conflicting.” However, it is possible that the world that a fictional character lives in is logically organized without any conflicting features. Choice C is incorrect because it is too limiting. It refers to “not from Earth,” and while some fictional characters may live in outer space, others live in different times on Earth. Choice D is incorrect because it means “complicated,” but it is possible that the fictional world is not developed and very simple.

19

Choice C is the best answer because the percent increase in the change in activity of the PCC is given on the vertical scale. The horizontal scale gives four options. The two involving a “real person” are on the left. The question asks about a “conversation” with a real person, which would be a situation in which people “interact” or “respond to each other.” The black column for “interactive scenario” stops just below the mark for .15%. The closest approximation is therefore about .13%.

None of the other choices corresponds with the black bar for “real person/interactive scenario.” Choice A is the percentage for fictional characters in an interactive scenario. Choice B is the percentage for real characters in an “informative,” or passive, scenario. Such a scenario would include listening but not talking in a conversation with each other. Choice D does not correspond with any columns in the chart but could be derived by misreading the scale on the vertical column.

20

Choice B is the best answer because the vertical scales of both figures show the change in activity. However, it is important to note that the scales are different: Figure 1 ranges from 0-20%, and Figure 2 ranges from 0-30%. Notice that the highest value in Figure 1 is only about 13% for the second column. By contrast, the lowest value in Figure 2 is the first column, at just about .20%. Therefore, the highest activity will be one of the changes in IFG shown in Figure 2; either Choice B or Choice D. Choice B, “an interactive scenario involving fictional people,” corresponds to the white column, which is about .25%. Choice D, “an interactive scenario involving real people,” refers to the black column, which is shorter than the white column and only reaches about .23%. Therefore, the most change is Choice B at .25%.

All of the other choices have a lower percentage change than Choice B at .25%. Choice A is found in the black column of Figure 1: .13%. Choice C is found in the white and solid grey bars of Figure 1: about .05% and .02%. Choice D is found in the black column of Figure 2: about 23%.

21

Choice C is the best answer because Paragraph 1 begins by saying that despite outward similarities in appearance, there are genetic differences between domestic and wild cats. Lines 8-10 introduce the topic of the paper, “Now scientists have begun to pinpoint the genetic changes that drove this remarkable transformation.” The body of the passage describes how the study was conducted and gives the highlights of the findings. Paragraph 4 refers to completing a genetic sequence for a domestic cat and comparing it to other animals. Paragraphs 5-8 discuss certain genes that are different between domestic and feral cats, such as ones “involved in hearing and vision” (line 44), “at least 13 genes that changed as cats morphed from feral to friendly” (lines 53-54), and “genes that allow our brains to develop and make us interact socially” (lines 70-72). The final paragraph summarizes by speculating why domestic cats are not as tame as other domestic animals, there has been “less intense and more recent evolutionary pressure than (on the genome) of dogs” (lines 85-86).

Choice A is incorrect because, while the study looked at “22 domestic cats— representing a wide variety of breeds and location” (lines 49-50), the data was compared “with the genomes of two Near Eastern and two European wildcats” (lines51-52). In other words, the data about domestic cats was only used to isolate differences between wild and domestic cats. Choice B is incorrect because, while benefits are briefly mentioned in Paragraph 3, the study did not collect any data about how cats help people. Choice D is incorrect because the passage alludes to behavioral differences, but the study did not conduct experiments regarding behavior in any way. The study only compared the genomes of various animals.

22

Choice D is the best answer because “and, well” comes before the extremely obvious statement, “they both look like cats” (line 4). “Obviousness” refers to something being “obvious” or “extremely easy to see.” Using “and, well” shows that the writer realizes that the statement is “obvious,” and is trying to show that the detail about appearance is not intended to be rude. The message comes across as, “I know you know this point, but it is important, so I am mentioning it.”

Choice A is incorrect because the relationship between wild and domestic cats is not “continually shifting” or “changing all the time.” The point that “they both look like cats” (line 4) highlights a similarity rather than a difference that changes. Choice B is incorrect because the writer ends the description of “physical attributes” or “outward appearance” by saying that cats “look like cats.” After that point, the topic changes from physical to behavioral differences. Choice C is incorrect because “cats look like cats” is not a hypothesis and it is not about evolution or development; it is a statement of fact about appearance.

23

Choice C is the best answer because Paragraph 3 gives a theory about the domestication of cats based on the assumption that cats “mostly domesticated themselves” (lines 23-24). This theory shows that domestication was not “intentionally undertaken by humans,” meaning that humans did not make a specific decision to tame cats.

Choice A is incorrect because, although the domestication of dogs happened before the domestication of cats, there is no evidence in the passage about when cows or pigs were domesticated. Choice B is incorrect because line 26 says, “cats shrank slightly in size.” Since “to shrink” means “to get smaller,” cats got smaller rather than larger in size. Choice D is incorrect because Paragraph 3 indicates that domestication occurred because cats wanted to eat rats in grain storage areas and the farmers appreciated the removal of the rats.

24

Choice A is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that some scientists would agree that cat domestication was not “intentionally undertaken by humans” or “done because humans decided to.” Choice A directly names the probable cause of domestication: the cats themselves. Therefore, Choice A supports the claim that something other than humans chose to domesticate cats.

Choice B is incorrect because it only describes qualities associated with domestication; it does not establish the cause of it. Choice C is incorrect because it refers to other animals than cats. Choice D is incorrect because it only says that there are genetic changes in cats, but it does not say whether humans were involved in the process.

25

Choice C is the best answer because the steps listed in Paragraph 6 include “sequenced the genomes of 22 domestic cats” (line 49) and specifies that they were “representing a wide variety of breeds and location” (line 50). In other words, the breeds were “geographically diverse” because they came from different “locations” or “places.” After that, they compared the genomes with those from “two Near Eastern and two European wildcats” (lines 51-52), which totals four wildcats from two places or “locations.” Finally, they found or “identified” the genes that appear to have “changed,” a word that defines “morphed,” due to domestication: “The researchers uncovered at least 13 genes that changed as cats morphed from feral to friendly” (lines 52-54).

Choice A is incorrect because it does not mention the key point that the team compared the genomes of the domestic cats to the genomes of wild cats. In addition, the changes were not the result of deliberate decisions, or “breeding.” Instead they were natural changes as “as cats morphed from feral to friendly” (lines 53-54), in simpler words, “became tamer.” Choice B is incorrect because it does not mention the key point that the team compared the entire genome of 22 domestic cats to the genomes of wild cats; they did not restrict their search to genes related to hearing and vision. Choice D is incorrect because line 50 says that the domestic cats came from “a wide variety of breeds and locations,” which implies more than two places. They also did not focus on the genes which were “geographically specific,” meaning “related to a certain location,” they found genes that indicated a change due to domestication, “as cats morphed from feral to friendly” (lines 53-54).

26

Choice A is the best answer because an “assumption” is a point which is accepted without proof. The team compared the genes of wild cats with genes of domestic cats, then compared these genes with those of mice to determine what characteristics the genes controlled (lines 53-58, “The researchers…food rewards”). The results would only be correct if the genes in the same places were related to the same general characteristic. If each species had its own sequence, then it would be impossible to make any comparisons based on where the gene was.

Choice B is incorrect because, although lines 34-38 (“The scientists…identified genes”) describes filling in missing parts of a genetic sequence, it does not identify the source that they used to complete the sequence. If they used the same breed of cat, they did not assume that any cat sequence would work. Choice C is incorrect because there is no comparison between the numbers of genes affected by domestication. Because the team compared the genomes of several breeds for similarities, it is possible that they assumed that the number of changes per breed was the same. Choice D is incorrect because “simultaneously” refers to changes occurring at the same time. However, the final paragraph says that “the cat genome appears to have undergone less intense and more recent evolutionary pressure than that of dogs” (lines 84-86) indicating that the changes occurred at a different pace and later for cats than for dogs.

27

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous passage is that the team used the assumption that genes associated with particular characteristics in one species are associated with similar characteristics in other species. Choice C says that the team compared the genes of cats and mice to see what characteristics were related. If the gene locations were different for each animal, it would be impossible to make such a conclusion. Therefore, Choice C shows that the team assumed that genes in the same place controlled the same function, despite being from different species.

Choice A only says that the scientists filled in missing portions of a gene sequence, but it does not give any indication of where the replacement parts came from. If they came from other cats, then Choice A does not allude to genes of different species at all. Choice B is incorrect because it only refers to cat genes, not to genes from different species. Choice D is incorrect because, while it does refer to data that had been gained by comparing species, the quote itself does not say that such an assumption had been made while gathering the data. Therefore, Choice D does not provide strong support for the answer to the previous question.

28

Choice C is the best answer because Paragraph 8 includes the discussion of neural crest cells. Lines 77-78 say that “such cells may be the master control switches of domestication.” “Fundamental” refers to something that is essential to a process, such as a “master control switch.”

Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication that neural crest cells will be “overlooked” or “ignored” when evaluating domestication because people now think that they may be extremely important “master control switches” (lines 77-78). Choice B is incorrect because the passage does not talk about how well domestic animals survive in severe or “harsh” environments. Choice D is incorrect because the passage does not say that the neural crest cells are “critical” or “essential” to “reproduction,” which refers to having babies. It only says that the neural crest cells may be critical to domestication.

29

Choice D is the best answer because “such as” indicates that the things following “common traits” are examples. The things are “smaller brains” and “certain pigmentation patterns.” These things are “features” or “characteristics” which are similar among all domestic animals.

Choice A is incorrect because “mannerisms” are “behaviors,” but the examples of “smaller brains” and “certain pigmentation patterns” are physical characteristics rather than actions. Choice B is incorrect because “inferior” means “worse,” but there is no evidence that the characteristics in domestic animals are less desirable or good than the traits in wild animals. Choice C, like Choice A, refers to actions. “Habits” are repeated patterns rather than parts of physical appearance.

30

Choice B is the best answer because the quotation says that cats were raised for different reasons than dogs or other domestic animals were. If that is true, then it helps explain why cats have certain traits that are not present in the other animals. The quote is used to answer the question at the start of the paragraph, “So why are cats still a bit wilder than our other favorite domesticate, the dog?” (lines 81-82).

Choice A is incorrect because the quote argues that cats were raised for different reasons than other domestic animals. However, there is no indication that people think or “generally accept” that cats were raised for the same reason that other domestic animals were. Therefore, the quote is not introduced as an argument or alternative to something that is generally accepted. Choice C is incorrect because the quote addresses the difference between cats and other animals. It does not refer to any changes in the genome, nor is there any claim in the passage that cats are still changing. Choice D is incorrect because “qualify” refers to modifying or restricting previously-given information. However, the fact that cats were raised for different purposes does not make the findings about gene differences any less important or limit how that discovery is applied.

31

Choice A is the best answer because “recognized” is used to describe one type of law regarding the right to hold slaves. The other type of law in the sentence is “clearly implied,” which refers to something that is not exactly stated, but which is suggested by the facts. Since Choice A refers to a law which is officially written down, it provides a good balance for describing the range of laws that refer to slavery.

Choice B is incorrect because “commended” refers to “praised.” “Laws that people approved of” does not provide a solid contrast with “implied.” Choice C is incorrect because “confess” means “to admit that something is wrong,” but the laws referred to show that slavery is acceptable. Choice D is incorrect because “recalled” refers to “remembered,” so does not logically contrast or provide a range when used with “implied laws.”

32

Choice C is the best answer because Douglas encourages the listener to “look at it as it is” (line 23) and not to get involved in debates that are ““fundamentally beside the point,” meaning “not relevant.” He establishes that the question is only “whether the people of the territories shall be allowed to do as they please upon the question of slavery” (lines 24-26). He emphasizes that the “Missouri Compromise…the territory acquired from France… the Act of 1820” (lines 32-32) should all “be cast behind you” (line 32). In other words, he thinks people are focusing on rather than “casting behind” or “ignoring” the issues that he thinks are irrelevant.

Choice A is incorrect because Douglas implies that moral dilemmas don’t really exist because slavery is acceptable in some places, and those divisions were based on economy or climate rather than morals. Choice B is incorrect because there is no indication that “emphatic” or “forceful” wording is causing a problem; considerations about other policies are making the issue hard to see. Choice D is incorrect because “preexisting loyalties” refers to strong support from prior to the issue and “rivalries” refers to conflicts. However, the loyalty and conflict are for a cause or belief about slavery, not for certain “legislators” or politicians.

33

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that legislators’ consideration of the bill has been “clouded” or “complicated” by the discussion of issues that are “fundamentally beside the point,” meaning “not related.” Choice D specifically lists several things that should “be cast behind you” (line 33), or “ignored.” Therefore, Choice D supports the claim that some of the things the legislators are considering are not important or relevant to making a decision about the issue at hand.

Choices A and B are incorrect because they only say that the question and wording of the bill are simple; they do not explain why the discussions of the bill have been complicated. Choice C expresses the alternatives the legislators have concerning the bill, but it does not mention why it is hard to decide between the alternatives.

34

Choice B is the best answer because a “swindle” is a fraud or deception used to exploit or trick someone else. It is a very strong word to apply to a bill because it shows not just disagreement with a policy, but complete anger or “outrage” because the writer does not consider it morally acceptable. He uses “swindle” many times to show that the bill is wrong on many different levels, and in his own words, to “express the mingled meanness and wickedness of the cheat” (lines 51-52).

Choice A is incorrect because “skeptical” and “distrust” refer to uncertainty or doubt. However, Sumner makes it very clear that he has no doubt about his stance. He says, “turn it over; look at it on all sides, and it is everywhere a swindle” (lines 47-48) to show that he has analyzed all points and has come to the same conclusion that the bill is wrong. Choice C is incorrect because there is no evidence that he feels the bill “cannot be repealed” or removed from use. Since he is arguing against the bill, it appears that he feels that the decision can be changed if others come to the same conclusions. Choice D is incorrect because Sumner says that the bill “was a swindle of a great cause, early espoused by Washington, Franklin, and Jefferson, surrounded by the best fathers of the republic” (lines43-46). In other words, the bill went against the things that the founding fathers supported. Sumner therefore does not feel the founding fathers did the “betrayal” or “broken promise." Instead, he feels that there was a betrayal against the things that they believed in.

35

Choice D is the best answer because the bill supposedly was expanding the rights of the people. As Sumner put it, there were “overflowing professions of regard for the sovereignty of the People in the Territory” (lines 54-56). Since “professions” refers to “announcements” and “sovereignty” refers to “right to rule,” that statement shows that people promoting the bill were announcing that the people in the territory would have more right to rule over themselves. However, he follows up that claim by saying that in reality, the people “were despoiled of every essential privilege of sovereignty” (lines 56-57). In other words, the people had their privileges or rights “curtailed” or “taken away.” Lines 57-64 (“They were…slavery”) list different rights that the people were not allowed to have.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no reference to any difference between territories that allowed slaveholding or not. The passage refers to “territories” as one political unit. Choice B is incorrect because “depriving a federal policy” refers to the elimination of a government policy or law. However, Choice B continues to describe the policy as one that was popular or well-liked because of its “legitimacy,” or something “acceptable” or “authorized.” However, there is no discussion of a popular law being eliminated. Choice C is incorrect because “disenfranchising” refers to depriving someone of a right. However, Sumner says in lines 38-41 that the bill is a swindle against “those who had already completely enjoyed their share of the Missouri Compromise.” In other words, the bill was a problem for people who “enjoyed” or “benefitted from” the Missouri Compromise, not those who “had no obvious benefits.”

36

Choice B is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the bill gave the impression that the rights of citizens in certain territories were being expanded when they were in fact being taken away. Choice B supports this claim because it says that while there were “professions” or “announcements” of “regard” or “respect” for the sovereignty of the people, that sovereignty was “despoiled” or “taken away.”

Choice A is incorrect because, while it says that the right of protection against slavery was taken away, it does not provide any evidence that the bill gave the impression that any rights would be expanded. Choices C and D are incorrect because they only say that slavery is bad and that the reader should come to that conclusion, but they do not say anything about the bill.

37

Choice D is the best answer because lines 57-64 (“They were not…adopt slavery”) directly say that the people of the territory could not choose their governor or other officials or make decisions about these people’s salaries. The officials were “sent from Washington” (lines 59-60), which is another way of saying that the officials were sent or appointed by members of the national government which was located in Washington, D.C.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no discussion about the national government’s role in “regulating commerce” or “controlling the buying and selling of things.” Choice B is incorrect because the bill, rather than enforcing or upholding existing laws, changed all the laws so that territories could allow slavery. The Missouri Compromise allowed some territories to ban slavery, and the bill did not enforce that ban. Choice C is incorrect because there is no discussion about how disputes between territorial governments were “mediated,” meaning “negotiated” or “resolved.”

38

Choice D is the best answer because Sumner argues that he “upholds” or “approves” of popular rights instead of “denying” or saying that they are wrong. He also says that he does not “restrain” or “limit” them, but “extends” or “makes them larger.” In other words, Sumner feels that his “position” or “side” is for the case of public rights. Choice D paraphrases this claim because it says that Sumner’s view on slavery “constitutes” or “is equivalent to” “authentic popular sovereignty” or “real rights of the people.”

Choice A is incorrect because Sumner is extremely against slavery of any form, so lines 72-74 show his support with the “popular” view or “view of the people” rather than the slaveholders. Choice B is incorrect because the quote does not refer to the “historical legacy” or “past traditions” of slavery. Choice C is incorrect because the opinion in lines 72-74 is specifically about the rights of the people, not a quote about “abolition” or the need to end slavery.

39

Choice A is the best answer because Douglas asks, “Is not the question involved the simple one” (lines 23-24) and claims that the bill uses “clear, explicit, and unequivocal terms” (line 28). He therefore feels that the bill is “straightforward” or honest and open. On the other hand, Sumner repeatedly uses the word “swindle” in Paragraph 1 of Passage 2 to emphasize how he feels: a swindle is something that is designed to cheat or trick. In other words, it is “fundamentally deceptive.”

Choice B is incorrect because Sumner does not feel that the slaveholding territories are “unfairly burdened,” or given more than their share to handle. Instead, he feels that the non-slaveholding territories are unfairly having their rights removed. Choice C is incorrect because Sumner does not say that “status quo” or “the current situation” is “upheld” or “maintained.” Rather, Sumner feels that the current situation is being made worse because slavery is allowed in places that it was previously prohibited. Choice D is incorrect because, if anything, Douglas feels that the bill is not “relevant” or “related” to many key national concerns because he argues that the point is a simple one that does not need to take into consideration other policy such as the Missouri Compromise and Act of 1820 (lines 31-33, “Let all this…behind you”). By contrast, Sumner does not consider the bill “irrelevant” or “unrelated” because he claims that the bill has swindled not only the people of the territory but the roots of the Constitution (lines 74-79, “And sir…territory”).

40

Choice D is the best answer because the “simple question” is whether people in the territories should be allowed to have slaves or not. Sumner would say that the question is “immoral” or “wrong” because he directly states, “Suffice it to say that slavery is in itself an arrogant denial of human rights” (lines 68-69). He would not approve of any law that allows slavery.

Choice A is incorrect because, while Sumner would consider the question “biased” or “unfair,” the reason is because it allows people to have slaves. The unfairness is not about the interests of any specific place. Choice B is incorrect because Sumner does not view the point as “irrelevant” or “not related” to the matter at hand. He points out that people who had “enjoyed their share of the Missouri Compromise” (lines 39-40) were having their rights taken away. They had been able to ban slavery, but now they cannot. Choice C is incorrect because Sumner does not say that certain “provisions” or “parts” of the bill are related to things other than territorial sovereignty or rights.

41

Choice D is the best answer because Douglas says that the decision to have slaves should be left to the people “subject only to the limitations of the Constitution” (lines 26-26), which implies that he thinks that the Constitution only limits slavery in some cases or to a small degree. Otherwise, slavery is acceptable. By contrast, Sumner says that under the Constitution, “no valid claim for slavery can be set up anywhere in the national territory” (lines 78-79). He feels that the Constitution completely invalidates or negates any type of slavery.

Choice A is incorrect because Douglas does not say that the Constitution needs to be changed; he only indicates that it might limit personal choice about slavery to some degree (lines 24-27, “whether the people…Constitution”). Choice B is incorrect because Douglas does not say that there is any “interpretation” or “different views” of the Constitution regarding slavery. He only implies that there may be some limits on complete freedom about owning slaves. Choice C is incorrect because both authors imply that the Constitution is applicable to both territories and states; it is alluded to by both as the main deciding factor for the issue of slavery throughout all regions governed by the United States.

42

Choice D is the best answer because Paragraph 1 introduces the HST and what it is able to see, giving the specific example of the WFC3 and what that technology was able to record in Paragraph 2. In Paragraph 3, the topic changes to a new project using HST that was launched by the authors, the CANDELS survey. Paragraph 4 explains the methodology in more detail, and Paragraph 5 offers the reason for that methodology. Paragraphs 5 and 6 explain what the CANDELS obtained—a vast amount of data—and conclude that it will take time to analyze it all.

Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not refer to a “design flaw” or problem in the existing technology; it only describes a new type of technology designed to supplement the information obtained from other sources. There is no reference that the CANDELS technology replaced any others; if anything, lines 39-41 (“the telescope...three years”) indicates that other technology was sharing the time rather than replaced. Choice B is incorrect because the passage does not discuss a theory about how the stars formed; it just describes a method of trying to collect enough data to learn how galaxies formed. Choice C is incorrect because there is no “list of the authors’ accomplishments,” only the statement that they had “hopes” (line 13).

43

Choice C is the best answer because it says that the “cosmic dawn” when the “earliest galaxies” were made was “when the universe was less than a billion years old” (lines 11-12). Since “cosmic high noon” is defined in line 7 as “about 5 billion years after the Big Bang,” it can be assumed that the “cosmic dawn” is referring to a time up to a billion years after the Big Bang.

Choice A is incorrect because it does not indicate when the first galaxies formed, only that the process was billions of years ago. Choice B is incorrect because it only refers to “cosmic high noon,” but that only limits the possible time for “dawn” to be less than 5 billion years after the Big Bang. It does not say that the dawn was in the first billion years. Choice D is incorrect because it refers to distance, not time.

44

Choice A is the best answer because lines 22-23 say that the HUDF project “revealed some of the most distant galaxies ever found, which look very different than nearby galaxies.” Since the authors were hoping to see “the earliest galaxies made of the earliest stars at cosmic dawn” (lines 9-11) using the HUDF project, it can be inferred that the distant stars where the very old stars that the writers were looking for.

Choice B is incorrect because Paragraph 3 discusses Type Ia supernovae. Although it says that they are used in the method for measuring the universe’s modern expansion rate, there is no evidence that early galaxies were “dominated by” or “mostly contained” Type Ia supernovae. Choice C is incorrect because lines 44-45 say that the survey studied “five patches of the northern and southern skies,” implying that the galaxies are spread far apart and in opposite directions. Choice D is incorrect because the passage says that although the total area studied was very small, “about that of the full Moon” (line 61), “they recorded roughly a quarter-million ancient galaxies” (lines 61-62). This indicates that the galaxies are small because of their distance, and there is no evidence that the researchers expected them to look any different.

45

Choice C is the best answer because “document” is used in the context of saying that CANDELS was designed to find evidence about the first third of galaxy evolution. Since “record” means “to mark down the results” of something, it applies to the idea of marking down the evidence which was found.

Choices A and D are incorrect because they mean “to make” or “to create.” However, the researchers were not trying to create the first third of star evolution, they were trying to collect proof that exists about the evolution. Choice B is incorrect because it refers to giving the meaning of something. However, the scientists were not trying to come up with the proper words to describe the stars, they were trying to show how the stars evolved.

46

Choice A is the best answer because lines 34-35 describe Type Ia supernovae as “the best-known standard candles for measuring the universe’s recent expansion rate.” The following sentence then says that “CANDELS could thus test whether Type Ia supernovae are also a valid yardstick for the early universe” (lines 36-37). A “valid yardstick” is an “accurate measurement.” Therefore, the scientists were trying to determine if the Type Ia supernovae could determine the expansion rate for the early universe, the time after the Big Bang, as well as for recent times.

Choice B is incorrect because Type Ia supernovae are used to determine rate of expansion, which is not the same as distance. In addition, there is no mention of “calibrating” or adjusting other measurement methods so they are in agreement. Choice C is incorrect because, although Type Ia supernovae are “exploding white dwarf stars” (lines 33-34), there is no reference as to understanding why they explode. Choice D is incorrect because the Type Ia supernovae are used to calculate rate of expansion, which is not a catalog or list of “physical properties” or factors such as size or weight.

47

Choice D is the best answer because “patch” is used to refer to one of five small sections of the sky observed by CANDELS. Choice D means an “area” or “section,” so it fits the context well.

Choice A means “a link” or “a relationship,” so does not fit the context of describing five areas with certain properties. Choice B is incorrect because it refers to a certain amount or share of something that is given to a person. However, the “patches” were just observed, not given to anyone. Choice C is incorrect because it refers to a “layer” or “coating” that often hides something from view, but the sky was visible and not coated with anything.

48

Choice B is the best answer because lines 44-46 say that the CANDELS survey took information from “five patches of the northern and southern skies, each about one-fourth the angular size of the Orion Nebula (M42).” Lines 52-56 explain the reasoning, “Much as pollsters and medical researchers learn about the human population as a whole by studying carefully selected samples of a small number of individuals, we chose the five target areas because they’re physically representative of the universe at large.” If the target areas are sufficient to get the data needed, then the researchers would probably feel that an all-sky survey was not needed.

Choice A is incorrect because lines 52-56 (“Much as…at large”) indicate that there is no need to take a larger sample. It can also be assumed that the project is probably costly and difficult, as gathering data for the five patches consumed “600 hours—fully 10% of its observing time—to CANDELS for three years” (lines 40-41) to complete. Lines 50-52 say, “Because remote galaxies are so faint, the five target areas were away from our Milky Way’s star-studded plane.” These details imply that trying to study areas near the plane would be more complicated and time-consuming, and therefore might not be a “practical” or “realistic” plan. Choice C is also incorrect because there is no “justification” or “legitimate reason” to take a full-sky survey when a selected sample is sufficient. Choice D is also incorrect because the data is “complete” enough to answer the questions.

49

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the authors would say that deep all-sky surveys are unnecessary to obtain information about ancient galaxies. Choice C supports that answer because it shows that a small amount of data from selected areas is “physically representative of the universe at large” (line 56), which means that conclusions based on the data are accurate when applied to larger areas. Therefore, the authors would say that a full-sky survey is not necessary because data from a few places is all that is needed.

Choice A is incorrect because it only explains the amount of data collected. It does not indicate that the data is sufficient to explain what other parts of the universe would look like, so it does not support the idea that a full-sky survey is not needed. Choice B is incorrect because it only says that some regions are harder to observe than others. It does not say why studying all areas is not needed. Choice D is incorrect because it says that the data gathered is very valuable, but it does not say that information from a complete all-sky survey is not needed.

50

Choice A is the best answer because the full Moon is given as a comparison for the total area of the CANDELS survey, “CANDELS surveyed a total area only about that of the full Moon” (lines 60-61), Since “surveyed” means “investigated,” the comparison helps the reader imagine the area used in the project. The reference is also helpful when compared to the discussion of the previous HUDF survey, which in line 20 says measured a region “only a tenth the diameter of the full Moon.” Comparing the two references shows that the CANDELS survey generated information from a region about ten times the area of the earlier survey.

Choice B is incorrect because the full Moon reference in line 61 relates to the size of the CANDELS, not the HUDF, survey. Line 20 also compares the HUDF data to the size of the Moon, but it does not refer to direction at all. Choice C is incorrect because the size of the area does not explain the method that the images are “processed” or “made.” Choice D is incorrect because the reference is to “area” which refers to the size of the surface, not to the “distance” or how far away it is.

51

Choice D is the best answer because the “cosmic dawn” is given as the light grey shaded area on the left side of the graph. The scale for “redshift” is listed on the top of the graph. Notice that the numbers decrease from 9 to 0 as they go from left to right. Choice D is about in the middle of the light grey shaded area, so is a possible redshift for a galaxy made during the cosmic dawn.

All the other choices could be a result of misreading the scales on the graph. All the choices are possible numbers for “star formation rate per year” on the vertical scale. Choice A also matches the bottom scale of “billions of years since Big Bang.” However, it is incorrect because on the redshift scale at the top of the graph, it is in the white area that does not correlate with the “cosmic dawn.” Choices B and C are possible redshifts for “cosmic high noon” rather than “cosmic dawn.”

52

Choice C is the best answer. To solve this question, first find “8.5 billion years” on the scale for “time since Big Bang,” which forms the x-axis of the graph. Move up from 8.5 to the point just under the trend curve. Now move to the y-axis which shows “star formation rate in solar masses per year per 5 cubic megaparsecs.” The point above 8.5 billion years is just under the “5” on the vertical scale, so the best answer is 4.0.

Choice A is the redshift for a star-formation rate of about 8.5. Choice B could be misreading the redshift scale for 8.5 billion years as if the numbers were getting larger from the left to right instead of getting smaller. Choice D does not correlate with any points marked 8.5.

1

Content: transitions

Choice D is the best answer because the previous sentence describes a general problem: not enough open space. The following statement is a specific example or case that illustrates the problem; it is about the parks or “open space” in New York City. Choice D best transitions between these ideas because it is used to introduce a specific case.

None of the other choices effectively establishes the relationship between the preceding and following ideas; in other words, they do not show that the following is a specific example of a general statement. Choice A is used to emphasize two similar points. Choice B is used to bring up the opposite case. Choice C is used to add more facts about the same topic.

2

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice B is the best answer because “but” subordinates the following clause “it is well…” so that it modifies the main clause, “transforming…pitfalls.”

Choice A is incorrect because “however” is an aside that does not subordinate the following clause. The result is a comma splice between two independent clauses. Choices C and D are incorrect because “nonetheless” and “however” should be separated from the clauses with a comma after them. They do not subordinate the following idea so the sentence is left with two independent clauses joined with a comma.

3

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice C is the best answer because the paragraph discusses several benefits of turning landfills into parks: landfills are cheap and plentiful, they help the environment and property values, and they provide health and social development to communities. Choice C ties these ideas together into a solid unit by stating the common bond of “multiple advantages.”

Choice A is incorrect because the number of parks built on landfills is not discussed in the paragraph, so it only offers loosely related information rather than introducing the main point. Choices B and D are incorrect because the paragraph does not mention these points at all, so the reader is left unsure of how the points in the paragraph relate.

4

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice B is the best answer because it means “available in large quantities.” This word fits the description of landfills, since the sentence says there are over 10,000 closed landfills, which is a very large number.

Choice A is incorrect because it refers to creating or making new things. However, the landfills themselves are not making anything, they are passively waiting to be used. Choice C is incorrect because it means “generous,” but the landfills do not have emotions such as kindness. Choice D is incorrect because it means “too many.” The passage does not say that there are too many landfills, though. It only claims that there are many which could be turned into parks.

5

Content: syntax

Choice A is the best answer because “exercise,” “play,” and “exposure to green space” are three nouns that act as the subject of the sentence. These nouns share the verb “have all been linked.” As found in Choice A, three items in a list should be joined with the word “and” and have a comma after each item before “and.”

Choice B is incorrect because there should be no comma after “and” in a list. Choice C is incorrect because “as well as” is not used to join nouns that act as a single subject. Choice D is incorrect because a semicolon is only used to divide items in a list if the items are long and contain commas, which is not the case. If one semicolon is used, then all items need to be divided by semicolons, but the main sentence sets the punctuation with a comma after “exercise.”

6

Content: addition and deletion

Choice D is the best answer because the focus of the paragraph is the benefits provided by turning landfills into parks. Furthermore, the preceding and following sentences refer to benefits that were named in a certain report. The added sentence, however, does not refer to landfills at all, only about changes in the use of urban parks in general. There is also no indication that the information in the added sentence is related to the report discussed. Therefore, the added sentence detracts from the benefits a community can derive from converting a landfill into a park.

Choices A and B are incorrect because the added sentence should not be included in the paragraph. The added sentence does not support the main claim that there are benefits to converting a landfill into a park, nor does it set up the following sentence about reduced crime. Choice C is incorrect because the information does not contradict or go against the main idea that there are benefits to turning landfills into parks; if more people are using parks, it makes sense that a reclaimed landfill park would probably also be used.

7

Content: punctuation

Choice B is the best answer because “park” is the end of the subject, “one example of a successful landfill park.” “Is” is the verb and “Freshkills” is the object. These main parts of a sentence should not be separated from each other with any punctuation.

Choice A is incorrect because a subject should not be divided from its verb. Choices C and D are incorrect because a verb should not be divided from its object.

8

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice B is the best answer because the main part of the sentence says that the “park offers many recreational opportunities largely unavailable in the city.” Choice B supports this claim with relevant examples because it gives a list of specific activities that can be done in the park which might be hard to do in a city.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because, while they describe the park, they do not give any specific examples to show what kinds of “recreational opportunities” are available in the park.

9

Content: possession and possessive pronouns

Choice D is the best answer because it clearly shows what includes a solar station in its design. An apostrophe and “s” after “park” indicate that the following thing, the “design” belongs to the park.

Choice A is incorrect because the underlined portion is referring to “the park,” but the park is not named in the previous sentence. As a result, the underlined portion appears to refer to the closest stated subject, “coastline restoration.” Choice B is incorrect because it is a contraction of “it is” so does not show possession. Choice C is incorrect because it is plural, but “park” is singular. A plural pronoun appears to refer to the closest plural noun, either “water-absorbing plants” or “residential areas,” neither of which fit the context of having a design with a solar station.

10

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice A is the best answer because “enough XX” needs to be followed by an infinitive to show what task can be completed. In this case, the task of powering more than 2,000 homes has sufficient or “enough” energy to complete.

None of the other choices correctly completes the idiom “enough XX to YY.” In Choice B, “so” is incorrectly used because it starts a subordinate clause and therefore should be preceded by a comma, leaving the sentence unclear what there is enough energy to do. Choice B is also incorrect because “it” is ambiguous and could refer to the “park,” “the solar system,” or “energy.” Choice C is incorrect because “for” should be followed by a noun, so “powering” needs to be preceded by “the.” Choice D uses “powering” as a modifier for “energy” so that it is unclear what there is enough energy to do.

11

Content: style and tone

Choice B is the best answer because it is a relatively neutral term that means “harmful,” or “poisonous.” It maintains the professional tone established by the rest of the passage and clearly describes what type of problem is turned into an advantage.

All the other choices can be eliminated because they are too casual and imply personal dislike. They do not fit the relatively formal and unbiased tone of the passage. Not only are they casual, but they are also vague, because they refer to something extremely unpleasant, but they do not specify why. For example, they could be used to refer to something that is ugly to look at but not at all harmful or dangerous.

12

Content: punctuation

Choice A is the best answer because “having plunged from a waterfall in Switzerland while fighting his enemy Moriarty” is an extended modifier that describes the subject, “Holmes.” The final portion of the sentence, “was dead” is the end of the main clause, “Holmes was dead.” The modifier is not necessary for the understanding of the sentence so needs to be divided with a comma at both ends.

Choice B is incorrect because the modifier is reduced to “having plunged,” illogically changing the main clause to “Holmes from a waterfall….” The prepositional phrase “from a waterfall…” needs to refer to an action rather than the noun. Choice C is incorrect because a semicolon should divide two independent clauses, but neither side of the semicolon can stand on its own as a sentence. Choice D is incorrect because there should be a comma dividing “Holmes” from the non-essential modifying phrase that follows.

13

Content: transitions

Choice D is the best answer because the previous paragraph discusses the popularity of Holmes and the shock that readers felt when the series featuring Holmes ended with his death. The following paragraph shows that Doyle was not shocked because he had contemplated the problem for a while and wanted to end the series. Choice D transitions well between these two ideas because “though” contrasts the idea of the readers’ surprise discussed in the first paragraph with the information which follows.

Choice A is incorrect because Moriarty is a minor character in the discussion of the relationship between Doyle and the famous character he created, Choice B is incorrect because there is no reference to Holmes’s abilities, so this detail detracts from the surprise that readers felt when the popular character was killed off. Choice C is incorrect because neither the preceding nor following paragraph refer to stage and screen adaptations, so this detail is better placed elsewhere in the passage.

14

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice C is the best answer because the following two sentences say that Doyle was tired of spending a lot of time to creating Holmes plots wanted to focus his energy to historical epics. Choice C clearly sets up that information by showing how Doyle felt that Holmes work was less important and taking his time from what he thought were “better things.”

Choice A is incorrect because the following information, though it expresses being tired of Holmes, does not explain why. Therefore, it does not clearly establish that the problem was a lack of time to work on other projects. Choice B is incorrect because the fact that Holmes was popular should reinforce the idea of spending more time on Holmes stories rather than feeling that they were wasting time. Choice D is incorrect because the concern of the public does not relate to Doyle’s desire to end the series, so it does not set up the following information.

15

Content: possession and possessive pronouns

Choice B is the best answer because “the energies,” which refers to the efforts spent on writing the Holmes series, belongs to “Doyle.” Choice B is a singular possessive pronoun that shows that the energies belong to a man, so logically refers to Doyle.

Choice A is incorrect because “one” refers to a generic person for the first time the person is mentioned. Therefore, Choice A does not fit the context because “Doyle” is specifically named. Choice C is incorrect because “its” refers to an inanimate thing rather than a person. Choice D is incorrect because it is plural, so cannot be used to refer to a single man.

16

Content: misplaced modifier

Choice D is the best answer because “believing…work” is a phrase that modifies “Doyle.” Since the modifier starts the sentence, it should be followed by the word it refers to. Choice D correctly places the pronoun “he” at the start of the main clause.

All of the other choices are incorrect because they illogically make the modifier “believing…work” refer to something other than Doyle. Choices A and B makes the modifier refer to a “focus” or “focusing” on writing, while Choice C makes it refer to “writing epics.”

17

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice D is the best answer because the paragraph says that there was an “outcry” or “protest” by people around the world. For example, they wrote letters, wore black armbands, and 20,000 people canceled their subscriptions. This paragraph is describing the complaints of fans, so Choice D effectively introduces that topic while alluding to the previous paragraph’s discussion of Doyle’s desire to stop writing about Holmes.

Choice A is incorrect because the paragraph does not focus solely on “young people.” Choice A therefore limits the scope too much. Choice B is incorrect because there is no reference to how periodicals “expressed public feelings” or said what the fans felt about Holmes. The actions described are taken by individual fans, not by magazines or “publications.” Choice C is incorrect because “canceled subscriptions” is only one of many ways that fans protested, as described in the paragraph. There is no evidence that The Strand relied solely on the Holmes stories.

18

Content: style and tone

Choice B is the best answer because the example that is in the sentence is that fans wrote “abundance of angry letters petitioning for Holmes’s return.” This example is a specific action taken by fans to try to get Doyle to write more stories. Choice B gives another specific action taken with the same goal in mind.

All the other choices are incorrect because they do not give a second example of an action taken by fans. Choices A and D show that the first example, writing letters, had no effect. Choice C adds more detail about the first example because it explains who wrote the letters.

19

Content: sentence combination

Choice C is the best answer because it turns the second sentence into a modifier describing “black armbands.” It does not alter the original meaning of the first sentence, that the people donned black armbands in solidarity, because “a traditional…mourning” is isolated by commas from the main sentence.

Choice A is incorrect because it changes the meaning so that “a traditional symbol of mourning” refers to “solidarity,” the preceding noun, rather than to “black armbands.” In addition, “such” is used to refer to a previously stated example, but it does not work at the start of the underlined portion because “armbands” is not mentioned earlier in the sentence. Choice B is incorrect because “these” is a pronoun that replaces the subject of a clause, but “being” is not an active verb, so should not follow it. Choice D is incorrect because the original sentences say that the armbands are “symbolic” because they mean “mourning.” In Choice D, “mourning” is one of two reasons for adopting the armbands, but there is no direct connection to the traditional meaning because “symbolic” only indicates that they stand as a symbol for something.

20

Content: possession and possessive pronouns

Choice D is the best answer because the underlined portion is a possessive pronoun that needs to show that the “subscriptions” belong to “20,000 people.” Since there are many people, the plural pronoun “their” is required.

Choice A is incorrect because it is a contraction for “it is” and does not show possession. Choice B is incorrect because it is a singular pronoun, so it cannot be used to refer to the plural “20,000 people.” It erroneously appears that the singular magazine owned the subscriptions. Choice C is incorrect because it refers to location rather than shows possession.

21

Content: style and tone

Choice D is the best answer because the passage uses a professional, unbiased tone to describe the events. Choice D is a polite way to say, “give in to a demand.”

All the other choices can be eliminated as too casual; they do not maintain the informative tone of the passage. Choice A colloquially says Doyle “crumbled” under the pressure from the fans. Choice B is used casually to show that a person did not do what he promised, but it is usually used in situations where the speaker feels that the person did something wrong. It would not be used in a case where the speaker thinks that Doyle made a good decision to continue writing Holmes stories. Choice C is an extremely casual way to say someone “relaxes” about a formerly rigidly-held stance.

22

Content: subordination and coordination

Choice C is the best answer because “though…series” is a dependent clause, so the underlined portion should start the main clause of the sentence. The dependent clause should be separated from the main clause by a comma. Choice C correctly avoids any subordinating words so that the following portion begins with a noun, “it,” and continues with a verb, “is,” creating an independent clause.

Choices A and D are incorrect because “but” and “while” subordinate the following portion, leaving the sentence without an independent, main clause. Choice B is incorrect because a semicolon should divide two independent clauses, but “though” subordinates the first portion so it cannot stand on its own as a sentence.

23

Content: transitions

Choice B is the best answer because it is used to introduce an idea that is opposite or unexpected when given the previous information. The paragraph starts by saying that the acoustics of the amphitheater of Epidaurus have been famous for centuries. The following statement, therefore, may come as a surprise: people did not know why the acoustics were good.

Choices A and D are incorrect because they are used to introduce a conclusion or result of the previous information, but there is no obvious reason that source of the good acoustics was unknown. Choice C is incorrect because it signals an opposing or alternate theory, not a surprising point about something that was already stated.

24

Content: tense, mood, and voice

Choice D is the best answer because the underlined portion is an action that took place in the past, in 2007. The simple past is all that is needed.

Choice A is incorrect because it is a present tense verb so does not accurately describe an action that was completed in the past. Choice B is incorrect because the past perfect tense is used to show an action that occurred in the past up until a specific point in the past. However, the act of proving a fact about the acoustics occurred in 2007; it was not an ongoing process until 2007. Choice C is incorrect because it is used to show a potential case that did not occur, whereas the proving about the acoustics was really done.

25

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice A is the best answer because “a study by…Technology” is the entire subject of the clause. “Demonstrated” is the verb. No punctuation should be placed between the subject and its verb.

Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation should divide a subject from its verb; a dash separates additional information from a clause, which is not the case. Choice C is incorrect because “it was…Technology” is not a complete sentence because “that a study…” has no verb to complete the clause. Therefore, it cannot stand on its own with a period. Choice D is incorrect because it turns the active verb “demonstrated” into the verb in a dependent clause that modifies the subject, leaving “a study…Technology” without a verb.

26

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice D is the best answer because the theories in the previous sentence are reasons for good “acoustics” or “sound quality”: wind direction, Greek rhythms, and special masks. The underlined portion needs to address or cast doubt on these theories, making the argument for Declercq and Dekeyser’s study more convincing. Choice D casts doubt because it says that plays have had good acoustics on windless days, showing that wind direction is not related to the acoustics. It also says that the plays were modern, casting doubt on the theory that Greek rhythms caused the good acoustics. It may also be inferred that “modern plays” did not use special masks, though that is not expressly stated.

Choice A is incorrect because it does not disprove any of the theories given in the previous sentence; Callas could have performed on a windy day using masks or singing in Greek rhythms. Choice B is incorrect because it says that “Greek classics” are performed without problem, but that could reinforce the idea that special Greek rhythms and masks are needed for the good acoustics. Choice C is incorrect because it is unrelated to acoustics at all.

27

Content: precision and concision

Choice D is the best answer because it concisely provides all the necessary information: actors can be heard in all the listed situations.

All the other choices can be eliminated as redundant. “Conditions” refers to the factors or circumstances of an event, so Choices A and B repeat the idea using “circumstances” and “situations.” Choice C repeats the idea of “remain audible” with the phrase “were able to be heard.”

28

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice A is the best answer because the paragraph focuses on how the researchers studied how sound reacts in the amphitheater. Choice A provides the motivation: they were trying to find the “primary,” or “main” source of the “sonic properties,” or “acoustics.” Choice A therefore ties the paragraph into the rest of the passage by explaining why the research, which is described in detail in the paragraph, was done.

Choice B is incorrect because the main topic of the passage is not “admiration” of the design of the theater, it is a question about why the acoustics are so good. Choice B also introduces “Romans,” who are not brought up elsewhere in the analysis of the Greek theater. Choice C is incorrect because, while it is possible that the Greeks did not understand how the acoustics worked, the builders’ lack of knowledge was not the motivation for the research study. Choice D is incorrect because the researchers were not just “curious” about background noise at various places; they were carefully studying the acoustics of the specific theater.

29

Content: sentence combination

Choice B is the best answer because “as this happens” means “at the same time.” It shows that the action in the first sentence is the time that the action in the second sentence occurs. Choice B concisely indicates this relationship by using “when” to make the first sentence into a dependent time clause.

Choice A is incorrect because it changes the meaning of “as this happens” to “after,” making the actions sequential rather than simultaneous. Choice C is incorrect because “happen to” makes the action of the waves appear to be random chance. It uses a different idiom of the word “happen” than is used in “as this happens.” Choice D is incorrect because “thus” indicates a result rather than an action that occurs at the same times. In addition, a dash is used to add extraneous information about the same topic rather than develop an argument.

30

Content: logical comparison

Choice B is the best answer because “more clearly than” sets up a comparison between two things that “people hear.” The first item is in the main part of the sentence: “human voices.” Since that is a noun, the comparison should also be a noun. Choice B correctly makes a comparison with “less important sounds.”

None of the other choices maintains the parallelism of the comparison with “human voices.” Choices A and C contain verbs. Choice D uses “those,” but “less important sounds” do not possess anything that is being compared. Choice D illogically appears to compare “human voices” to “voices of less important sounds.”

31

Content: possession and possessive pronouns

Choice C is the best answer because “typical lower tones” is a quality of the “speech,” so it is considered as belonging to the speech. Since “speech” acts as a singular noun, the singular possessive “its” is needed.

Choice A is incorrect because it is a plural possessive pronoun, but only one “speech” is being discussed. Choice B is incorrect because it is a contraction for “it is,” so does not indicate possession. Choice D is also a contraction that does not indicate possession. It stands for “they are.”

32

Content: subject-verb agreement

Choice D is the best answer because the subject of the sentence that is doing the action of “allowing” is “the combination of virtual pitch and the sound-dampening effect of the seats.” Although this may appear to be plural, when simplified, the subject is “the combination.” Since “the combination” is singular, a singular verb is needed.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they are plural so do not agree with the singular subject “the combination.”

33

Content: logical order

Choice A is the best answer because the sentence acts as a fitting conclusion to the passage. Sentence 7 answers the question of “how do the acoustics at Epidaurus work?” by summarizing the conclusion drawn by recent research.

All of the other choices interrupt the main flow of the paragraph. They place a conclusion about “virtual pitch” before the first mention of the term, which comes in Sentence 4. The term should be defined before using it in a sentence.

34

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice D is the best answer because the underlined portion is one item in a list of goals that “consumers have sought to” do. The other items are “become more self-sufficient” and “diminish their environmental impact.” Choice D makes the list parallel because it ends the list with another infinitive verb phrase. It is also connected with “and” and includes a comma after each item.

Choice A is incorrect because “and…bills” is not a complete sentence so cannot stand on its own. Also, there should be an “and” rather than a comma after “self-sufficient” to make the first sentence complete. Choice B is incorrect because the items in a list should have the same grammatical structure, but “they can lower…” is a clause, so does not match the infinitives “become” and “diminish.” Choice C is incorrect because items in a list should be divided by commas and there should be a comma before the last item. Choice D does not show how the items relate because it does not follow this conventional structure.

35

Content: graphics

Choice C is the best answer because “the overall number of solar jobs” is represented by the bottom row, labeled “total.” The box on the right-hand side refers to “growth rate” for 2010-2014, and that figure is 85.9%. Since 85.9% is only 0.1% away from 86%, the phrase “nearly 86% is an accurate estimate of that number. “Skyrocketed” emphasizes the extreme increase.

Choice A is incorrect because the “overall number of solar jobs” increased greatly; it did not “hold steady” or “remain about the same.” Choice B is incorrect because it refers to the increase in number of “sales and distribution” jobs, which is only part of the “overall number” of solar jobs. Choice D is incorrect because the change in number of jobs is given as a total for 2010-2014; there is no breakdown of “fluctuations” or “changes” for each year. The figures of 30% and 121% refer to two different types of jobs, “manufacturing” and “installation” respectively, for the total four-year period.

36

Content: graphics

Choice B is the best answer because the point made in the first half of the sentence is that job opportunities in installation have increased greatly, by 121%. Choice B correctly reads the top row of the chart labeled “installation.” The first column contains a “43,934” to refer to “jobs in 2010” and the third column reads “97,031” for “jobs in 2014.” These figures clearly show the change in numbers of jobs, supporting the claim that there was a large increase.

Choice A is incorrect because “20,185” refers to the number of “sales and distribution jobs” there were in 2014, so it does not support the claim about installation jobs. Choice C is incorrect because the growth rate for manufacturing was 30%, which was lower rather than higher than the rate for installation jobs. Choice D is incorrect because “sales and distribution” had 11,744 jobs in 2010 and “project development” had 5,112 jobs in 2014; neither of these figures support any claim about the number of installation jobs.

37

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice B is the best answer because the material that follows explains how profitable a career in solar installation can be. Choice B ties the information that follows to the paragraph’s earlier discussion of “abundant” or “plentiful” jobs and the previous sentence’s discussion of “accessible” or “easy-to-enter” jobs. Choice B therefore ties the points together to make the installation job appear very desirable.

Choice A is incorrect because it focuses only on one state, but the rest of the passage refers to an overall trend. By restricting the following discussion to “California,” it seems as though good-paying jobs may only be available there. Choice C is incorrect because “less plentiful” detracts from the following discussion, making it appear that the job may not be very easy to get outside of a few areas where the career is profitable. Choice D is incorrect because it brings up a detail that is not discussed elsewhere, so it does not set up the idea that an installation career is profitable.

38

Content: logical comparison

Choice A is the best answer because the sentence is setting up a comparison between two things that are similar or “comparable.” The first item is “solar installers’ wages.” The second item should therefore be the wages of another group of workers. Choice A effectively makes the comparison because it compares the wages of the solar installers to “those,” meaning “wages,” of “skilled electricians and plumbers.”

Choices B and D are incorrect because they illogically compare the wages of solar installers to specific people, a rather than to the wages or money that an electrician or plumber earns. Choice C is incorrect because, although it compares wages, it mistakenly changes the plurality. The wages of only one “skilled electrician” is mentioned, as opposed to the wages of all skilled electricians in general. That singular “electrician” is then included in a discussion of “plumbers” in general.

39

Content: subject-verb agreement

Choice C is the best answer because the underlined portion is the main verb of the sentence. It goes with the subject “the rapid proliferation of well-paying jobs in solar installation.” This subject can be simplified to the singular “the proliferation.” Choice C is also singular, so agrees with the subject.

All of the other choices are plural verbs, so they cannot be used with the singular subject, "the proliferation.”

40

Content: punctuation

Choice C is the best answer because “the falling price of solar energy” is an essential part of the main clause, as it answers “what” the proliferation is “attributable to.” There should be no punctuation separating essential parts of the sentence.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because no punctuation should divide the phrasal verb “attributable to” from its object.

41

Content: sentence combination

Choice A is the best answer because “this” in the original sentence refers to the fact that “solar power is now competitive with other energy sources.” Choice A removes any ambiguity about what has led to various groups using solar power because it replaces “this” with “a development.”

Choice B is incorrect because “an aspect of solar power” would refer to a specific “feature” of the power itself as opposed to a comparison with other types of energy. Therefore, it does not accurately refer a change in “competitiveness.” Choice C is incorrect because the competition itself has not led to more solar power use; the change in relative cost of solar energy has led to more use. Choice D is incorrect because “with” changes the meaning so that the second sentence is something that happens together rather than as a result of the competition described in the first sentence.

42

Content: transitions

Choice B is the best answer because the previous paragraph asserts that the main reason some people select solar power is because they can save money. Choice B sets up the argument in the following paragraph that people can do both rather than select only saving money or helping the environment because it acknowledges the priority of money before asserting that the environment can also benefit.

Choice A is incorrect because neither the previous nor the following paragraph discusses the information that power companies provide or not. Choice C is incorrect because there is no discussion in the passage about a preference for solar power based on location; there is no mention of use in “urban areas” or “cities” compared to the countryside. Choice D is incorrect because it implies that “guaranteeing” the priority of saving money is better than the priority of protecting the environment. However, the passage is trying to show that both goals can be met.

43

Content: punctuation

Choice C is the best answer because “consumers…though” and “as a result…themselves” are both complete ideas with nouns and active verbs. The following statement is an explanation that supports the claim made in the first statement, so a colon establishes this relationship well.

Choice A is incorrect because “though” acts to subordinate “as a result…efforts” rather than acts as a transition word. The result is that “their own efforts” appears to refer to the efforts of the subject of the sentence, “consumers,” whereas it should refer to the following noun, “industry employees.” Choices B and D are incorrect because they place a comma after “result.” This comma divides the essential ideas “as a result of” from its object “their own efforts.” Choice B is also incorrect because it is a comma splice between two independent clauses.

The abstract structure for A is SVO1, though: a result of XXX, SVO2; in this case, SVO2 and SVO1 are somewhat contrary.

The abstract structure for C is SVO1, though: a result of XXX, SVO2; in this case, SVO2 explains SVO1.

44

Content: precision and concision

Choice A is the best answer because it concisely provides all of the necessary information. It is clear what happens at the same time as meeting the demand for an environmentally-friendly service: the industry workers can make a good living.

All of the other choices can be eliminated as redundant. “While” includes the idea of “at the same time,” so “also” and “meanwhile” in Choice B, “simultaneously” in Choice C, and “at the same time” in Choices C and D are unnecessary.

1

Choice A is the best answer because the narrator is the person telling the story. Line 31 says, “She told us all that at school the first day,” which shows that the narrator was someone at the school. The exact answer is found in lines 55-57, when the narrator uses “we” and “us” to show that the narrator is one of the 26 students, “What we really wanted to know about—all twenty-six of us across seven grade levels in the one room….”

Choice B is incorrect because “predecessor” means “the person who came before.” Lines 64-65 confirm that the narrator was not the teacher because instead of using “I” or “we,” the narrator says, “Her predecessor, Miss Chandler, had never once made use of that map.” Choice C is incorrect because “anonymous” means “unknown.” While the narrator’s name is not known, it is clear that the narrator is one of the 26 students, has a brother named Ralphord who is younger, and is not the one seventh-grader. Therefore, the narrator is not just a “member of the community” or “someone who lives in the area.” Choice D is incorrect because the narrator uses “us” and “we” to describe the impressions that other people have of Miss Spivey. The third person, such as “her remark” (line 10) show that Miss Spivey is a separate person. Therefore, Miss Spivey is not telling the story.

2

Choice B is the best answer because in the first paragraph, “the citizens of Threestep were in the mood for a little excitement” (lines 18-19), so they “gathered to welcome [Miss Spivey] on the burned grass alongside the tracks” (lines 10-11). It can be assumed from this exchange that there was very little to do in the town if the most “excitement” was meeting the new teacher at the station. This impression is reinforced by the ironic anecdote that Miss Spivey “wanted to bring democracy and education to the poorest, darkest, most remote and forgotten corner of America. They sent her to Threestep, Georgia” (lines 49-52). In other words, many people felt that Threestep was extremely needy and “off the beaten track.” Finally, the description of the school says that there are “twenty-six of us across seven grade levels in the one room” (lines 56-57), indicating that the town has very few children. Therefore, Choice B describes Threestep well as a small “rural,” or “country,” town.

Choice A is incorrect because a “summer retreat” is a place that people go for the summer season, and often is considered fashionable with hotels and restaurants and other places for entertaining visitors or “vacationers.” However, the passage contains no indication that many people visit at all. If so, the citizens would probably not be lined up to welcome the teacher as she got off the train. Choice C is incorrect because a “prominent university” is a “famous college.” However, there is no indication that the town has any educational facilities other than the schoolhouse, in which the map has never been used (lines 64-67, “her predecessor…was there”) and students do not know what camels are (lines 76-83, “and can you…Bethlehem”). Choice D is incorrect because a “suburb” is an outlying region of a larger city, but since Threestep is referred to as the “most remote and forgotten corner of America,” (lines 50-51), it is not close to a larger city.

3

Choice D is the best answer because Miss Spivey’s comment about the Georgia heat was that “it was nothing…compared to the 119 degrees that greeted her when she arrived one time in Timbuktu” (lines 6-8). The narrator felt that “her remark irritated some of the people gathered to welcome her” (lines 10-11) because “when folks are sweating through their shorts, they don’t like to hear that this is nothing compared to someplace else” (lines 12-14). In other words, the people were “resentful” or “feeling irritated” because Miss Spivey “minimized” the discomfort or heat, meaning that she “made it seem less important.”

Choice A is incorrect because “sympathy” means that the people have pity and are understanding. However, they do not think she is experiencing “intense” or “extreme” heat for the first time because her comment is that “it was nothing…compared to the 119 degrees that greeted her when she arrived one time in Timbuktu” (lines 6-8). In other words, the heat in Timbuktu was much worse. Choice B is incorrect because “disappointment” means that they feel sad, but there is no evidence that the people feel sad or that they think Miss Spivey will leave soon. Since she is the new teacher, it may be assumed that she will stay for at least a school year. Choice C is not supported by any evidence related to Miss Spivey’s comment about the heat that the people “imagine she is superior” or “think that she is better” in some way. The people do not show “embarrassment” or acting shy.

4

Choice B is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that it can reasonably be inferred that some people regard Miss Spivey’s comment about the Georgia heat with resentment, or “irritation at being treated unfairly,” because they feel that she is “minimizing” their discomfort, or “making it seem unimportant.” Choice B directly supports that claim because it says that the narrator feels that some people were “irritated” or “resentful” because they don’t want to hear their suffering is “nothing” or “minimized” compared to a different place. It is reasonable to assume that the narrator correctly interprets the attitude of at least some of the people.

Choice A is incorrect because it only describes Miss Spivey’s appearance. It also occurs before her comment about the heat, so her opinion is not yet known. Choice C is incorrect because it only says that the people are “irritated or not,” which means that the people might really not be irritated. Even if they were irritated, it does not show the reason for that emotion, so does not support the claim that the people were irritated because she minimized their experience. Choice D is incorrect because it only describes Miss Spivey’s education; it does not refer to her comment about the heat or how people reacted to it.

5

Choice A is the best answer because “fruitful” means “productive” or “useful.” An “intermission” is a break, in this case, a break “in her formal education” (line 25), or time she was attending regular school. However, Miss Spivey implies that the time was still “educational” and “productive” despite not attending a regular school.

Choice B is incorrect because lines 37-38 say that Miss Spivey was “in the midst of trying to find her true mission in life” at Barnard College, which was after she traveled with Dr. Miller. This statement shows that she had not yet decided on her “true mission” or “career path.” Choice C is incorrect because the “fruitful intermission” was a break “in her formal education” (line 25). The intermission was not an “unanticipated reward” or “unexpected good result” of going to boarding school. Choice D is incorrect because there is no indication that she expected to have a “short break.” “Fruitful” refers to “usefulness” rather than to length of time.

6

Choice A is the best answer because the interaction between Ralphord and Miss Spivey is related to her education. She attended “Barnard College” (line 30), but Ralphord calls it “Barnyard” (line 33). Her description of Barnard was “the sister school of Columbia University, of which, she expected, we all had heard” (lines 34-36). Because she expected or assumed that the students in Threestep, Georgia, had heard of Columbia, she considered it “common knowledge” or “well-known.” An “exaggerated view” means that she assumed that more people would know the fact than actually did. This fits the case, as the students in the passage did not know about Columbia University or Barnard College as she expected them to do.

Choice B is incorrect because a “friendly dynamic” refers to a comfortable, back-and-forth communication between people. However, the interaction shows that when Ralphord asks a question about “Barnyard College” (line 33), she is surprised and slightly arrogant that he does not know what she is talking about. “Charming” means “endearing,” but the students are not necessarily people that the reader automatically loves. “Indulgent” means “being very lenient” and “doting” means “extremely fond,” but the teacher is somewhat critical and not forgiving when she corrected the name (lines 33-34, “Barnard, which she wrote on the blackboard”) and “she expected” (line 35) them to know about the university. Choice C is incorrect because “precocious” refers to being smarter or more talented than usual for one’s age, but Ralphord does not show special intelligence. If anything, his referring to “Barnyard College” (line 33) may make him appear slightly stupid or ignorant. “Dismissive” means “ignoring something,” but Miss Spivey is not dismissive of Ralphord; she corrects his mistake. Choice D is incorrect because Ralphord seem genuinely unaware of the correct pronunciation and asks a serious question, “what did she study” (line 32), so does not appear to be trying to “amuse” or “entertain” the teacher.

7

Choice D is the best answer because “wandered” is used to describe what she did when “in the midst of trying to find her true mission in life” (lines 37-38). She was not sure of what she wanted to do, so “somewhat accidentally” or “without a set plan” attended the lecture by John Dewey, which was her “initial encounter” or “first meeting” with him and his ideas. “Marched” shows that something is done with determination, and the meeting with Dewey is what “motivated” or “inspired” her to “decisive action,” the decision to sign up at the Teacher’s College.

Choice A is incorrect because “wandered” shows how Miss Spivey attended Dewey’s lecture for the first time, so the word does not refer to Dewey’s knowledge of Miss Spivey; he did not know her at that time. However, “marched” does refer to “instilling” or “giving” a sense of determination. Choice B is incorrect because “wandered” does not refer to talking with Dewey over coffee, which came after attending his first lecture. “Marched” refers to her desire to become a teacher and going to the Teacher’s College to sign up; it does not refer to the story about “two years later” (lines 47-48) when she “told a cheery blue-suited woman from the WPA1 that she wanted to bring democracy and education to the poorest, darkest, most remote and forgotten corner of America” (lines 48-52). Choice C is incorrect because “wandered” refers to attending the lecture, and the lecture happened before “two years spent studying” at the Teacher’s College. She “marched” to the college to sign up, which also happened before the “two years spent studying.”

8

Choice C is the best answer because lines 48-52 say, “she told a cheery blue-suited woman from the WPA that she wanted to bring democracy and education to the poorest, darkest, most remote and forgotten corner of America. They sent her to Threestep, Georgia.” In other words, when she talked to the woman about the type of place she wanted to teach, they selected Threestep as a good match.

All of the other choices led up to Miss Spivey ending up in Threestep, but they are not the “direct cause” or “primary agent” leading to her becoming a teacher there. Choice A was something that happened before college and enriched her life. Choice B was something she did to get her training, but she could have gotten a teaching position anywhere after graduating from Teacher’s College. Choice D is incorrect because Miss Chandler could have been replaced by anyone and Miss Spivey could have been sent somewhere else.

9

Choice C is the best answer because when Miss Spivey says she has seen camels, the students “all hung there for a minute, thinking hard, until Mavis Davis spoke up” (lines 81-82). “Hung in there” indicates that the students were trying to think of a response but could not. The narrator says that Miss Spivey’s response to Mavis’s answer was not appropriate for “having enlightened the rest of us” (line 89). “Enlightened” means “taught.” Therefore, Mavis taught the other kids what camels were. Since Choice C means “confused,” it fits the context of not knowing the correct answer to the statement that Miss Spivey has seen camels.

Choice A is incorrect because it means “very happy.” However, the children “think hard” rather than get excited as Miss Spivey expects (lines 78-80, She looked…the thought”). Choice B refers to a deep interest and appreciation rather than confusion. Choice D refers to concern or unease. However, the students do not appear worried, just unsure of what the teacher means.

10

Choice B is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the students were “baffled” or “confused” when Miss Spivey announces that she had seen camels. Choice B supports that claim because it shows that the students were “thinking hard” (line 81) about an answer but did not have one until Mavis answered for them. They were confused about what Miss Spivey was talking about.

Choice A is incorrect because it only explains the reaction that Miss Spivey expects. It does not show how the children actually reacted to her statement. Choice C is incorrect because it shows that a student knows what camels were and was not confused; therefore, Choice C weakens rather than supports the claim that the students were “baffled.” Choice D is incorrect because it says that Miss Spivey did not give the correct response to Mavis about “enlightening” or “teaching about” something but does not say that the students were baffled or confused about the remark about camels.

11

Choice D is the best answer because the first paragraph introduces the main problem discussed in the passage: “you can’t make people drive less, in the long run, by taking steps that make driving more pleasant, economical, and productive” (lines 15-17). The second paragraph discusses one of the only known solutions: “One of the few forces with a proven ability to slow the growth of suburban sprawl has been the ultimately finite tolerance of commuters for long, annoying commutes” (lines 18-21). This idea is expanded upon in detail in Paragraph 2. Line 28 summarizes that if other methods are used to reduce congestion, “we actually make the sprawl problem worse.” Paragraph 3 reinforces the claim that “Traffic congestion isn’t an environmental problem; traffic is” (lines 48-49) by showing that the total volume of cars will increase if the congestion is removed. The final paragraph somewhat jokingly concludes the passage by saying that it is not a popular stance, but “from an environmental perspective, inconvenient travel is a worthy goal” (lines 69-71). Therefore, the entire passage is focused on showing that to “reduce the negative environmental effect” or “help the environment,” driving should be “inconvenient” or “not fun,” in other words, “less agreeable.”

Choice A is incorrect because, while the third paragraph suggests that efforts to reduce traffic actually increase traffic, that is only one point in the overall discussion. For example, Paragraph 2 focuses on how sprawl develops. Choice B is incorrect because the passage is not trying to “dispute” or “argue” that mass transit is not good for the environment. In fact, the writer implies out that such systems could be successful if “backed up by something that impels complementary reductions in car use” (lines 9-10). Choice C is incorrect because the passage is not just talking about “car-focused development” because he refers to other solutions to help the environment such as “Moving drivers out of cars and into other forms of transportation” (lines 60-61).

12

Choice A is the best answer because “mass transit” refers to public methods of travel such as trains and buses. Choice A supports the claim that people would “rather drive” or “prefer to drive” because it describes that group of people as “almost everyone with access to a car.” In other words, practically every person “with access” or “able to use” a car will choose to do so rather than use public transportation options.

Choice B is incorrect because it refers to what makes a transit change environmentally beneficial. It does not say that people prefer to drive rather than ride public transportation. Choice C is incorrect because it only refers to people liking to drive when it is “pleasant, economical, and productive.” It does not say that people like to drive better than they like to take public transportation that is also potentially “pleasant, economical, and productive.” Choice D says that there is a limit to people’s desire to put up with long commutes. Like the other incorrect choices, however, it does not show that people prefer to drive a car when given a choice.

13

Choice A is the best answer because “backed up” is used to show the way a new transit system relates to “something that impels complementary reductions in car use” (lines 9-10). Since “impels” means “forces” and “complementary reductions” means “combined with decreases,” the new system needs to be helped by decreases in car use that happen at the same time. Since Choice A means “help” or “assist,” it describes the relationship well.

Choice B is incorrect because it means “to make an identical version.” However, the reductions in car use do not need to exactly look the same as the transit system. Choice C is incorrect because it means “replaced by.” However, the decreases in car use need to happen at the same time as the transit system; the decreases do not take the place of putting in a better transit system. Choice D is incorrect because it means “blocked.” However, the transit system should not be blocked by the reduction in cars, it should run smoothly, and at the same time, there should be fewer cars.

14

Choice B is the best answer because “concedes” means “admits that a point against an argument is true.” His “recommendations” or “suggestions” are that car travel should be made more expensive and less convenient. Line 14 directly states, “Needless to say, those ideas are not popular.” Since “popular” means “widely supported,” the writer is directly saying that his ideas are not widely supported.

Choice A is incorrect because the writer does not say that his suggestions are “costly to implement” or “expensive to put into action.” If anything, his suggestions of “higher fuel taxes, parking fees, and tolls” (lines 13-14) would earn money for the city. Choice C is incorrect because the first paragraph does not indicate that “experts” or “people with a lot of knowledge about the subject” are “opposed” or “against” to his recommendations. The words “not popular” (line 14) refers to the lack of support of people in general rather than the lack of support of a specific group. Choice D is incorrect because he does not say that his recommendations are harmful to the environment at all. He indicates that his ideas have “environmental value” that will last beyond the short period of time that usual changes to transit systems have.

15

Choice C is the best answer because “characterize” means to “describe” something. Lines 1-4 set up the author’s argument, “Building good transit isn’t a bad idea, but it can actually backfire if the new trains and buses merely clear space on highway lanes for those who would prefer to drive.” In other words, the ideas are “a good idea” or are “well-intentioned.” However, they “ultimately” or “eventually” lead to environmental harm. They “backfire,” (line 2) or “do not work as planned,” because they do not “cut energy consumption overall" (lines 7-8).

Choice A is incorrect because according to the writer, the attempts to improve traffic are not “doomed to fail” or “guaranteed not to work.” He suggests that the attempts would work if “backed up by something that impels complementary reductions in car use” (lines 9-10). Choice B is incorrect because there is no indication that the attempts to improve traffic “overestimate” or “have too high an idea” of how “tolerant” or “willing” people are to drive on a long commute. If anything, they may “underestimate” the fact that people are willing to drive for a long time. Choice D is incorrect because it is opposite of the correct answer. The writer says that the transit will only work if driving is less economical and productive: “you can’t make people drive less, in the long run, by taking steps that make driving more pleasant, economical, and productive” (lines 15-17).

16

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the author most likely “characterize” or “describe” many attempts to improve traffic as well-intentioned but ultimately leading to environmental harm. Choice C directly supports this claim because it says that the “misguided effort” (line 30) or “attempt that has good intentions” to make changes that have “environmental value” (line 31) or “which will help the environment” “actually make the problem worse” (lines 37-28). In other words, instead of helping the environment as intended, the result is to make the problem worse, causing harm to the environment.

Choice A is incorrect because it does not say that transit systems are designed with good intentions, or that the result is environmental harm. It only says that transit systems need to be supported by certain steps to be effective. Choice B is incorrect because it only refers to people’s patience with long commutes. It does not refer to transit systems at all. Choice C says that transit systems may “have the same effect” (lines 61-62): “road space begets road use” (lines 62-63). However, there is no indication that road space “begetting” or “creating” road use will harm the environment.

17

Choice D is the best answer because the passage gives an example of reducing commuting time in lines 43-46: “If you cut commuting time by 10 percent, people who now drive fifty miles each way to work can justify moving five miles farther out, because their travel time won’t change.” In other words, people can “justify” or “think it is reasonable” to live farther from where they work because the travel time is the same as it was before the commuting time for the closer place was reduced.

None of the other choices is supported by evidence from the passage. Choice A is incorrect because there is no evidence that drivers are more “productive employees” or “do more work” when they have shorter commuting times. The reference to “productive” in line 17 does not explain in what way the person does more; for example, the person may have more time to do housework. Choice B is incorrect because there is no reference to mass transit getting extended farther into the suburban areas when commute times decrease; the implication is that mass transit is extended when commute times become too long. Choice C is incorrect because there is no reference to the amount of “funding” or “money” transit gets from the government. It is possible that there will be fewer passengers, but not necessarily.

18

Choice C is the best answer because “promotes” is used to show what people do to a transit scheme with an argument. In the context, no one encourages others to use a transit scheme using the argument that travel is less convenient. Since Choice C means “publicly supports,” it accurately describes the situation in which no one supports the scheme by saying travel will be inconvenient. The word “promotes” is also used in line 65 as “promoting,” with the same meaning. Cities support plans by saying that the plans “improve the lives of those who continue to drive” (lines 66-67).

Choice A is incorrect because it means “improves.” However, there is no mention of changing the plan, just the way it is presented to the public. Choice B is incorrect because it refers to the formal act of delivering a document to the person to whom the document is addressed. However, the “transit scheme” is not addressed to a particular person. Choice D is incorrect because it refers to making something more advanced or elaborate. The argument that the transit scheme would make traveling less convenient is not a way to make the plan more detailed; it is a way to explain the existing plan to others.

19

Choice B is the best answer because the first two columns of the chart show the “vehicles per day on altered road.” The first column is “before alteration,” which means “before change.” Therefore, this column contains the correct figure. The second line from the top is for “Southampton city center.” The number is 5,316, as given in Choice B.

None of the other choices corresponds to the box for “Southampton city center” “Vehicles per day on altered road” and “before alteration.” Choice A is the number of vehicles for Southampton city center “after alteration” on the altered road. Choices C and D are the Southampton city center figures for “vehicles per day on surrounding roads,” which refers to “roads near the altered road.” Choice C is for “after alteration” and Choice B is for “before alteration” on the surrounding roads.

20

Choice B is the best answer because the data in the graph shows the results of reducing the capacity, meaning decreasing the number of cars that can be on the road at a given time. The result, or “change in traffic” at all five sites, including both the altered road and surrounding roads, was negative, or had less traffic. The author’s argument is that the only way to reduce the total number of cars on the road is a “physical elimination of traffic lanes or the conversion of existing roadways into bike or bus lanes” (lines 11-12). This claim is supported because the region showed a negative change, or decrease, when the roads were physically changed to allow less cars.

Choice A is incorrect because the chart only shows the results of a “route capacity reduction” or “decrease in number of cars able to drive on a road.” The chart does give any evidence about what happens when the roads remain the same, but the drivers are “moved out of the cars.” Therefore, the chart does not support the claim that traffic is “induced” or “increased” when the roads remain the same. Choice C is incorrect because, while there is an increase in the “vehicles per day on surrounding roads” in both Tower Bridge, London, and New York highway, the overall change in traffic for the region was significant, -80.3% and -36.4%, respectively, This observation supports the writer’s claim that a physical change to the roadways can help “eliminate driving on a scale sufficient to cut energy consumption overall” (lines 7-8). Choice D is incorrect because “brief” refers to a “short time period.” However, the data in the chart does not show that the change in traffic only lasted a short time because there is only a “before and after” comparison. There is no data showing a later increase in traffic.

21

Choice D is the best answer because “skeptical” refers to “thinking that something will not happen.” Therefore, “skeptical” responses are predictions of “no,” that drivers will not change certain behavior. The “no” responses are in black in the chart. The longest black column is the second from the bottom, “their driving style,” as listed in Choice D.

Choice A is incorrect because “when they travel,” the second bar from the top, shows a very small black bar, and a very large grey bar meaning “yes” or “optimistic view” that people will change the time of travel. Choice B is incorrect because, for the third column from the top labeled “their means of traveling,” there is a very small black bar and very large grey bar. Choice C, “how often they make a journey,” is the fourth column from the top. Although it has a larger black section than Choices A and B, it still is smaller than the black section for Choice D.

22

Choice D is the best answer because the first paragraph says that in the 1990s, fast fibers were the only nerve type believed to transmit “sensations of pressure and vibration” (lines 4-5). If that were the case, a blocked fast fiber could not transmit information about vibrations. Therefore, the ability to “perceive” or “feel” vibrations would be “impaired” or “blocked.”

Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not provide any evidence that 1990s textbook authors thought that other nerve fibers would fire at a faster rate if fast fibers were blocked. Choice B is incorrect because there is no indication that stimuli would be felt in different ways if nerves were blocked. Choice C is incorrect because studies that tested what happened when fast fibers were blocked found that “Preventing fast fibers from firing…seemed to eliminate the sensation of pressure altogether” (lines 8-11). Therefore, the body did not “compensate” or “change” by using slow fibers to sense pressure.

23

Choice B is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that textbook authors in the early 1990s would most likely have expected the ability to perceive vibrations to be “impaired” or “damaged” by blocking fast fibers. Choice B supports that claim because it says that people thought that only fast fibers transmitted information about vibrations. If that were the case, then if a fast fiber were blocked, the signal about vibration would be blocked or “impaired.”

Choice A is incorrect because it only talks about slow-conducting nerves. It does not give any idea about what fast fiber nerves were believed to do or what blocking one would result in. Choice C is incorrect because it only talks about the sensation of pressure but does not say anything about vibrations. Choice D says that fast fibers relate to touch and that impulses travel at fast speeds. However, it does not support any conclusion about how blocking a fast fiber would change its reaction to a vibration.

24

Choice A is the best answer because “active” refers to the relationship between “slow fibers responsive to gentle pressure” (line 16) and “humans” (line 17). The phrase “as well as in other mammals” (line 17) shows that the question is whether the slow fibers exist in humans as well as other mammals. Choice A means “exist” so effectively establishes how the parts of the sentence relate to each other.

Choice B is incorrect because it refers to deliberately observing something. However, slow fibers do not decide to be “careful,” so Choice B does not fit the context. Choice C refers to the quality of being able to move or transport something. However, the question is not whether the fibers could change place in humans. Choice D is incorrect because it refers to the inability to relax because of worry or boredom, but nerves are not capable of emotions.

25

Choice C is the best answer because “capture” is used to describe what “a fine filament…inserted into a single nerve” (lines 21-22) does to “its electrical impulses” (line 22). The result was that “they showed that soft stroking prompted two different signals, one immediate and one delayed” (lines 24-26). Therefore, the fine filament was used to “record” or “collect information about” about the type of electrical impulses.

Choice A refers to taking control of a place, typically using force, but the filament is not forcing the electrical impulses and controlling the nerve. Choice B is incorrect because it means “to grab suddenly,” but the filament is placed in the nerve; it does not grab the nerve. Choice D means “affect” or “change,” but the filament takes data rather than changing the electrical impulses.

26

Choice C is the best answer because the 1992 experiment is discussed in Paragraph 2. Lines 24-26 say, “They showed that soft stroking prompted two different signals, one immediate and one delayed.” The two signals indicate that two types of nerves are sensing the “soft stroking,” which is a form of “gentle pressure.” The types of nerves are explained in lines 28-34, “This delay identified nerve impulses traveling at speeds characteristic of slow, unmyelinated fibers—about 1 meter/second— confirming the presence of these fibers…. In contrast, fast-conducting fibers…signal at a rate between 35 and 75 m/s.”

Choice A is incorrect because the 1993 study only discusses “a gentle touch on the forearm” (line 27). There is no comparison between “stimulation,” in this case, “touching,” at the “bodily extremities” or “parts far from the center such as hands and feet” and touching done closer to the brain. Choice C is incorrect because the presence of hairs is only discussed in association with the presence of slow fibers (lines 43-48, “Unlike other…signatures"). The hairs do not “lessen the speed” or “slow down” how fast the nerves conduct signals because fast fibers are also present (lines 24-25, “soft stroking…signals”) and there is no mention of their reaction being reduced. Choice D is incorrect because there is no discussion of a change in the pressure applied to the nerves in the experiment.

27

Choice B is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Olausson’s 1993 experiment supports the claim that gentle pressure is sensed not only by fast fibers but also by slow fibers. Choice B supports that claim because it says that “gentle pressure” or “soft stroking” evoked two nerve signals, one fast and one slow. Therefore, both types of nerves respond to the pressure.

Choice A is incorrect because it only describes the methodology used in the experiment. It does not say that two different types of nerve reacted to pressure. Choice C is incorrect because it only talks about the delay in signal created by slow fibers. It does not provide any evidence that fast fibers were also present. Choice D is incorrect because it also refers to characteristics of the slow fibers. It does not show that two types of nerve respond to gentle pressure.

28

Choice D is the best answer because the “problem” is “why exactly humans might have such fibers” (lines 41-42). “Mystifying” refers to something that is completely puzzling or confusing. This is an emotion that was most likely felt by Olausson’s team, and is what made them decide to do more studies. Therefore, the sentence helps establish Olausson’s team’s “perspective” or “point of view.”

Choice A is incorrect because the sentence does not “identify” or “name” any points that the team “had previously failed to consider” or “had not thought of before.” It only introduces the puzzling question of why certain nerves exist. Choice B is incorrect because there is no “solution” or “answer” in the sentence. It describes a “dilemma” or “puzzle” that the team “encountered” or “met,” but it does not solve that puzzle in any way. Choice C is incorrect because a “potential criticism” is a “possible complaint or argument.” However, the sentence does not “anticipate” or “predict” any negative reaction from the reader. Instead, it highlights a logical question that had no easy answer.

29

Choice A is the best answer because Olausson’s team bases their experiment on an assumption about CT nerves: “these fibers must be conveying a different dimension of sensory information than fast-conducting fibers” (lines 49-50). Lines 54-59 show that Olausson was trying to determine the “precise nature” or “exact quality” of sensations or reactions sensed by CT fibers: “He wanted to know if that same slow nerve can distinguish where the brush touches the arm, and whether it can discern the difference between a goat-hair brush and a feather. Most importantly, could that same fiber convey a pleasant sensation?”

Choice B is incorrect because, while CT fibers are associated with regions with body hair (lines 43-45, “unlike…human skin”), there is no evidence that the experiment was designed to “determine” or “solve” the relationship between body hair and nerve function. Choice C is incorrect because there is no reference to testing pain in the 1999 experiment, only to differences in types of gentle pressure (lines 54-57, “he wanted…a feather”). Choice D is incorrect because microneurography is discussed as a way of giving “information about how a single nerve responds” (line 51-52). It is not used to create an “effect” or “reaction” on the nerve, only record the nerve responses.

30

Choice D is the best answer because Olausson’s experiment was trying to determine the type of sensation that could be detected by CT fibers, in particular, “could that same fiber convey a pleasant sensation?” (lines 58-59). Lines 60-61 say, “To address the question, Olausson’s group sought out a patient known as G.L.” The rest of the paragraph describes why G.L.’s condition was “of value” or “useful” to Olausson’s experiment: she only had CT fibers, so the results would show what sensations were detected by CT fibers.

Choice A is incorrect because “relieved” means “eased” or “treated.” However, there is no evidence to show that the experiment would repair G.L.’s “neurological conditions” or “nerve damage.” Choice B is incorrect because “contextualize” means “give perspective to” something. However, the goal of the experiment was not to compare G.L.’s nerve function to other adults; that had been done in the past. Instead, the goal was to study one type of nerve. Choice C is incorrect because the “procedures” of “methods” of previous experiments are not “detailed” or “completely described.” The only parts of previous experiments discussed are the results.

31

Choice A is the best answer because “differed” means “were not the same,” so the answer needs to be something that is different between G.L. and other subjects. Lines 81-85 say, “In normal subjects, both the somatosensory and insular cortices were activated, but only the insular cortex…was active when researchers brushed G.L.’s arm.” In other words, the number of cortices activated in other test subjects was two, and the number in G.L. was one; the number “differed.”

Choice B is incorrect because there is no indication that the “physical dimensions” or “size and shape” of any part of G.L.’s brain was different. Choice C is incorrect because the passage does not show that a different “intensity” or “strength” of the signal was required to “activate” or “cause a reaction” in the insular cortex. Choice D is incorrect because MRI scanning was used “to examine which areas of the brain lit up when G.L.’s arm was gently brushed to activate CT fibers” (lines 79-81). It was watching and recording the response of the cortices, not “creating” or “causing an effect on” the brain cortices.

32

Choice B is the best answer because the 1999 experiment with G.L. “solidified the notion that CT fibers convey a more emotional quality of touch” (lines 85-86) because “the insular cortex [which processes emotion] was active when researchers brushed G.L.’s arm” (lines 83-85). Since G.L. only had CT fibers, emotions are “experienced” or “felt” when CT fibers are “exposed to a stimulus” or “activated.”

Choice A is incorrect because the passage implies that to experience an emotion, the insular cortex “which processes emotion” (lines 83-84) must be activated. Therefore, the emotion will not be felt of the cortex is “shielded” or “prevented from receiving” nerve signals. Choice C is incorrect because the description of G.L.’s condition (lines 64-68, “testing showed…her nose”) implies that when pain-sensing fibers are “suppressed” or “turned off,” pain cannot be felt. There is no evidence that the process of turning off the pain-sensing fibers causes the sensation of emotion. Choice D is incorrect because there is no evidence that if you “ignore” or “do not pay attention to” the “conscious aspect of sensation” or “part of sense one is aware of,” you will feel emotion. The passage only points out that the CT fibers do not transmit the “conscious aspect of sensation”: “CT fibers convey a more emotional quality of touch, rather than the conscious aspect that helps us describe what we are sensing” (lines 85-88).

33

Choice C is the best answer because “resources” refers to “assets” such as minerals, land that can be used for agriculture, and people who can work. “Immensity” refers to a large size. Therefore, the question is asking what Beveridge “asserts” or “claims” these things “constitute” or “are.” In Choice C, a “divine gift” refers to something given by a god or gods. Lines 1-2 show that Beveridge makes this claim: “It is a noble land that God has given us.” “Resources” are specifically described in line 2: “a land that can feed and clothe the world.” “Immensity” is specifically discussed in lines 2-4: “a land whose coast lines would enclose half the countries of Europe.”

Choice A is incorrect because Beveridge does not say that the “resources and immensity” or “assets and size” will “safeguard” or “protect” against foreign invasion. He does not discuss other countries attacking America at all. Choice B is incorrect because a “replication” is a “copy.” However, Beveridge says in lines 5-6 that America can be “a greater England with a nobler destiny.” In other words, America is not a copy of a European country, it is a changed version to something he feels is better. Choice D is incorrect because a “source of envy” means “something that makes others jealous.” However, Beveridge does not say that others will be jealous of the US.

34

Choice B is the best answer because the commands in Paragraph 2 all start with “think of…,” which is a way of “anticipating” or “looking forward to” the things he describes. The commands refer to the “benefits” or “good points” of the “proposed policy” to expand American control to Hawaii, Puerto Rico, and Cuba, such as “when the Republic’s laws cover those islands with justice and safety” (lines 26-27) and “when a government of law replaces the double reign of anarchy and tyranny” (lines 32-34).

Choice A is incorrect because “civic responsibilities” are the duties that a person must perform for his country. However, the commands do not “remind” or “point out” what the “audience” or “listener” should do. The commands show the effects of a policy of imperialism, which is the policy of expanding to control other countries. Choice C is incorrect because, while Beveridge describes many “urgent” or “serious” problems in the commands, he is not saying that they are “national problems” or “problems facing the US.” Instead, he is pointing out that the problems belong to other countries and will be solved if the US “shall establish order and equity there” (line 30). Choice D is incorrect because “refute” means to “disprove.” However, Beveridge is not disproving arguments “opponents have advanced” or “others have said.” He is just describing what he feels are the good results of imperialism.

35

Choice B is the best answer because “recalled" is used in the context of saying that “a truth once spoken can never be recalled” (lines 66-67). The next sentence says that the truth “goes on and on” (line 67), meaning that it continues forever. Choice B means “withdraw” or “reverse.” This interpretation fits the context of saying that once truth is spoken, it cannot be “unspoken” or reversed.

Choice A is incorrect because it means “happen again and again.” However, the passage states that the truth “goes on and on, and no one can set a limit to its ever-widening influence” (lines 67-68), implying that the truth is said again and again after it is first spoken. Choice C is incorrect because it means “dismissed as unacceptable.” However, it is possible to say that the truth is unacceptable, and it still goes on and on. Therefore, Choice C does not fit the context of “never” happening. Choice D is incorrect because it means “think about,” which does not fit the context of “never” happening. The passage implies that once a truth is said, someone will think about it.

36

Choice D is the best answer because a “manifestation” is a “sign.” An “innate drive in humans” is something that humans naturally feel or are born with. Bryan believes that humans prefer “self-rule” or “national sovereignty” because “God himself…placed in every human heart the love of liberty” (lines 72-73). He continues this assertion by saying that “He never made a race of people so low in the scale of civilization or intelligence that it would welcome a foreign master” (lines 74-76). In other words, no race of people was “made” or “born” with the desire to have a foreign “master” or “rule.”

Choice A is incorrect because Bryan does not refer to the “excesses” or “lack of moderation” by modern imperial governments. Therefore, people do not prefer national sovereignty as a “reaction” or “response” to actions by imperial governments. Choice B is incorrect because Bryan does not refer to the belief of “human equality” or the state where everyone has the same status and opportunities. He says that people do not want to be ruled by “a foreign master” (lines 75-76), but that does not mean that everyone in the society has the same status. Choice C is incorrect because a “testament” is “evidence.” Bryan does not think that a preference for national sovereignty is evidence of the effects of the US foreign policy. He feels that the preference is something given by “God himself” (line 72).

37

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Bryan considers the preference for national sovereignty over foreign rule to be a “manifestation” or “sign” of an “innate” or “natural” drive in humans toward self-rule. Choice C supports that claim because it says that “God never made a race of people,” meaning that no one was ever born, who would “welcome” or “prefer” a foreign master over liberty and self-control.

Choice A is incorrect because it does not show that people have a natural preference for self-rule. It shows that people promoting imperialism should realize that their government is founded on the basis of rejecting imperialism. Choice B refers to the ever-expanding nature of truth but does not explain why people prefer self-rule. Choice D is incorrect because it only cautions about the effects of imperialism but does not say that the preference for self-rule is inborn.

38

Choice A is the best answer because “calculate” is used to show what the subject, “those who would have this Nation enter upon a career of empire” (lines 77-78) need to do to “its effects upon our own nation” (line 80), where “its” refers to “imperialism.” Since Choice A means “assess,” it fits the context that people should assess or determine the consequences of imperial on “this nation” as well as on the Filipinos.

None of the other choices adequately shows what the subject, people who believe the US should become an empire, need to do to imperialism’s effect on the US. Choice B means to “plan” or “create” rather than look at what might happen. Choice C means “accept” or “guess,” neither of which shows that the people need to carefully consider the possible results. Choice D means “to increase in number,” but Bryan is not pushing for more effects to occur.

39

Choice A is the best answer because “founding” refers to “creation,” and both authors “express admiration” or “praise” the creation and history of the US. Beveridge claims in lines 12-14 that “it is a glorious history our God has bestowed upon His chosen people.” He is therefore praising the history as “glorious” or “wonderful.” Bryan claims that “Our whole history has been an encouragement not only to the Filipinos, but to all who are denied a voice in their own government” (lines 47-49), implying that the US history stands as a model for freedom. He cites with great pride the men who helped create the country: Patrick Henry (lines 53-55, “let them condemn…of men”), Jefferson (lines 56-58, “let them censure…bondage”), and Washington (lines 59-61, “let them censure…slavery”). Therefore, both authors show “admiration” or “respect” for the history of the country.

Choice B is incorrect because there is no discussion of the “diversity” or “wide range” of “culture” or “ideas and behaviors.” However, both authors do imply that America is “vibrant” or “full of energy and life.” Choice C is incorrect because both writers only refer to US history, they do not refer to “worldwide” history that describes the past of other countries. Choice D is incorrect because “permeates” means “fills.” The writers do talk about ideals, but they do not praise how ideals fill “many aspects of society” or “many different parts of American life.”

40

Choice B is the best answer because Beveridge thinks liberty is “so exemplary” or “such a perfect model” that it “justifies” or “provides reason” for the US to “conquest” or “take control of” other areas. He claims in lines 36-39, “her people ask for the highest honor liberty can bestow, the sacred Order of the Stars and Stripes, the citizenship of the Great Republic,” in which liberty is described as “sacred” or “holy.” The “Order of the Stars and Stripes” is a picturesque reference to the stars and stripes on the US flag. By contrast, Bryan warns that the good qualities would be “undermined” or “weakened” by expanding. He claims that “we cannot repudiate the principle of self-government in the Philippines without weakening that principle here” (lines 80-82). By that sentence, he means that Americans cannot take liberty away from the Philippines without weakening the principle of liberty in America.

Choice A is incorrect because a “direct inheritance” refers to something that was given directly from one thing to another. However, Beveridge attributes more of American liberty to God than to England. In addition, Bryan does not argue that liberty is a “sharp break” from earlier European governments because he does not describe previous governments at all. Americans have liberty, but he does not say how long it took to gain it. Choice C is incorrect because “arose organically” means that it “developed gradually and naturally.” However, he refers to “a history whose keynote was struck by Liberty Bell; a history heroic with faith in our mission and our future” (lines 14-16), which implies that there was a distinct point when liberty was created and that it took effort, as it was “heroic” or “grand in scale.” Also, Bryan does not argue that liberty was “present from the beginnings” because he describes people who worked hard to establish liberty, such as Patrick Henry and George Washington. Choice D is incorrect because, while Beveridge thinks that other countries would welcome America’s model of liberty, Bryan does not say that it is “unique” or “only” in the US. He says that it was “God himself who placed in every human heart the love of liberty” (lines 72-73), so liberty should be successful elsewhere.

41

Choice D is the best answer because Beveridge’s vision is that the people of the island territories would “ask for the highest honor liberty can bestow, the sacred Order of the Stars and Stripes, the citizenship of the Great Republic” (lines 36-39). However, Bryan would criticize this vision by saying that the people would “object” or “resist to the extent of their ability” (line 45). Therefore, Bryan would say that the view is “naïve” or “shows a lack of wisdom.”

None of the other choices are supported by any evidence from the passages. Choice A is incorrect because there is no evidence in Passage 2 that shows Americans would be unwilling to “relocate” or “move” to the distant islands. Choice B is incorrect because Bryan does not describe the “true goal” or “real purpose” of imperialism. He does not say that it is “economic domination” or “control of products and trade.” Choice C is incorrect because there is no reference to “distribution of resources” or “how supplies are divided.” Therefore, there is no evidence to say that islanders would “insist” or “demand” that supplies are divided equally.

42

Choice A is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Bryan would criticize Beveridge’s vision of American governance of island territories for being naïve, since the islanders would object to being governed by Americans. Choice A supports that claim because it says that the islanders would “resist” or “object” to the “extent of their ability,” which means “as much as possible.” Therefore, the view that the islanders would readily accept US government of the colonies is “naïve” or “shows a lack of wisdom.”

Choice B is incorrect because it indicates that Filipinos do not need “encouragement” or “help” from the US. However, it does not say that they would object to being governed by the US or that Beveridge’s vision is naïve. Choice C is incorrect because it shows that the US can be a model for the Filipinos. Therefore, Choice C could undermine the claim that the Filipinos would object to US government. Choice D is incorrect because it praises the words of Patrick Henry, but only tangentially implies that the Filipinos would object to US control.

43

Choice A is the best answer because the passage says that seeds need a “light break” (line 27), meaning some exposure to light, to “stimulate their germination” (line 27). Since “stimulate” means “begin a process” and “germination” refers to the growth of a plant from a seed. Therefore, the light allows seeds to begin the process of growing or developing.

None of the other choices are supported by evidence from the passage. Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not discuss how nutrients are absorbed. Choice C is incorrect because the passage does not discuss temperatures, let alone “extreme” or “severe” ones. Choice D is incorrect because the passage does not follow the experiments through to the point of “maximum growth” or “largest size” of the plant. The experiments only count how many seeds develop into plants.

44

Choice B is the best answer because the question is asking if plowing a field brings seeds to the surface enough that they turn into weeds because of the light. This question is the basic idea that the researchers were trying to answer. Lines 17-18 say that “Jonathan Sauer and Gwendolyn Struik, began to study this question in the 1960s.” Lines 28-32 (“more recently…germination”) introduce another study that explores the same question. The final sentence, lines 66-68 (“in fact…this idea”), concludes that the same premise is being studied elsewhere. Therefore, the question in the second paragraph sets up or “introduces” the research topic “addressed” or “discussed” in the passage.

Choice A is incorrect because “provisional nature” refers to “uncertain quality” of the findings. However, there is no indication that the research is not considered solid; the final sentence (lines 66-68, “in fact…this idea”) supports the opposite claim, that the findings hold true in a variety of settings. Choice C is incorrect because the “hypothetical impact” refers to the results of an imagined situation. However, the studies show real results of actual experiments. Choice D is incorrect because there is no suggestion that there are “disagreements” or “criticisms” of the “methods” or “procedures” used by the studies. In fact, the question in Paragraph 2 does not refer to a process or method at all.

45

Choice D is the best answer because “induced” is used to explain the relationship between “germination” (line 16) which is when a baby plant grows from a seed, and “exposure to sunlight" (line 16). The studies in the passage show that seeds begin to germinate when exposed to light, answering the question posed in lines 13-16. Choice D means “activated” to do something, so fits the context of seeds activated to germinate when sunlight touches them.

None of the other choices accurately complete the question about how exposure to sunlight relates to germination. Choice A means “tempt” or “attract,” but seeds are inanimate so would not respond in the emotional way of wanting to do something. Choice B is incorrect because it refers to starting something permanent, but “germination” is not an ongoing process. Instead, it is the point when growth begins. Choice C means “persuade,” but inanimate seeds do not react to a logical argument.

46

Choice C is the best answer because the question is asking for evidence that shows that seeds in fields plowed at night are “exposed” or “receive” at least some light. Choice C provides evidence because “those conditions” (line 40) refers to “plowing at night” discussed in the previous sentence. When plowing at night, “hundreds of millions of photons strike each square millimeter of ground each second” (lines 40-42). Since “photons” are light particles, that sentence shows that “hundreds of millions” of particles of light strike the ground, and therefore the seeds, at night.

Choice A is incorrect because it presents a hypothesis about light exposed to seeds during the day. It does not suggest that seeds at night receive any light. Choice B is incorrect because it does not say when the light hits the seeds, only that light hitting them causes them to germinate. Choice D is incorrect because it talks about whether plowing at night is a reasonable weed control option.

47

Choice A is the best answer because lines 56-57 say, “No crops were planted in these pilot experiments, to avoid possible competition with the emerging weeds.” “Competition” is when two species fight over space. With no competition, the fields would only have weeds growing freely. With competition, the field would have some corn or wheat that takes the space which might have had weeds in it. The result would then be fewer weeds, or a “lower” or “less” percentage than “Hartmann found” actually growing in the field.

Choice B is incorrect because refers to “had predicted,” which means “had estimated.” The passage does not describe what percentage Hartmann had estimated there would be, so there is no way to determine from the information given whether the number of weeds would have been higher or lower than what he guessed it would be. Choice C is incorrect because Hartmann could “determine” or “count” the number of weeds even if there were corn or wheat plants. He just would have to be careful to identify each plant to see if it is a weed before counting. Therefore, it would not have been “impossible” or “not able to be done.” It would be possible, but more time-consuming. Choice D is incorrect because “comparable” means “the same.” However, if wheat or corn was in “competition” (line 57) with the weeds, there would be fewer weeds.

48

Choice B is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that if Seydel had planted wheat or corn on the two agricultural strips in Hartmann’s experiment, the percentage of the surface of each strip covered with weeds would likely have been lower than the percentage that Hartmann found. Choice B supports that claim because it says that “crops,” which would include desirable plants such as corn or wheat, would be “in competition” with the weeds. Since competition in this context refers to fighting over space, it is likely that the corn or wheat would take some of the space that the weeds would have grown in if there had been no corn or wheat. There would be corn or wheat plants in place of some of the weeds Hartmann had found, making a “lower percentage” or “fewer weeds.”

Choice A is incorrect because it does not provide evidence to show how the results would have been different if corn or wheat were planted in the strips. Choice C is incorrect because it only says that the experiment results were “dramatic” or “impressive.” It does not show what would have happened if wheat or corn had also been planted. Choice D is incorrect because it only compares the results between day and night plowing. It does not indicate what would have happened if a crop was also planted.

49

Choice C is the best answer because “dramatic” is an adjective describing the “results.” The following sentence describes what the results were in detail: one field had 80% weed coverage but the other field had only 2% coverage (lines 58-61, “More than…by weeds”). These results are extremely “notable” or “striking.” Choice C fits the context because it also means “very notable” or “striking.”

None of the other choices adequately describes the results of the experiment. Choice A means “exaggerated” or “artificial,” but the results were not changed to make them more spectacular. Instead, the results were genuine. Choice B is incorrect because it means “happening quickly.” However, the results did not necessarily “happen fast” because it takes time for the plants to germinate and to count them. Choice D is incorrect because it refers to something that causes a deep feeling. Although the results were impressive, they do not necessarily make the average person reading about them feel extremely happy or sad.

50

Choice A is the best answer because the two right-hand columns show the “number of emerged seedlings in soil disturbed in.” The column on the farthest right is labeled “darkness,” so that is the column to use. The “fewest” or “smallest” number is 0, in the top row. That number corresponds to Sample A, deciduous woods.

None of the other numbers in the farthest right-hand column labeled “darkness” is lower than 0, so they can all be eliminated.

51

Choice C is the best answer because the two right-hand columns show the “number of emerged seedlings in soil disturbed in.” The column second from the right is labeled “light,” so that is the column to use. The “most” or “biggest” number is 14. That number corresponds to Sample I, muck field.

None of the other choices is greater than 14, so they do not show the “most” or “biggest” number. Choice A, in fact, has the “lowest” or “smallest” number.

52

Choice D is the best answer because lines 10-13 say that “germination of weed seeds would be minimized,” meaning that fewer seeds would germinate or turn into plants, if farmers plowed their fields at night. This statement is supported by the data in the table because for every sample except G, “old pasture,” the number for seedlings that “germinated” or “emerged” when disturbed in light is greater than the number that emerged when disturbed in the dark. The data therefore indicates that germination would be “minimized” or “reduced” if fields were plowed when it was dark, such as at night.

Choice A only says that, in the past, farmers controlled weeds by plowing fields. However, the table does not support the claim that plowing fields controls weeds, nor does it show what happened in the past. Choice B is incorrect because it only shows how many seeds might be in the soil. That claim of “50,000 or more weed seeds per square meter” (line 9) is not supported by the data in the table, because the table does not refer to the size of the sample taken. Choice C only refers to seeds under undisturbed soil, so it does not relate to the data about soil disturbed under different conditions.

1

Content: syntax

Choice A is the best answer. The conjunction “and” appropriately separates the last two nouns in the series, “radio” and “other media.”

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because “and with,” “and also,” and “and competing with” disrupt the parallel structure of the series of three nouns (“television,” “ratio,” “[other] media”) introduced by “competing with.”

2

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice D is the best answer. The topic of the passage is the creation of The Cat in the Hat as a means of getting children more interested in learning to read. Hersey’s suggestion that one way of making children’s books more interesting was to use “drawings like those of the wonderfully imaginative geniuses among children’s illustrators” best supports the topic of the passage.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they don’t support the topic of the passage. A sense of wholeness and accomplishment, the value of failure, and a difference between journalism and fiction don’t support the idea of making children’s literature more interesting.

3

Content: punctuation

Choice A is the best answer. The comma after “Spaulding” is paired correctly with the comma after “Mifflin” to set off grammatically nonessential information.

Choice B is incorrect because a comma is needed after “Spaulding” to set off the nonessential phrase that ends with “Mifflin.” Choice C is incorrect because placing a comma after “Spaulding” and after “director” wrongly indicates that “the director” could be deleted without changing the meaning of the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because a dash can’t be paired with a comma to set off grammatically nonessential information.

4

Content: sentence combination

Choice A is the best answer. This choice most effectively combines the sentences at the underlined portion because it’s concise and correctly indicates that Spaulding saw a need for appealing books for beginning readers at the same time that he thought he knew who should write one.

Choice B is incorrect because “namely” indicates that a more specific restatement of an earlier point or an example will follow. In this case, what follows the idea that Spaulding saw a need for appealing books is his though about who should write one. Choice C is incorrect because the repetition of Spaulding’s name is unnecessary. Choice D is incorrect because the adverb “meanwhile” is redundant; the conjunction “and” is sufficient to indicate that Spaulding had two thoughts simultaneously.

5

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice D is the best answer. The choice, which indicates that Geisel published nine children’s books and received three nominations for the prestigious Caldecott Medal, supports the information that follows in the sentence about Geisel being an experienced writer and illustrator.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Geisel’s long relationship with Spaulding, Geisel’s reputation for a perfectionism and for setting high standards, and his interest in politics don’t support the idea that Geisel was an experienced writer and illustrator.

6

Content: transitions

Choice A is the best answer. “However" correctly indicates that even though Geisel was an experienced writer and illustrator, the new project presented him with an obstacle.

Choices B, C and D are incorrect because none of these transitional words or phrases show the true relationship between the challenging nature of the new project and Geisel’s experience. “For example,” “furthermore,” and “at any rate” indicate that what follows is an instance of, additional to, or unrelated to what was stated in the previous sentence.

7

Content: misplaced modifier

Choice C is the best answer. The introductory phrase “on the verge of giving up” doesn’t have its own subject. Instead, the subject appears at the beginning of the sentence’s main clause and makes clear what is being described in the introductory phrase. “Geisel” is the logical subject of the sentence because he can be described as being “on the verge of giving up.”

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because “Geisel’s story,” “an image,” and “the story” can’t be described as being “on the verge of giving up.”

8

Content: precision and concision

Choice D is the answer. This choice concisely indicates that it took Geisel nine months to complete The Cat in the Hat.

Choices A, B, and C can be eliminated because they are repetitive. “Duration” and “long” (Choice A), “thirty-six weeks” (Choice B), and “length” (Choice C) unnecessarily repeat the idea that nine months had passed.

9

Content: subject-verb agreement

Choice D is the best answer. The underlined portion should be deleted because it isn’t necessary. Since “were entertained” appears earlier in the sentence, the past participle “captivated” is sufficient without the repetition of “were.”

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because “is captivated,” “was captivated,” and “has been captivated” are singular verbs that don’t agree in number with the plural subject “children.”

10

Content: punctuation

Choice C is the best answer. The comma after “followed” is used correctly to separate the dependent phrase “in the years that followed” from the independent clause that begins with “many.”

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a period, a semicolon, or a dash can’t be used in this way to separate an introductory dependent phrase from an independent clause.

11

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice C is the best answer. This choice indicates that The Cat in the Hat’s success is attribute to its enduring ability to delight children and engage them in learning how to read. This idea restates the main themes of the passage, which are the need to make books appealing to beginning readers and the importance of engaging those readers through interesting plots and illustrations.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. The idea that the best proof of The Cat in the Hat’s success is its limited vocabulary and appealing word choices, its impressive worldwide sales, or its important role in the history of twentieth-century illustration doesn’t restate the main themes of the passage.

12

Content: parallelism

Choice D is the best answer. The gerund “picking up” is parallel in structure to the other gerunds in the sentence, “helping” and “working.”

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they don’t maintain parallelism in the sentence. “When they pick up litter,” “to pick up litter,” and “litter collection” don’t contain gerunds.

13

Content: transitions

Choice A is the best answer. The transitional phrase “by its very definition” points to the criticism in the previous paragraph that when volunteering is compulsory, it’s no longer volunteerism.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the reference to general work, students, or communities in need doesn’t highlight the criticism of compulsory volunteering mentioned in the previous paragraph.

14

Content: possession and possessive pronouns

Choice D is the best answer. The plural noun “officials” correctly refers to the people who require students to give up time for nonprofit activities. Additionally, the plural possessive noun “students” indicates that the choice to give up personal time is supposed to belong to multiple students.

Choice A is incorrect because “officials” is a plural possessive noun, but nothing belongs to the officials in this sentence. Choice B is incorrect because “students” is a plural noun, but the plural possessive noun “students’” is needed to indicate that the choice is supposed to belong to students. Choice C is incorrect because “student’s” is a singular possessive noun, but the plural possessive noun “students’” is needed to show that the choice is supposed to belong to multiple students.

15

Content: precision and concision

Choice C is the best answer. This choice is clear and concise and doesn’t repeat the idea of "proponents" that begins the sentence.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are repetitive. Since proponents are people who support a cause, describing proponents of compulsory volunteering as "being in favor of it," "advocating it," or "being advocates" creates redundancy.

16

Content: style and tone

Choice B is the best answer. This choice, a closer connection with their community, is a benefit of volunteering and provides a supporting example that is most similar to the other examples of benefits offered in the sentence: increased self-esteem and better relationship-building skills.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they don’t provide supporting examples that are similar to the examples in the sentence. Increasingly busy schedules, less time spent engaging in social activities, and little increase in academic achievement aren’t benefits of volunteering.

17

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice B is the best answer. The infinitive “[to] affect” parallels the earlier infinitive “[to] volunteer” (“are more likely to volunteer,” “[are more likely to] affect”). Moreover, “affect,” meaning “to influence,” is used correctly to indicate that students who do community service positively influence society.

Choices A and C are incorrect because the verb “effect” generally means “to bring about” and the noun “effect” means “result,” neither of which makes sense in the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because the singular verb “affects” doesn’t work here, where the infinitive “affect” is required.

18

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice A is the best answer; “mandatory” is the most precise word to use when describing the volunteering that students are required to do.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the meanings of these words don’t fit the context of the sentence. “Coercive” and “forcible” suggest that threats or force are used to make someone do something. “Imperative” suggests that something is very important or necessary. None of these words is appropriate to use when describing the volunteering that students are required to do.

19

Content: punctuation

Choice D is the best answer. The semicolon is used correctly to separate the independent clause that begins with “she” from the independent clause that begins with “they.” In addition, this choice contains no unnecessary punctuation.

Choice A is incorrect because a comma can’t be used by itself to join two independent clauses. Choice B is incorrect because it’s unnecessary to place a comma between the adverb “then” and the verb “did,” which the adverb describes. Choice C is incorrect because no punctuation is needed to separate the subject “they” from the adverb “then.”

20

Content: logical comparison

Choice B is the best answer because “than did students who were” results in a logical comparison between two types of students: those who were required to volunteer (“they then did”) and those who weren’t (“than did those”).

Choices A and C are incorrect because each illogically compares “hours” to students (“they”). Choice D is incorrect because it results in a nonstandard expression; “less” is already comparative, meaning that “compared with” is not appropriate.

21

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice C is the best answer. The idea that schools should focus on offering arrangements that make volunteering an easy and attractive choice most effectively sets up the point made in the next sentence: more students willingly volunteer when schools tell them about volunteering opportunities and connect them with organizations.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they don’t effectively set up the point made in the next sentence. The ideas that schools have to recognize that not all students are equally well suited to the same activities, should allow students to spend their time participating in athletics and other extracurricular activities, and are advised to recognize the limits of their ability to influence their students don’t set up the point that students willingly volunteer when schools connect them to volunteer opportunities and organizations.

22

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice B is the best answer. This choice provides a conclusion that states the main claim of the passage: schools that don’t make volunteering compulsory will produce more engaged, enthusiastic volunteers than will schools that require volunteer work.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. The idea that schools should find volunteers for organizations in the United States, that psychological and economic studies have revolutionized understandings of volunteerism, or that students should choose charitable work that suits their interests and values doesn’t state the passage’s main claim that schools that don’t require volunteering produce more engaged enthusiastic volunteers.

23

Content: tense, mood, and voice

Choice C is the best answer. The present perfect tense verb “have believed” correctly indicates that scientists in the past believed that the corpus callosum enables complex tasks and that scientists continue to hold this belief in the presents.

Choice A, B, and D are incorrect because they don’t describe a belief that originated in the past and continues in the present. The present progressive tense verb “are believing,” the future progressive tense verb “will be believing,” and the simple present tense verb “believe” aren’t appropriate to use in a case that requires a present perfect tense verb.

24

Content: precision and concision

Choice A is the best answer. This choice concisely defines handedness without unnecessarily repeating the ideas of preference or consistency.

Choices B and C are incorrect because “favor the use of” and “could be chosen,” respectively, repeat the idea of “prefer,” which appears earlier in the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because “on a regular basis” is synonymous with “consistently,” which also appears earlier in the sentence.

25

Content: punctuation

Choice A is the best answer. No punctuation is necessary between the noun “trait” and the preposition “other than.”

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because neither a comma, a semicolon, nor a colon is necessary to separate the noun “trait” from the phrase that follows.

26

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice B is the best answer. The phrase “correlates with” is idiomatic when indicating that two things are directly related to each other. In the passage, handedness in marsupials is believed to be related to the trait of bipedalism in those mammals.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because “links as,” “correlates from,” and “links on” aren’t idiomatic when indicating that two things are directly related to each other.

27

Content: graphics

Choice D is the best answer. According to the graph, positive mean handedness index scores indicated a left-forelimb preference and negative scores indicated a right-forelimb preference.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they don’t accurately reflect the information in the graph.

28

Content: punctuation

Choice B is the best answer. The comma after “kangaroo” and before the conjunction “and” is used correctly to separate the last two items, “red kangaroo” and “brush-tailed bettong,” in the list of bipedal marsupials.

Choice A is incorrect because the comma needs to be placed immediately before the conjunction “and,” not after it. Choice C is incorrect because a semicolon isn’t used to separate individual items in a simple list. Choice D is incorrect because a dash isn’t used to separate items in a list, and the comma after “and” is unnecessary.

29

Content: graphics

Choice C is the best answer. According to the graph, the four bipedal marsupials had positive mean handedness index values between 0.4 and 0.6, which revealed their preference for using their left forelimbs.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they don’t accurately reflect the data in the graph. The four bipedal marsupials didn’t have positive mean handedness index values less than 0.2 or greater than 0.6, and they didn’t have mean handedness index values of 0.

30

Content: transitions

Choice C is the best answer. The transitional phrase “in contrast to” provides the best transition from the previous paragraph, which illustrates bipedal marsupials’ forelimb preference, to this paragraph, which discusses how quadrupedal marsupial differ from their bipedal counterparts by not showing a strong forelimb preference.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they don’t provide a transition from the previous paragraph. The introductory phrases “having four feet,” “like most other mammals,” and “while using their forelimbs for eating” don’t establish a connection between the discussion of bipedal marsupials’ forelimb preference in this paragraph.

31

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice B is the best answer. A main claim of the passage is that scientists now believe there’s a correlation between bipedalism and handedness in marsupials. Choice B, by mentioning that bipedal marsupials in the study demonstrated handedness, references this main claim.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they don’t present a main claim of the passage. The passage isn’t about how kangaroos still don’t exhibit handedness to the extent that humans do, the many things scientists don’t understand about the marsupial brain, or additional studies on the phenomenon of handedness that will need to be performed with other mammals.

32

Content: pronouns

Choice B is the best answer. “Which” is a standard relative pronoun in reference to a concept such as a task.

Choice A is incorrect because “whom” is used to refer to people, not concepts. Choice C is incorrect because “what” isn’t a typical relative pronoun and isn’t idiomatic in context (“tasks in what handedness may confer an evolutionary advantage”). Choice D is incorrect because “whose” nonsensically suggests that tasks have handedness.

33

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice A is the best answer. No change is needed because this choice concludes the passage by recalling a topic from the first paragraph that requires additional research: scientists’ enduring question about how the left and right hemispheres of marsupials’ brains communicate since these mammals lack a corpus callosum.

Choice B, C, and D are incorrect because none of these choices concludes the passage by recalling a topic from the first paragraph that requires additions research. The first paragraph doesn’t refer to the minority of humans who are left handed, the fact that studies like this one may someday yield insights into the causes of neurological disorders, or an additional study to examine handedness in other animals that sometimes stand upright.

34

Content: transitions

Choice C is the best answer. “Although these levels are impressive” provides the most effective transition from the previous sentence, which indicates the percent of surveyed companies that provide employees with tuition assistance, to the information that follows in this sentence, that even more companies should consider providing such assistance.

Choice A is incorrect because “despite these findings” suggests that regardless of the percentages, more companies should consider providing tuition assistance, which is illogical. Choice B is incorrect because the information that follows in the sentence isn’t additional to the 2014 study. Choice D is incorrect because the issue of whether companies want or don’t want to provide tuition assistance isn’t mentioned in the previous sentence.

35

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice D is the best answer. This choice most effectively establishes the main idea of the passage, which is that companies should offer tuition assistance because doing so helps attract and retain employees. This main idea is supported in the second paragraph, which argues that tuition assistance appeals to highly motivated and disciplined individuals, and in the third paragraph, which claims that employees receiving tuition assistance often stay with their employers even after they complete their degrees.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they don’t establish the passage’s main idea. The passage isn’t about increasing customer satisfaction, solving the problem of rising tuition costs, or strengthening the US economy.

36

Content: possession and possessive pronouns

Choice C is the best answer. The plural noun “workers” correctly indicates that companies have more than one worker. The plural noun “opportunities” indicates that employers offers workers multiple chances for personal and professional development.

Choices A and B are incorrect because the plural possessive nouns “workers’” and “opportunities” should be the plural nouns “workers” and “opportunities,” since nothing belongs to the workers or opportunities in the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because the singular noun “worker” and “opportunity” should be plural, and the apostrophes indicating possession aren’t needed.

37

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice B is the best answer. The main verb “stressed” provides a simple predicate for the subject “John Fox” to create a grammatically complete sentence.

Choices A and C are incorrect because “who stressed” and “stressing” leaving the sentence without an independent clause. Choice D is incorrect because although “he stressed” gives the sentence an independent clause, that clause is improperly joined by “and” to the phrases “John Fox” and “the director of dealer training at Fiat Chrysler Automobiles in the United States.”

38

Content: sentence combination

Choice C is the answer. This choice most effectively combines the sentences at the underlined portion because the pronoun “which” creates a relative clause (“which...workers”) that clearly and concisely describes “retain.”

Choice A is incorrect because “retention” repeats the idea of “retain,” which is already mentioned in the sentence. Choice B is incorrect because “retaining” repeats the idea of “retain,” and the pronoun “whom” repeats the idea of “employees.” Choice D is incorrect because the pronoun “that” doesn’t have a clear antecedent and therefore creates a vague sentence.

39

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice C is the best answer. The subordinate conjunction “because” begins the dependent clause “because their new qualifications give them opportunities for advancement within the company.” No punctuation is needed to separate this dependent clause from the independent clause that directly precedes it.

Choices A and D are incorrect because placing a period or semicolon after “degrees” results in a rhetorically ineffective sentence fragment. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the noun and subordinate conjunction. (Although colons can be used to introduce additional explanatory information in a sentence, they’re not typically used between a main clause and a dependent clause beginning with a subordinate conjunction such as “because.”)

40

Content: punctuation

Choice D is the best answer. The comma after “(UTC)” is paired correctly with the comma after “Lincoln” to set off grammatically nonessential information. The information between the commas, which describes who Valerie Lincoln is, could be removed and the sentence would still make sense.

Choice A is incorrect because a comma is needed after “(UTC)” to set off the grammatically nonessential phrase. Choices B and C are incorrect because neither a dash nor colon can be paired with a comma to set off grammatically nonessential information.

41

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice A is the best answer. The adjective “deep” is used idiomatically with “knowledge” to indicate that Lincoln possessed extensive, in-depth information about her industry.

Choice B is incorrect because “hidden” doesn’t make sense within the context of the sentence. A person whose knowledge is hidden wouldn’t be an asset to a company. Choices C and D are incorrect because “large” and “spacious” aren’t idiomatic when describing the extent of person’s knowledge.

42

Content: precision and concision

Choice D is the best answer. “Keeping down costs” clearly and concisely identifies what businesses have succeeded in doing.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they are redundant. In Choice A, the verbs “minimizing” and “keeping down” are synonyms, so only one is needed in the sentence. In Choice B, “employees’ coursework” isn’t needed because this phrase already appears in the sentence. In Choice C, “being effective” repeats the idea of “succeeded,” which appears earlier in the sentence.

43

Content: syntax

Choice A is the best answer. The infinitive “[to] divert” is grammatically correct when preceded by “are likely,” indicating that classes can redirect employees’ time and energy away from their jobs.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because “diverted,” “in diverting,” and “diversions for” create ungrammatical sentences.

44

Content: logical sequence

Choice D is the best answer. To make the passage most logical, the sentence should be placed after the last sentence of paragraph 4. The use of “still” in the inserted sentence indicates that a contrast to what was stated previously will follow. Paragraph 4 ends by stating that tuition reimbursement may not be appropriate in all cases, and the inserted sentence indicates that despite this fact, employers should give serious thought to investing in reimbursement programs. Moreover, the inserted sentence restates the passage’s main claim and, therefore, effectively concludes the passage.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because placing the sentence at the end of Paragraphs 1, 2, or 3 would result in an illogical passage.

1

Choice A is the best answer because the passage highlights the negative consequences of building a road into a previously hard-to-reach area. Although there was increased business for the store, there was more noise and pollution. The camps for workers led to the destruction of trees and resulting avalanches and other environmental problems.

Choice B is incorrect because the passage implies that the narrator’s relationship with his father became more strained over time. Choice C is incorrect because the passage is about physical rather than social change to the region. Choice D is incorrect because there is no indication that nature will recover from the problems it is experiencing due to development.

2

Choice B is the best answer because Paragraph 3 best captures Maneck’s puzzlement over his father’s attitude. He inquires why his father writes how much he misses Maneck in letters, but fights when Maneck is at home.

None of the other choices are supported by evidence from the passage. For Choice A, there is no reference to “relief” at having Maneck home, as father and son quarrel regularly. For Choice C, there is no mention of Maneck returning to school again, nor is there any mention of how his father feels about his son being away at school. For Choice D, there is no evidence showing how the father feels about the son; there is only information indicating that the son is confused about the father.

3

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Maneck feels his father is affectionate when Maneck is away but cold when Maneck is home. Choice C summarizes this perception in the form of a question, as Maneck asks his mother why his father is behaving in just such a way.

None of the other choices provides evidence supporting Maneck’s perception that his father is both affectionate when Maneck is away and cold when Maneck is home. Choices A and B only show that his father is irritable when Maneck is at home. Choice D indicates that Maneck feels his father is overreacting to the situation but does not suggest how the father reacts to Maneck.

4

Choice D is the best answer because the passage implies that Maneck is frustrated and confused by his father’s changes. On the other hand, the fourth paragraph shows that Maneck’s mother accepts that his father has changed, realizing the important point that the deep love is still there despite superficial appearances or behaviors.

Choice A is incorrect because in Paragraph 4, his mother directly confronts the problem of the father’s changes. Choice B is incorrect because the mother is not just trying to make Maneck feel better, she really believes that the father’s problem is more superficial because the inner love is still there. Choice C is incorrect because, if anything, the mother is less concerned because she knows that the problem does not have to do with a lack of love for Maneck.

5

Choice B is the best answer because the words are those used to describe military forces, but in the context, they apply to the actions of the workers building the road. The people of the village are trying to continue with their routines, but the presence of the workers surrounds them and permeates their lives. The words highlight the impression that the road is settling in for a siege around the village.

Choice A is incorrect because the villagers do not respond with force, only trepidation or dismay. Choice C is incorrect because the passage alludes to “increased business” for the store, implying that the effects are not all negative. Choice D is incorrect because, although things in the village cannot remain the same, the words are not ironic or mocking.

6

Choice A is the best answer because “stomach churning” clearly shows that the idea of change has a physical, tangible effect on Mr. Kohlah. An upset stomach is a sign of worry or concern.

All of the other choices refer to the changes around Mr. Kohlah, but they do not show that the changes were a matter of great concern to him.

7

Choice D is the best answer because Mr. Kohlah takes a “perverse satisfaction” (line 49) in the disasters and feels that they are a “vindication” (line 50) of his view. In other words, he feels that the abnormal weather is a sign that his interpretation of the situation was correct.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication that Mr. Kohlah feels that the new road will fail to function, only that he sharply feels the negative effects of building the road. Choice B is incorrect because there is no hint that Mr. Kohlah feels that his family will prosper; instead, he refers to the abnormal weather as matching what is happening to the town. Choice C is incorrect because Mr. Kohlah expects the trees to be cut down any day; the survival is only a fleeting reprieve from the inevitable.

8

Choice B is the best answer because the paragraph shows that Mr. Kohlah is living in fear of the things he loves being destroyed. Later, he starts to talk to the trees and rocks because he loves them and does not want them to vanish in the path of the development. Therefore, the paragraph functions to explain why Mr. Kohlah does things that others find strange.

Choice A is incorrect because the paragraph does not refer to Mr. Kohlah’s boyhood at all, only to daily changes in the story’s present. Choice C is incorrect because the passage does not show that Mr. Kohlah is hypocritical, only worried. The paragraph, if anything, indicates that his reactions are true rather than put on for show. Choice D is incorrect because the passage does not imply that the process will end. If anything, the paragraph emphasizes the transient nature of the things which still exist and hints that they will soon be destroyed by the development.

9

Choice C is the best answer because the words modify “uncertainty” of the walk and the “ambush” of seeing something he hoped was not destroyed. Therefore, the words serve to emphasize the pleasure of finding an unexpected piece of beauty when he kept thinking that the worst would happen.

Choice A is incorrect because the words are used in the context of Mr. Kohlah’s private walks, not in the context of walking with his family. Choice B is incorrect because the “crisis” of nature being destroyed is not averted or stopped completely; it is only put off for another day or two. Choice D is incorrect because, although Mr. Kohlah enjoys the signs of spring, the words are referring to the unexpected presence of things that made him happy.

10

Choice A is the best answer because the last paragraph shows that Maneck feels two very different emotions concerning his father: embarrassment and compassion. Maneck has conflicting emotions because it is hard to resolve being horrified by the gossip about his father and at the same time understanding of his father’s point of view.

Choice B is incorrect because Maneck, though embarrassed, feels like lashing out at people who do not understand his father and who are cruel to his father because of that. Therefore, he understands and supports his father’s view rather than just thinking that the view is wrong. Choice C is incorrect because Maneck is alternately ashamed and angry because of his father; there is no reference to seeing humor in the situation. Choice D is incorrect because the paragraph shows that Maneck wants to defend his father against the “insensitive” people who gossip. That implies that Maneck feels that his father’s view has merit and is not just “backwards” in his attitude.

11

Choice A is the best answer because the passage highlights the contributions of Blacks to America. In particular, Ellington uses glowing terms to highlight the military contributions, creative influences and push for true democracy.

Choice B is incorrect because Black music is only one of the contributions Ellington mentions; he does not focus on the history of the music. Choice C is incorrect because, although Ellington mentions inequities, he does not criticize the system as much as show how Blacks overcame obstacles in the system. Choice D is incorrect because the work of a poet is only used to support Ellington’s main point.

12

Choice B is the best answer because Ellington compares the silence in Europe to the babble in the US. He points out that many of the voices don’t make sense, but as a whole, it is a reassuring “powerful symphony” (lines 20-21) because it shows that Americans are not passive.

Choice A is incorrect because the chorus is not funny, it is strong. Choice C is incorrect because there is no mention of incorrectly using the power of speech. Choice D is incorrect because the silence of other nations is portrayed as tragic; the voice of the people in America is like a beacon in the dark.

13

Choice A is the best answer because the quote says basically that ideas are eliminated when people talk too much. Ellington uses this quote as a springboard to say that there is indeed a lot of talk, but that it is beneficial. He qualifies the quote by pointing out that each voice may not say much, but together they send a powerful signal.

Choice B is incorrect because the quote says that too much talk destroys the message. That point is opposite to Ellington’s claim that enough voices together can become loud enough for a message to be heard. Choice C is incorrect because the quote counters rather than supports the central claim. Choice D is incorrect because the quote does not refer to scope or nations.

14

Choice C is the best answer because Ellington refers to the voices as offering “the blustering half-truths, the lame and halting logic,” (lines 18-19), showing that he feels that the logic is flawed. However, he also points out that there are “painfully sincere convictions” (line 19), emphasizing that the logic, though flawed, is earnest.

Choice A is incorrect because, though the voices may be naïve, Ellington does not say that they are funny or ridiculous. Choice B is incorrect because he says that the voices will ultimately be heard when they are united. Choice D is incorrect because there is no reference to generosity, and Ellington hints that the voices are ultimately headed in the right direction of sending the message of solidarity.

15

Choice C is the best answer because the lines clearly say that the writer considers the poem good, but only encompasses half of the story; in other words, it is valuable but not the whole story.

None of the other choices supports the claim that Ellington considers the poem to be a valuable but incomplete portrayal. Choices A and B only refer to the content of the poem. Choice D says that Blacks have a large role in the poem, but there is no mention of what Ellington feels about the poem.

16

Choice A is the best answer because Paragraph 6 (lines 62-75) emphasize Black contributions to keeping Pilgrim values alive. Paragraph 7 (lines 76-85) further develop that idea by showing that Blacks are the “shot in the arm” that renewed America’s dedication to its founding principles when people grew complacent.

Choice B is incorrect because the contributions of other minority groups are not mentioned in the passage. Choice C is incorrect because there is no reference to extending Black contributions beyond the borders of America. Choice D is incorrect because organized labor is not described in the passage.

17

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Blacks contributed to a renewed commitment to America’s most important principles. Choice D points out that Blacks “re-created,” in other words, renewed, the “principles on which the country had been founded.”

Choice A does not refer to Black’s contributions at all; it only quotes a Persian poem. Choice B only mentions an “argument,” but does not provide any evidence of contributions. Choice C is incorrect because, although it refers to Black contributions, it does not refer to America’s most important principles.

18

Choice C is the best answer because Ellington says that Blacks are the personification of the ideal of the Pilgrims because they underwent many challenges and yet still managed to keep America headed to the goal of democracy. Therefore, the most apt comparison is in the persistence and hopefulness that the goal could be reached despite all adversity.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no reference to Pilgrims being unique or creative, though the Blacks are portrayed that way. Choice B is incorrect because, although Blacks underwent privation, there is no indication that the Pilgrims did. Choice D is incorrect because neither group is depicted as tolerant; Blacks, in particular, are described as resisting and complaining.

19

Choice B is the best answer because “thin” is used to depict the “panicky quaver” of the almost-vanished voice that spoke for democracy. Since Choice B means “lacking power,” it fits the context of a voice that is almost drowned out by adversity.

None of the other choices fits the context of a voice that is hard to hear. Choice A refers to being physically narrow. Choice C means “scattered far apart.” Choice D means “delicate.”

20

Choice D is the best answer because the analogy of an injection is used to show how Blacks added life to the country when it was weak in the way that a medical injection provides a cure for a problem. Therefore, the imagery emphasizes that without Blacks, the country would become sick and decline even more.

Choice A is incorrect because Ellington does not refer to the sacrifices of individuals; he only generalizes about groups. Choice B is incorrect because the analogy does not imply that the average American is in robust health; he points out that the shot was given when people were fat and lazy and forgetting the principles of America. Although Ellington does point out that America went through periods of corruption, the image of a shot highlights the cure rather than the problem.

21

Choice C is the best answer because the passage focuses not only on the fish protected in marine reserves but analyzes the effects of the reserves on the surrounding fisheries. The studies look at both short-and long-term effects, as the studies monitor biomass and catches over a period of several years.

Choice A is incorrect because the studies show that there is ongoing benefit to surrounding fisheries, not just short-term relief. Choice B is incorrect because the passage is informative rather than argumentative; it is not trying to persuade anyone to take a course of action. Choice D is incorrect because the passage uses the Caribbean and Philippine examples to support the claim that there are benefits from marine reserves rather than to contrast differing results.

22

Choice A is the best answer because line 12 takes as given that marine reserves “contain more and larger fish.”

Choice B is incorrect because there are no references to the nature of fish eggs. Choice C is incorrect because the life expectancy of fish is not discussed. Choice D is incorrect because the passage suggests that more fish migrate out of reserves but does not mention inward migration.

23

Choice B is the best answer because the authors use biomass caught, or amount of fish caught, as a measure of success. The passage indicates that a greater population of fish in the fishing grounds makes it more productive, or more “enhanced.”

Choice A is incorrect because the fisheries are utilized for fishing, so they are not “unspoiled.” Choice B is incorrect because there is no discussion about the relationship between different commercial fishers. Choice D is incorrect because the demand for fish is not touched upon, only the availability of fish.

24

Choice D is the best answer because according to lines 31-32, catches increased when fishing in the reserve was closed after a period of being open.

Choice A is incorrect because after fishing was prohibited, overall catch rates increased. Choice B is incorrect because the catch rates fluctuated with changes in whether fishing were allowed in the reserve or not, not with the length of time the reserve was in place. Choice C is incorrect because when the reserve was reopened, fisheries reported decreases.

25

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that when fishing in the reserve was halted after having been temporarily permitted, catches in nearby fisheries increased. Choice D directly says that catches rose after “compliance,” which refers to enforcing the ban on fishing in the reserve.

Choices A and B do not relate to the specific case of the reserve being re-closed after a period of allowing fishing. Choice C describes the situation after the reserve was opened to fishing, but not after it was again closed.

26

Choice B is the best answer because the passage is referring to the situation in which marine reserves were closed to fishing, so people who used to fish in those areas were forced to fish elsewhere. Even though that was the case, the overall biomass of fish caught was higher.

Choice A is incorrect because the type of trap is not discussed in context with “a redirection of fishing effort.” Choice C is incorrect because the total biomass, not just the mass of one species, is discussed in the paragraph. Choice D is incorrect because there is no reference to when fishing is acceptable, only to where fishing is acceptable.

27

Choice D is the best answer because it refers to Hurricane Lenny, which indicates that the researchers took weather events such as hurricanes into account when analyzing the data.

None of the other choices indicates whether weather was considered as a factor. Choice A describes the area of the reserve. Choice B describes why the reserve was formed. Choice C refers to the fish populations.

28

Choice C is the best answer because the information from the local fishermen indicates that the population thinks that the reserves are beneficial. The fishermen’s claims are not scientific, but they strengthen the idea that the results are perceptible enough that the fishermen can easily detect a difference.

Choice A is incorrect because, while the information shows that the reserve is beneficial to the fishermen, there is no reason that the study itself is beneficial to them. Choice B is incorrect because the analysis of the data was scientific and based on fact; the anecdotes are separate from the interpretation of the data. Choice D is incorrect because the anecdotes agree with the analysis of data from the study.

29

Choice C is the best answer because the biomass of commercial fish is given as a solid line on the graph. The highest point is in 1998, at between 4.0 and 4.5 kilograms per visual consensus.

All of the other choices are incorrect because they are not supported by data from the graph. All of the choices correspond to points lower than 4.0 to 4.5 kilograms per visual consensus.

30

Choice A is the best answer because Figure 2 only has data from 1995-1996 and 2000-2001. By contrast, the data from Figure 1 includes data for every year from 1995-2000.

Choice B is incorrect because Figure 2 compares two methods of trapping fish, whereas Figure 1 takes data from a visual consensus. Choice C is incorrect because Figure 2 is not based on a visual consensus at all. Choice D is incorrect because the data in both figures refers to all species collected in traps or observed, not only to commercial ones.

31

Choice C is the best answer because lines 52-54 of the passage refer to the author’s speculation that Hurricane Lenny was the cause of the change in biomass. Figure 1 also shows a decline in biomass for both reserves and fishing grounds between 1998 and 2000. Hurricane Lenny is labeled on the graph in the middle of that decline, around 1999.

Choice A is incorrect because, although the graph indicates that the reserve had lower biomass, the authors do not mention that point. Choice B is incorrect because the passage refers to the biomass of the most important commercial fish increasing threefold; the chart, on the other hand, only describes combined biomass of all fish. In addition, the biomass reported for the adjacent fishing grounds rose from about 2.25 to 4.5, which is closer to “doubled” than “tripled,” so it cannot be extrapolated that all of the fish populations grew at the same rate. Choice D is incorrect because line 45 points out that there was a “rapid impact” and the figure shows an increase in the first year, so there is no evidence that biomass remained "static" or "the same."

32

Choice B is the best answer because the passage starts by presenting data which says that authors use more negative words ten years after times of economic downturn than after strong economic times. After giving the study results, the passage changes focus to question why those results might occur, offering a variety of possible reasons for the delay in response times.

Choice A is incorrect because the passage’s hypothesis is that writers use more negative words during times of economic hardship, and nothing in the passage disputes that claim. Choice C is incorrect because, while the passage starts with a discussion of scientific findings, it continues to offer more information that supports the findings (such as a comparable study in German) rather than questions their accuracy. Choice D is incorrect because the passage indicates that from the start, the study was comprehensive in analyzing English from a wide variety of sources and regions.

33

Choice A is the best answer because the passage presents the results of a study that show that writers use more sad words after periods of economic hardship. It then delves into reasons why this might be true.

Choice B is incorrect because the situation of the publishing industry is not discussed, only the content of books published. Choice C is incorrect because, while Choice C is a detail mentioned in the passage, it is only a supporting hypothesis to explain the connection between literary and economic misery. Choice D is incorrect because the passage points out that the trend of literary misery following economic misery is universal in English-speaking countries.

34

Choice D is the best answer because “trace” is used to refer to any piece of evidence of our society once the society is gone. Since Choice D refers to a part left after the whole of something is destroyed, it fits the context of a piece of evidence of our civilization after the civilization is destroyed.

None of the other choices fits the context as well. Choice A refers to a repeated series of things rather than one small part that remains. Choice B refers to a route or way. Choice C refers to a drawing or outline.

35

Choice D is the best answer because the writers decided to check their study results by analyzing texts in German. The reason was to determine if the connection “was a coincidence” (line 61). Therefore, the writers probably felt that by only analyzing documents in one language, there might have been errors in the interpretation of the data.

There is no evidence from the passage to support any of the other answer choices. The writers do not mention that there might have been less valid results due to words with positive connections, a study of only four words, or texts about economics.

36

Choice D is the best answer because the lines say that the writers were concerned that there may have been a coincidence, in other words, less valid responses, if texts in different languages did not show similar results. This evidence directly supports the answer to the previous question, which is that the author implies that the conclusions would have been less valid if the study was made up of texts written in a single language.

Choices A and B only describe the results of the study, not points which might alter its validity. Choice C provides a hypothesis for why the results are true rather than questioning whether there is anything wrong with the methodology.

37

Choice A is the best answer because lines 65-69 anticipate the complaint that the results are self-evident by saying that the correlation is not a surprise. After dismissing that argument, the writer emphasizes the important points of the study.

Choice B is incorrect because there is no hint that the methodology is outdated; if anything, the study appears to use very modern tools for its analyses of the texts. Choice C is incorrect because the writer does not say that there is no real-world application; the study helps understand that all people have shared emotional experiences. Choice D is incorrect because the study was conducted using a huge volume of material; the authors do not anticipate any objection to this point.

38

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the author anticipates the objection that the study results seem self-evident. Choice C uses the transition “of course” to introduce just such an argument.

Choice A discusses the methodology of the study rather than anticipating the point that the results are obvious. Choice B explains a result of the study and Choice D concludes the passage with a quote, but neither address the idea that the results are self-evident.

39

Choice D is the best answer because the final paragraph starts by saying that the results are probably somewhat self-evident. It then emphasizes that the value of the study was to show that the results were consistent and easy to see, despite coming from different cultures. Therefore, the final paragraph is used to show that there is a “shared emotional experience” (line 75) that bridges cultures.

Choice A is incorrect because the paragraph notes that it is amazing that the trend of literary misery was easy to spot despite the various background “noise.” Choice B is incorrect because there is no alternate solution offered, only a summary of the information already given. Choice C is incorrect because the final paragraph stresses the universal nature of the results, implying that the results were sufficiently conclusive.

40

Choice A is the best answer because the passage is referring to a trend that could be spotted through all the “noise” of personal circumstances. In the context, “noise” therefore means all of the parts of the text that are not relevant to the trend of economic misery.

Choice B is incorrect because it is a specific kind of interference involving electricity, so is not relevant in the context of describing a book’s text. Choice C is incorrect because the author’s choice of words is not necessarily casual or accidental; it could be carefully selected to convey his or her literary point. Choice D is incorrect because the writer is not necessarily paying attention to the misery level of his or her work.

41

Choice C is the best answer because in the graph, the economic misery index is depicted with a solid line and the literary misery index with a dotted line. The biggest difference between these two lines is found around 1934, when the economic line is at 25 and the literary misery line is at about 7, a difference of just under 20 points.

All of the other choices are incorrect because the differences between lines are much lower than 20 points for the given years.

42

Choice B is the best answer because in 1982, both the literary and economic misery indices were both about 15 points. The lines cross at about 1982.

Choice A is incorrect because the lines cross several times over the period, showing rises and falls that are not at consistent paces. Choice C is incorrect because the economic misery line is indicated by the solid line, and points range between about 4 in 1953 to 20 in 1980. Choice D is incorrect because the lowest level for the economic misery line is about 4 in 1953.

43

Choice A is the best answer because in the context, “sense” is being used as a verb to describe the ability to detect variations in CO2. Since Choice A means “detect,” it is the closest definition of “sense.”

None of the other choices fits the context as well. Choice B means to comprehend the significance of something, but the passage is only referring to whether the moth can tell what the CO2 level is. Choice C means to assume that something will happen. Choice D means to physically handle.

44

Choice C is the best answer because in Passage 1, it says that the LPO size is the same for male and female M. sexta, implying that there is no difference in the way that the genders use the information gained from the organ.

Choice A is incorrect because Passage 1 does not discuss how females decide on oviposition sites. Choice B is incorrect because, although the passage implies that the nectar is associated with high CO2 levels, that is not the reason that the LPO are the same size. Choice D is incorrect because the comparison in size between male and female M. sexta has nothing to do with the relative size of LPO in other species.

45

Choice A is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the relative size of their LPO suggests that both genders of Manduca sexta make comparable uses of information provided by variations in ambient CO2. Choice A supports that statement because it says that information from the LPO could be “similarly important” for both sexes.

Choice B suggests reasons for the LPO other than helping select oviposition sites but does not say that the male and female have the same reason. Choices C and D relate to feeding, but do not suggest that the males and females use the LPO in the same way.

46

Choice B is the best answer because in the context, “elaborate” refers to the nature of a body organ. Choice B means “advanced,” which accurately describes an organ that is larger and more capable of determining variations related to feeding.

Choices A and D are incorrect because they refer to outward appearance rather than capabilities. Choice C is used to describe the action of being precise or careful.

47

Choice B is the best answer because the information about D. wrightii indicates that the plant releases huge amounts of CO2 when it blooms. The passage also says that the moth is the primary pollinator of the plant. Therefore, the description of the plant’s blooming habits helps explain why the experiment was set up with fake flowers with various CO2 levels.

Choice A is incorrect because, given the nature of D. wrightii, the experiment could just as well have been conducted with real flowers. Choice C is incorrect because the nature of the flower does not indicate why Govret’s study was better than the previous one was; the construction of the experiment did not revolve around the nature of D. wrightii. Choice D is incorrect because the nature of the flower helps explain the behaviors observed in the experiment.

48

Choice C is the best answer because the passage implies that the experiment failed to produce the expected results until a change was made in the experiment. Choice C offers the change—one which is related to an omission in the original design—that made the females’ reactions conform to expectations. The experiment needed leaf material as well as flower material to work.

Choice A describes the unexpected behavior but does not say that a design flaw caused it. Choice B provides the background, but the quoted portion does not indicate that the experiment needed to be changed. Choice D gives a conclusion derived once the experiment was revised.

49

Choice B is the best answer because Passage 1 refers to the fact that M. sexta does not seem to use the LPO for selecting oviposition sites, so hypothesizes why it has such a developed LPO in both males and females. Passage 2, on the other hand, discusses experiment results which give a better clue about how the insects use the organs to find food as well as oviposition sites.

Choice A is incorrect because the passages do not dwell on how CO2 is detected; Passage 1 points out that the LPO performs the role, and Passage 2 takes it as a given that the differences can be detected. Choice C is incorrect because the passages delve into the effects of CO2 on the moth behavior rather than the other way around. Choice D is incorrect because neither passage delves into whether M.sexta is more sensitive than other moths.

50

Choice C is the best answer because Passage 1 says that C. cactorum uses CO2 concentration to find oviposition sites but wonders why male M. sexta have developed LPO organs. Passage 2 fills in the missing information by saying that both male and female M. sexta use CO2 to determine food sources, and the female selects the best food sources as places to lay the eggs.

Choice A is incorrect because the passages do not indicate that the males of either species have a stronger attraction to CO2 than females; the implication is that female C. cactorum are more sensitive because they have larger LPO and need them for finding oviposition sites. Choice B is incorrect because Passage 1 does not delve into zigzag tracking behavior. Choice D is incorrect because Passage 1 implies that the LPO only responds to CO2 levels, and Passage 2 does not describe the LPO.

51

Choice D is the best answer because Passage 1 implies that the male and female LPO are the same. Therefore, the unusual experiment results could not be caused by LPOs that are different.

Choice A is incorrect because Passage 1 does not indicate that the male and female moths naturally would behave in ways other than demonstrated in the experiment. Choice B is incorrect because the experiments described in Passage 1 show that females of other moth species have a higher sensitivity, not lower, to CO2 levels. Choice C is incorrect because Passage 1 does not delve into floral scents nor into anything else that hinders CO2 perception.

52

Choice D is the best answer because the last sentence in Passage 1 says that the moths use CO2 to detect nectar sources. Passage 2 says that the moths, when identifying a nectar source, use flower-probing behavior. However, the moths in Passage 2 probed when scent was present but not when only CO2 was present. Therefore, there must be another explanation than CO2 to describe the flower-probing behavior.

All of the other choices are consistent with the information give in Passage 1, so would not need further explanation. Choice A is consistent because males and females eat food, so both would be attracted by CO2. Choice B does not need explaining because the females can lay their eggs wherever they want if the CO2 is only related to obtaining food. Choice C is consistent because the zigzag behavior may not be needed if the moth can detect the CO2 and nectar without it.

1

Content: transitions

Choice B is the best answer because it is used to highlight a contrast. A contrast fits the context in which the preceding portion describes one use of the theremin, but the following portion states the opposite idea that such a use was not the originally intended use of the instrument.

None of the other choices adequately signals the relationship between the contrasting parts of the passage. Choices A and C are used to clarify or give a specific case that illustrates a previous statement. Choice D is used to show that something happens in spite of the previous information rather than vice versa.

2

Content: precision and concision

Choice D is the best answer because it concisely expresses all the necessary information. It is clear that traditional instruments were to be replaced by the theremin.

All of the other choices can be eliminated as redundant. “substitute” means “to replace,” so both ideas are not needed within the same sentence.

3

Content: subject-verb agreement

Choice C is the best answer because the underlined portion is referring to the singular subject of the sentence, “the theremin.” “Is” in the first half of the sentence is an additional clue that the subject is singular. Choice C agrees because it has both a singular subject and verb.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they are plural, whereas the subject of the sentence is singular.

4

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice D is the best answer because it turns the second half into a modifier describing the two antennae.

Choice A is incorrect because “which” should be followed by an active verb because it acts as the subject of a clause, but “emitting” does not fulfill that function. Choices B and C are incorrect because they create a comma splice joining two independent clauses.

5

Content: logical sequence

Choice D is the best answer because the added sentence refers to the shape of the two antennae. This idea fits best after the first reference to the antennae in sentence 4.

All of the other choices interrupt the logical flow of the passage because they provide information about the antennae before the idea of antennae is even mentioned.

6

Content: logical comparison

Choice D is the best answer because it completes the description of the sounds of the theremin in the most parallel fashion. The first half of the sentence begins the comparison with “sounds similar to those of a violin.” The “much harsher” noises that it makes are therefore best described as “those of a saw.”

Choices A and B are incorrect because they illogically compare sounds to an actual saw rather than to the sounds made by a saw. Choice C is incorrect because “much harsher as” is not standard usage.

7

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice A is the best answer because it means “put forward for consideration,” which fits the context in which the composer put forward the idea to Hitchcock that the theremin might be perfect for expressing anxiety.

None of the other choices fits the context as well. Choices B and C refer to giving very slight clues about a topic rather than just discussing a potential idea. Choice D is incorrect because “to determine to” is not followed by a person, it is followed by an action that the subject decides to do.

8

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice C is the best answer because the following sentence states that the theremin was associated with suspense by the time that the movie won an award. This idea is best introduced by Choice C’s statement that the sound became associated with thrillers.

None of the other choices adequately sets up the idea that the instrument is associated with thriller movies. Choice A refers to the soundtrack still being popular but does not express why. Choices B and D describe Hitchcock’s desire to experiment, but do not associate thrillers with the theremin’s sound.

9

Content: tense, mood, and voice

Choice A is the best answer because it is used to show that an action occurred before another action in the past. This usage fits the context of describing the association of the theremin with the idea of suspense coming before the act of the movie winning the Academy Award.

None of the other choices accurately establish the time sequence of events in the sentence. Choice B is used with future tense actions, and Choice C for present tense actions, but the winning of the award and association of the theremin with suspense occurred in the past. Choice D is incorrect because, although it is used for emphasis of a past action, it does not indicate that the act of associating the theremin with the idea of suspense preceded the act of winning the award.

10

Content: punctuation

Choice C is the best answer because as it is used in the sentence, “The Big Bang Theory” acts as an appositive renaming a specific noun, “the popular television show.” Appositives should be divided from the nouns they refer to with commas.

Choice A is incorrect because “the popular television show” is specific as “the” refers to one show, and the following “The Big Bang Theory” is the name of that show. Two nouns renaming the same thing need to be separated by a comma. Choice B is incorrect because a semicolon needs to be followed by an independent clause. Choice D is incorrect because a colon is used to add more explanation about the preceding statement or complete idea, not only about the final noun.

11

Content: addition and deletion

Choice C is the best answer because the paragraph is about the sound of the theremin and refers to different ways in which the sound is used. The added sentence, however, refers to the production of the instrument and does not describe sound at all. Therefore, the added sentence is not relevant to the discussion of the paragraph and should not be added.

Choices A and B are incorrect because the sentence should not be added to the paragraph. It does not relate to the information that follows, nor does it transition from the previous idea about shows that used the sound of the instrument. Choice D is incorrect because the information in the added sentence is not mentioned anywhere else in the passage.

12

Content: tense, mood, and voice

Choice D is the best answer. The best fit should be “has been” because “from then on” indicates that an action of calling Pluto a dwarf planet started at a specific point in the past and is still happening. The present perfect progressive tense is used to describe an action that started in the past and continues into the present and possibly into the future. However, there is no “has been” in the answer choices. As a result, only D would fit because it shows that starting in the past, an action occurred.

Choice A is incorrect because the present tense is not used to refer to something that happened in the past. Choice B is not an active verb. Choice C refers to an action that ended in the past, but the action of calling Pluto a dwarf planet still occurs.

13

Content: sentence combination

Choice D is the best answer because “and” effectively combines the two sentences. The common subject “planet” performs the actions of both sentences, lacking a definition and referring to any object in orbit. Therefore, the subject does not have to be repeated.

Choice A is incorrect because the passive tense changes the original meaning so that planet is no longer the subject. Choice B is incorrect because it is overly wordy. The pronoun is not needed and “but” has the same basic meaning as “instead” in the context. Choice C turns the second sentence into a reason for the first sentence rather than a second statement about planets.

14

Content: transitions

Choice A is the best answer because the following sentence says that Pluto was considered a planet “in this sense,” which means “using this definition.” Choice A offers the best reference for that phrase because it provides the definition that planets had orbits around the Sun.

None of the other choices gives a logical reference for the definition used when calling Pluto a planet. Choice B only gives specific examples of planets. Choice C highlights differences between Pluto and other planets. Choice D does not refer to Pluto at all.

15

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice B is the best answer because a colon shows that “it was…Sun” is added information that explains a point made in the main clause. The main clause says that Pluto was called a planet in the sense that planets had orbits around the Sun, so the following information clarifies how Pluto fit the definition because it clarifies that Pluto orbits around the Sun.

Choice A is incorrect because it is a run-on between two independent clauses. Choice C is a comma splice. Choice D is incorrect because, although a semicolon can be used to divide two independent clauses, the subject “it” should not be divided from its verb “was” using a comma.

16

Content: possession and possessive pronouns

Choice B is the best answer because “dozens” and “hundreds” are numbers. They explain how many objects are in the Kuiper Belt.

All of the other choices are incorrect because either or both of “dozens” and “hundreds” contain an apostrophe of possession. However, the numbers do not own anything, so no apostrophes are needed.

17

Content: syntax

Choice C is the best answer because it concisely and clearly makes the writer’s point. The portion before the colon is a clause that explains what the committee had to do: address a point. The section after the colon expands on that idea by offering the point that needed to be addressed.

Choice A is overly wordy and ambiguous. Since there is a comma before “which,” the following portion seems to refer to the closest noun, “planets,” rather than “the issue.” Choice B is also awkward because “what it is” could refer to the factors that define a planet, but it could also refer to what group should be allowed to define a planet. The committee needed to address that specific “what” rather than the question or issue surrounding it. Choice D is incorrect because “them” seems to refer to the subject of the sentence, “they.”

18

Content: logical sequence

Choice C is the best answer because sentence 2 includes “this object.” The most logical referent is the Kuiper Belt object 2003 UB313 described in sentence 3.

All of the other choices interrupt the logical flow of the passage. Choices A and B offer no referent for “this object.” Choice D uses the name “Eris” to describe the object, but that should follow sentence 2’s introduction of that name.

19

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice A is the best answer because “adopt” means to accept or use something, which fits the context of using a 3-part definition of a planet. “To vote to” is standard usage and should be followed by an infinitive verb.

Choices B and C are incorrect because “adapt” means “to change.” However, the passage makes it clear that there was previously no definition of planet to change; the new definition was created or accepted. Choices C and D are incorrect because “too” means “excessively,” which is not used to show the result of a vote.

20

Content: punctuation

Choice A is the best answer because the underlined portion is the end of the first item in a list. Items in a list only need to be separated by commas, and “and” precedes the final item of the list. Choice A follows this standard usage.

Choices B and C are incorrect because only the final item in the list needs to be preceded by the equivalent of “and.” Choice C is also incorrect because a semicolon is not consistent with the punctuation given after part (b). Choice D is incorrect because it changes the meaning so that the Sun, not a planet, is the object that fulfills requirements (b) and (c).

21

Content: addition and deletion

Choice D is the best answer because the passage is about Pluto’s change from being a planet, so the definition of a planet is key. It can be assumed that Pluto fits the requirements for “dwarf planet” because that is what it now is considered. The added information obscures the point by bringing up a small detail about dwarf planets rather than emphasizing how Pluto fails to be a planet.

Choices A and B can be eliminated because the added sentence distracts from the point of the passage. It does not show how the Kuiper Belt formed, nor does it relate to people’s reaction to the reclassification as described in the following paragraph. Choice C is incorrect because the fact that there are moons does not show why people agreed to call Pluto a dwarf planet.

22

Content: transitions

Choice B is the best answer because it is used to highlight a contrast. The previous information explains that many people were upset by the reclassification. The following information explains that, despite being upset, people learned an important point. Therefore, Choice B effectively signals a change in tone.

None of the other choices establishes the relationship between the parts of the paragraph. Choice A means that something is appropriate or a result, but learning an important point about planets is not a logical result of being upset about a reclassification. Choice C is used to add more details in the same tone. Choice D is used to paraphrase the previous idea.

23

Content: precision and concision

Choice B is the best answer because it concisely provides all of the necessary information.

All of the other choices can be eliminated as redundant. Choice A repeats the idea of “face” in “encounter, so “that is to say…” is unnecessary. Choice C repeats the idea of “challenges” using the word “difficulties.” Choice D needlessly includes “for this reason,” which is understandable from the grammatical structure.

24

Content: transitions

Choice D is the best answer because the previous sentence describes a problem, finding volunteers. The following sentence offers a solution, SBV. Choice D clearly introduces the new idea by showing that the following information is a solution to the problem.

Choice A is incorrect because “still engage” erroneously implies that the people can volunteer despite the problem, rather than that volunteering solves the problem. Choices B and C incorrectly make SBV appear to be an example or part of the previously-described problem rather than a solution.

25

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice D is the best answer because it turns “while building…skills” into an action that occurs simultaneously with the action of helping non-profits.

Choice A is incorrect because if “build” appears to be a second of two verbs performed by the volunteers, but if that is the case, it needs to be joined by “and.” A comma would only be used if there were three or more verbs in a series. Choice B is incorrect because it is a comma splice between two independent clauses. Choice C illogically turns the goal of the charitable mission into building professional skills.

26

Content: sentence combination

Choice C is the best answer because it maintains the original meaning of the sentences: SBV is the agent that matches the people with talents non-profits that need help.

All of the other choices alter the intended meaning of the sentences. Choice A implies that the people are matched to both SBV and to non-profits. Choice B implies that SBV is a “relevant area” that needs help. Plus, B indicates that the non-profits are matched with talent rather than with volunteers. Choice D seems to mean that SBV is one of the relevant areas of talent.

27

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice D is the best answer because “whereas…donations” is a long subordinate clause followed by a comma, so the following portion should start with a subject because it is the main clause of the sentence.

Choice A is incorrect because “and” subordinates the following portion, leaving the sentence with two dependent clauses and no main clause. Choices B and C are incorrect because “whereas…donations” is not an independent clause, so it cannot stand on its own as a sentence or be followed by a semicolon.

28

Content: punctuation

Choice B is the best answer because “volunteering…companies” is an aside that provides more information about the previous noun, “a team…managers.” Such added information should be divided from the main clause with the same punctuation at the start and finish. As “managers” is followed by a dash, “companies” should also be followed by one.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they do not have consistent punctuation with the dash at the start of the added idea.

29

Content: subject-verb agreement

Choice C is the best answer because the underlined portion is an action performed by the subject of the sentence, the plural “some businesses.” Choice C agrees because it is also plural.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they are singular verbs, so do not agree with the plural subject, “some businesses.” Although “Safeco” is singular, it is only part of a modifier adding more information to describe the subject.

30

Content: graphics

Choice C is the best answer because the claim made earlier in the sentence is that there is “compelling evidence” that companies should offer SBV opportunities. Choice C gives just such a compelling reason: an overwhelming percentage of managers think that employees who participate have better business skills, which would presumably in turn benefit the companies.

None of the other choices reports the information in the tables correctly. Choice A is incorrect because 10% neither agreed or disagreed, Choice B is incorrect because 0% disagreed. Choice D is incorrect because 91% agreed with the statement that SBV contributes to business skills.

31

Content: graphics

Choice A is the best answer because for both surveys, the results for “strongly or somewhat disagree” are 0%.

Choice B is incorrect because “had no opinion” would match the column for “neither agree nor disagree,” which has positive values for both questions. Choices C and D are incorrect because for both survey questions, the column for “strongly or somewhat agreed” is 90% or greater.

32

Content: tense, mood, and voice

Choice C is the best answer because the “if” part of a present conditional sentence should be in the simple present tense. Only the result is given in the future tense.

None of the other choices are standard usage when giving a hypothetical situation using “if.” The condition should be in the simple present tense.

33

Content: transitions

Choice B is the best answer because the information provided earlier in the paragraph is that poorly matched volunteers don’t provide effective service. The following information points out the benefits of a good SBV match. Since Choice B qualifies that those benefits only occur when there is a good match, it provides an effective transition between bad and good matches.

Choice A is incorrect because the passage describes actual rather than theoretical results, so saying that they are “abstract,” or “theoretical,” weakens the following claim that there are real benefits to the program. Choices B and C are incorrect because they introduce points which are not brought up anywhere else in the passage. Therefore, they distract with new information rather than join the existing ideas.

34

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice D is the best answer because it turns the following portion into an appositive which renames the receding noun, “Universal Declaration of Human Rights.”

Choice A is incorrect because “would represent” is verb of a clause, but “in” turns the following portion into a prepositional phrase. The two grammatical elements do not function together. Choice B is incorrect because it is a comma splice. Choice C is incorrect because it is a noun, so functions as an appositive. However, it does not rename the preceding noun, as it changes from the document to the document’s “representation.”

35

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice C is the best answer because it is used to show that all persons involved in a vote agree on a point. This word fits the context that the commission all agreed about who should be the chair of the committee.

None of the other choices are as suitable in the context. Choice A means “in all cases,” but is not used to describe a vote made by a specific, limited group of people. Choice B means “logically,” and although Roosevelt might have been a logical choice, the word does not convey the idea that everyone on the committee agreed. Choice D is used to describe a substance that has consistent parts.

36

Content: subject-verb agreement

Choice C is the best answer because the subject of the sentence is “achieving consensus.” Although the phrase includes plural words, a gerund used as a subject is considered singular. Therefore, it agrees with the singular verb “was” and singular noun “challenge” in Choice C.

The other choices are all incorrect because “challenges” is plural, so cannot be used to refer to the singular “achieving.” In addition, Choice A is incorrect because “were” is plural, so does not agree.

37

Content: logical comparisons

Choice B is the best answer because the underlined portion establishes a comparison using “more,” and both parts of the comparison should have the same grammatical structure. The first half of the comparison is “common interests,” so only “than” is needed to set up the comparison with “individual ones,” in which “ones” means “interests.”

Choices A and C are incorrect because they erroneously include an unnamed possession of “individual interests” in comparison with the interests themselves. Choice D is incorrect because “more” is paired with “than” in comparisons; Choice D is not standard usage.

38

Content: transitions

Choice B is the best answer because the previous sentence says that differences made debates last longer. Choice B is used to introduce a specific case as evidence. That fits the context of introducing the case of how points of freedom of speech were contested and made the debates last longer.

None of the other choices effectively shows the relationship between the parts of the paragraph. Choice A is incorrect because it is used to introduce a contrasting point rather than a specific case. Choice C is used to show that something happens in spite of something else. Choice D is used to introduce a different matter in the same tone rather than offer evidence to support the previous statement.

39

Content: syntax

Choice D is the best answer because it correctly uses “on whether…” to give the topic of the disagreement. Since the statement is only describing a point of contention, a period is needed at the end.

Choice A is incorrect because the sentence is not a question, it is a statement describing a disagreement, so should not end with a question mark. Choice B is incorrect because, although the underlined portion could be divided into two sentences, the second part is a question starting with “should,” so needs to end with a question mark. Choice C is incorrect because it is a comma splice.

40

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice D is the best answer because the paragraph describes ways that Roosevelt tried to make the drafting process work smoother: she changed the number of members and she selected language that would help overcome differences between viewpoints.

Choice A is incorrect because the paragraph does not delve into how the UN would make changes, it deals with writing an acceptable document. Choice B is incorrect because the passage points out that legal reference in the paragraph is only about what wording to use in the document; the paragraph already establishes that it is not legally binding. Choice C is incorrect because the paragraph does not deal with arguments to cover in the document; it only covers technical details to resolve about how to write the document.

41

Content: words in context and conventional expressions

Choice A is the best answer because it means “a great difference,” so fits the context of trying to address the problem of the huge difference in opinion about what language to use: extremely detailed and complex or extremely broad and simple.

None of the other choices fits the context of describing the range of viewpoints. Choices B and C refer to ending or spreading out, but the viewpoints still existed among committee members. Choice D refers to being out of balance with something else, but passage is referring not to the number or weight of viewpoints, but to the range of opinions expressed by them.

42

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice B is the best answer because the following point is that the wording should be such that people of all nations, no matter what their differences, could follow it.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no reference to a legal or binding nature of the document, only to the fact that it needs to fit many different situations. Choice C is incorrect because, although broad, simple language could be readily understood, the following information is about a document that can apply to different situations, not to one that can be understood by average people. Choice D is incorrect because, although the goal was to raise standards for others, that point is not made in the following argument.

43

Content: fragments and run-ons

Choice A is the best answer because a dash effectively turns the following portion into an aside that provides more information about the main clause.

Choices B and D are incorrect because a semicolon or period is used to divide two independent clauses, but the following portion cannot stand on its own. Choice C is incorrect because it is a comma splice between two independent clauses.

44

Content: introductions and conclusions

Choice B is the best answer because the previous sentence describes that the document is only “a first step.” This idea is supported by the quote, which basically says that if no more steps are taken, then the situation will regress.

None of the other choices supports the idea that the document is only one step of many. They only express the importance of the cause or of the document, but do not stress that the task is unfinished.

1

Choice A is the best answer because the passage shows that the boys get increasing freedom to roam starting with the first sentence, which says that they could leave the house when they were old enough and progressing to leaving the enclave (lines 11-12).

There is no evidence in the passage to support any of the other choices. For Choice B, there is no reference to chores. Lines 3-4 contradict Choice C, because they indicate that the boys were not supposed to venture on their own. Choice D is incorrect because the boys watch, but do not participate in, the film industry activity.

2

Choice D is the best answer because lines 27-28 provide a vivid analogy of a “day’s work” contrasted with a “moment’s entertainment.”

Choice A is incorrect because the film shoot is not portrayed as calm; it is full of action. Choice B is incorrect because there is no contrast drawn between the level of skill of various parts of the production. Choice C is incorrect because the filmmakers are not portrayed as oblivious; sometimes they invite the boys in to watch the filming.

3

Choice A is the best answer because it shows that the boys answered no matter what name they were called, showing that they assumed that people did not know the difference between them.

All of the other choices show that the boys are hard to tell apart but do not provide evidence that they boys accepted the fact that others could not tell them apart.

4

Choice C is the best answer because the fact that the boys could use the same clothes supports the idea that they were hard to tell apart. They were the same general size and build if the clothes fit both of them.

Choice A is incorrect because the passage indicates that the boys think they are very different emotionally, even though others think they look similar. Therefore, the idea of similarity in clothes sizes does not reflect the boys’ views of themselves. Choice B is incorrect because the description is that the boys are similar in appearance, so the fact that they can wear the same clothes supports rather than contradicts that description. Choice D is incorrect because there is no correlation between the same size clothes and the fact that the boys look more similar certain times than at other times.

5

Choice A is the best answer because “nature” represents Subhash’s personality, since he wondered if people thought he had a lack of inventiveness. Since Choice A means “personality” or “disposition,” it fits the context well.

None of the other choices fits the definition of “nature” as used in the context. Choice B means “effect” or “impact.” Choice C refers to surroundings. Choice D refers to physical rather than emotional makeup.

6

Choice B is the best answer because line 53 directly says that Subhash felt that his parents “did not favor him.” This shows that he felt that they preferred someone else, and it is logical to presume that the other person is the mischievous but beloved brother.

Choice A is incorrect because Subhash feels his parents mistake his self-restraint as a lack of creativity rather than a lack of action. Choice C is incorrect because there is no indication that the parents believe that they are weak. Choice D is incorrect because there is no hint of how the parents view the act of obeying them.

7

Choice C is the best answer because the main example of a transgression is when Udayan makes footprints in the wet cement by accident. He was warned to be careful but ignored what people told him to do.

Choice A is incorrect because the example of a “transgression” has nothing to do with public law. Choice B is incorrect because the example refers to a problem on the family’s property, so Udayan did not trespass in someone else’s place. Choice D is incorrect because avoiding wet cement is not a social custom.

8

Choice B is the best answer because the father says not to remove the footprints because they were “steps his son had taken,” (lines 84-85), implying that the son’s steps are important and are symbolic of an action. Since the passage refers to Udayan’s boldness and daring, it is reasonable to assume that those are the qualities symbolized by the footprints.

Choice A is incorrect because the father cherishes the footprints as something related to Udayan, so the footprints do not represent anything related to both sons. Choice C is incorrect because there is no reference to the father’s “lost youth.” Choice D is incorrect because the retelling of the story of the footprints alludes to Udayan’s boldness rather than teach a moral about virtue.

9

Choice C is the best answer because the passage ends by saying that the story of the footprints was told to visitors who noticed the footprints.

Choice A is incorrect because the exact origin—Udayan’s falling off the board—is well remembered. Choices B and D are incorrect because there is no indication that the story took on a moralistic tone; it was told to visitors as a tale of Udayan’s antics.

10

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that as time passed, the footprints took on the significance of a personal memory that one recounts to a new acquaintance. Choice D directly says that the family told the story to new visitors to their home.

Choice A is incorrect because it does not refer to the significance of the footprints as being a personal memory recounted to acquaintances. Choice B only describes why the footprints remained. Choice C shows how the father viewed the footsteps after they were made but does not show the significance they developed over time. There is no reference of telling the tale to others.

11

Choice C is the best answer because the second paragraph outlines the great need for judges to be impartial. The author highlights that judges have a life tenure and are free from retaliation about unpopular decisions (lines 17-19), indicating that retaliation or fear of losing a job might sway a judge’s decision.

All of the other choices are incorrect because there is no evidence in the passage to support them. None of the other topics are covered in Passage 1.

12

Choice B is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the purpose of the federal judiciary system would be undermined if judges were subject to reappointment or dismissal based on a review of their ruling. Choice B supports this answer because it shows that one of the important points for federal judges is that they cannot be dismissed due to unpopular decisions.

Choice A only says that judges should be neutral but does not indicate that the system would be undermined if judges could be dismissed due to unpopular decisions. Choice C is incorrect because it only says that judges should always act honorably. Choice D describes the purpose of the checks and balance system, which if anything, weakens the argument that others should not be able to respond to unpopular decisions.

13

Choice B is the best answer because lines 21-22 directly say that the Code forbids any action that has “the appearance of impropriety.”

None of the other choices are directly associated with the discussion of the Code of Judicial Conduct. Choice A is incorrect because the judge should not get any financial gains from rulings in the first place. Choice C is the opposite of the expected behavior. Choice D is something that judges should do but is not part of the description of the Code.

14

Choice A is the best answer because “function” is used in a sarcastic comment that equates the decision of a judge with what he ate the morning of the decision. In other words, the decision is the consequence of his meal. Since Choice A means “consequence,” it fits the context well.

None of the other choices show the way the decision relates to the meal. Choice B means “job,” but the decision is not the meal’s job. Choice C means “commemoration,” and Choice D means “reason,” but the decision is not the commemoration or reason of the meal.

15

Choice C is the best answer because Mazie offers Frank’s quote as a lighthearted introduction to his point that judges do not make impartial decisions; Frank’s quote takes the sarcastic view that the decisions are biased based on what the judges ate. However, Mazie uses that premise to springboard to Epstein’s research that says that decisions are indeed biased, though based on what party judges are affiliated with rather than what food they ate.

Choice A is incorrect because Mazie does not support a specific course of action; he cites a problem with the system. Choice B is incorrect because Frank is not used to endorse a theory; he is used as an amusing anecdote to introduce a delicate subject. Choice D is incorrect because Epstein offer a way to solve the problem of biased decisions.

16

Choice B is the best answer because “apply all too well” is used to emphasize the point that Frank’s sarcastic remark is actually fitting for today's Supreme Court. “Too” shows the extreme closeness between the cases.

Choices A and C are incorrect because Frank does not ask for anything in today's Supreme Court. Choice D is incorrect because Frank’s remark is not tangible or physical; it fits the situation metaphorically.

17

Choice D is the best answer because the final paragraph of Passage 2 highlights research that shows that an analysis of votes supports the claim that justices are “for or against ‘the speaker’s ideological enclave’” (lines 88-89). This research highlights a relatively new development, according to Mazie, because party affiliations have become a factor “only in recent decades” (line 58).

Choices A and B are incorrect because there is no reference to a “national consensus” or “shifting tone.” In particular, judges show no pro- or anti- first amendment bias. Choice C is incorrect because there is no allusion to “personal lives” other than party affiliation.

18

Choice C is the best answer because Passage 1 indicates that judges need to be completely free of political concerns so that all men and women can “stand equal, with their claims resolved solely on the strength of legal principles” (lines 44-45). Passage 2 addresses the concern that judges are biased based on their political party and equates it to the seemingly preposterous claim that judges make decisions based on what they ate. Such a comparison indicates that the bias should be avoided, too.

Choice A is incorrect because both passages imply that rather than precedent, pure law should dictate the decision. Choice B is incorrect because there is no reference to what should happen after a decision is made. Choice D is incorrect because the passages indicate that the values of the judges and government should not sway the decisions; the legal issue of right or wrong should prevail.

19

Choice B is the best answer because Marshall uses the referee as an image of someone who is not affiliated with any team, so a person who can decide a case based on the Constitution rather than personal bias. By contrast, Mazie uses Justice Robert’s quote about referees to highlight what Mazie feels is very hypocritical: the judge says he makes honest decisions but really makes decisions based on party values.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no reference to the cliché being overused. Mazie does not say it should be avoided, but rather cites it as a hypocritical statement. Choice C is incorrect because, while Marshall’s comparison is respectful, Mazie’s comparison is not scornful, only hypocritical. Choice D is incorrect because the image is not one of unity or decisiveness, it is one of fairness.

20

Choice D is the best answer because, while Mazie would agree that the idea is good in principle, it is not actually the case in the modern court system. He would assert that justices vote along their own political allegiance rather than along the lines of pure law.

Choice A is incorrect because Mazie introduces research that disproves the claim that justices are not biased. Choice B is incorrect because Mazie analyzes free-speech cases and shows that they are biased. Choice C is incorrect because he would probably say that Marshall’s view held truer in the past than in recent times.

21

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Mazie would most likely say that Marshall’s sentiment as given in lines 43-45 is contradicted by judges’ sympathetic treatment of litigants whose beliefs they endorse. Choice C says that three scientists show that justices “avidly go to bat,” in other words, support, people “they identify with.”

Choice A only says that justices weren’t as biased in the past. Choice B says that party affiliation is now related to case outcome but does not show that judges vote in favor of people whose opinions they endorse. Choice D is incorrect because it says that a survey was conducted but does not offer the results.

22

Choice D is the best answer because the passage describes what was known about seal behavior patterns, then outlines a study about seals and their relative fattiness. The end of the passage analyzes the results of and draws conclusions about that experiment, reinforcing the results with those from other studies.

Choice A is incorrect because only one theory is discussed in detail. Choice B is incorrect because the passage does not refer to a “standard approach;” it only outlines the methodology of Adachi’s experiment. Choice C is incorrect because the passage is about buoyancy, not migratory patterns.

23

Choice C is the best answer because the first two paragraphs give a general outline of behavior that is relevant to the discussion of why elephant seals need to store fat.

Choice A is incorrect because the information in the first two paragraphs is not compared to the information from the study; it just provides background, so the reader can understand why the research is important. Choice B is incorrect because no hypothesis is offered in the first two paragraphs. Choice D is incorrect because none of the information in the first two paragraphs conflicts with later data.

24

Choice A is the best answer because Paragraph 8 (lines 63-68) mention that it takes fatter seals more flipper strokes to make deep dives, but that there were many fewer strokes to ascend, so they saved energy. This implies that more flipper strokes mean that more energy is expended.

Choice B is incorrect because there is no indication that the number of strokes change the angle. Choice C is incorrect because the passage implies that more strokes means deeper swimming, as fatty seals are more inclined to float and need to expend energy to compensate for that when they swim downward. Choice D is incorrect because there is no correlation drawn between number of strokes and nutritional need.

25

Choice B is the best answer because “plain old” is usually used for emphasis to stress something’s simplicity. In this case, it shows that although binoculars are simple, they performed the required function adequately without the need to resort to fancy technological devices.

Choice A is incorrect because the study appears to rely on the data without any doubt about its accuracy. Choice C is incorrect because, although the binoculars are simple, they are not obsolete. They performed the desired task adequately. Choice D is incorrect because the nature of the tools used does not alter the goals of the experiments.

26

Choice B is the best answer because it specifically states that there is a relationship between the buoyancy and ability to dive. The relationship is inverse because the seals expend more energy—and make more flipper strokes—going down than going up.

Choice A is incorrect because it does not explain about energy expended while diving. Choice C refers to a hypothesis about swimming, but not about energy spent during dives. Choice D is incorrect because it refers to the length of the dive but not to ascending or descending.

27

Choice D is the best answer because “to cover distance” is a common idiom that refers to the amount of distance traveled.

All of the other choices are variations of “to cover,” but do not relate to how it is used in the idiom about distance.

28

Choice C is the best answer because Adachi partly believes that the seals keep gaining blubber because other research shows that elephant seals become positively buoyant (line 91). At the end of his experiment, they were neutrally buoyant. Therefore, if they were only neutrally buoyant at the end of their journey when they returned to breed, they would not have gained weight as expected.

Choice A is incorrect because the loggers stopped tracking at about the fifth month, so events in the first month of tracking do not relate to the time in question. Choices B and D would support the theory of gaining fat rather than undermine the theory.

29

Choice A is the best answer because the experiment only recorded the data from the seals up until about the fifth month when the loggers stopped tracking. Adachi can only theorize on the fattiness of seals after that point, so the theory is based on probability rather than empirical data.

Choice B is incorrect because the results were conclusive up to the point when the loggers stopped tracking. Any error in the theory is based on projections beyond that point rather than the sample size. Choice C is incorrect because the team used recent technology to log buoyancy; even the “plain old binoculars” were sufficient for the job of locating the seals so were not outdated. Choice D is incorrect because the extra information is used to confirm the theory, making it more solid.

30

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that Adachi’s theory might be challenged because the team was unable to study the elephant seals throughout their entire migration. Choice C points out that Adachi qualifies his theory by saying what he assumed would happen rather than what was actually observed.

Choice A sums up the theory rather than identifying a flaw in it. Choice B is a question about the theory, but it does not isolate a flaw in the study. Choice D is incorrect because it gives one point of data derived from other studies.

31

Choice B is the best answer because the lines support Adachi’s theory that the seals increase from neutral to positive buoyancy by saying that other researchers have found positively buoyant seals.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no different line of research given, only more data that supports the same idea. Choice C is incorrect because the results of other research are not critiqued or put down; it is used as support. Choice D is incorrect because the quoted lines contain no reference to elephant seals being unique.

32

Choice A is the best answer because the passage introduces two approaches to forecasting, the empirical model and the data-based model. After explaining how they work, the passage discusses the problems associated with each model. It even discusses a hybrid model that incorporates aspects of the two but points out that the hybrid model is also ineffectual.

Choice B is incorrect because the writer does not suggest combining the models. Choice C is incorrect because there is no reference to how the models have changed. Choice D is incorrect because the passage does not say that one model is more effective; it critiques both of them.

33

Choice C is the best answer because “seen and unseen” is used to describe the forces that affect economic output. This phrase indicates that some forces are known, or “seen,” whereas other forces are not recognized, or “unseen.”

Choice A is incorrect because there is no claim about different types of assumptions. Choice B is incorrect because the phrase refers to the forces affecting economic output, not the output itself. Choice D is incorrect because the approaches to evaluate the economy are not visible and invisible, respectively.

34

Choice D is the best answer because Paragraph 4 begins the discussion of drawbacks of the various systems, and the first drawback is that the models are based on “oversimplifications” (line 36) of how markets actually work.

All of the other choices are incorrect because they are not supported by any evidence from the passage. Choice A is incorrect because there is no reference to the relative difference between what companies think and the actual effect of households and firms. Choice B is incorrect because the economists know how many variables are used in their models. Choice C is incorrect because there is no mention of assumptions related to statistical problems.

35

Choice C is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that some economic models assume that individuals and companies act in ways that are more predictable that they truly are. Choice C paraphrases this idea by saying that the models use oversimplified views.

Choices A and D are incorrect because they do not refer to any assumptions about factors in the models, only the methodology of the model. Choice D indicates that there are problems but does not explain what those problems are.

36

Choice A is the best answer because the fourth paragraph discusses Mankiw’s view. It outlines the fact that there are “insurmountable statistical problems” (lines 40-41) because there are too many factors at play, so it is impossible to isolate how they really relate to each other.

Choice B is incorrect because Mankiw implies that all variables are important in some way, but it is not known how they react with one another. Choice C is incorrect because the passage implies that variables are constantly in flux. Choice D is incorrect because the passage indicates that data-based forecasts incorporate more variables than other methods.

37

Choice B is the best answer because line 49 uses “strong” to refer to a seemingly obvious relationship between variables. Line 64, on the other hand, uses “strong” to refer to trade growth that is vigorous.

Choice A is incorrect because the trade growth in line 64 is not trying to convince someone of something. Choice C is incorrect because line 49 does not refer to a relationship that is authoritative. Choice D is incorrect because line 64 does not refer to a fierce, severe growth.

38

Choice A is the best answer because “produce” is used in the context of making or generating forecasts that are applicable to different countries. Since Choice A means “make,” it fits the context well.

None of the other choices fits the context of the passage. Choice B refers to showing rather than making the forecasts. Choice C refers to making something occur rather than making the thing itself. Choice D means to make bigger or wider.

39

Choice D is the best answer because the lines say that economies which are doing well tend to slow down and vice versa. Therefore, it would not come as a surprise that nine of the ten economies that was doing well in 2009 slowed down and did not enter the top ten for 2014.

Choices A and B only talk about the level of accuracy of forecasts but not the economic trends, so do not explain why economists would not find the fact in the question prompt surprising. Choice C provides information that shows that forecasters would be surprised by the situation given in the prompt.

40

Choice A is the best answer because the column showing the mean absolute difference for 3 months before the forecast year is in the right-hand position. The top of that column is between 1 and 2, so Choice A is the best approximation.

None of the other choices are supported by the data in the graph. Choice B corresponds to the mean absolute difference for 9 months before the forecast year. Choice C is between the values for 15 and 21 months. Choice D does not represent any of the bars in the chart.

41

Choice D is the best answer because in the chart, the lowest mean absolute difference—showing the greatest accuracy—is for 3 months before the year forecast. The bars steadily get taller, meaning that there is greater difference or lower accuracy, for 9, 15, and 21 months.

Choice A is incorrect because the graph only gives the average difference in accuracy for all of the years, so it is unknown which years had the most accurate predictions. Choice B is incorrect because the rate of economic growth is not given for any institution, only the difference between predicted and actual growth. Choice C is incorrect because the chart only gives the absolute difference, so it is unknown whether the error was higher or lower than accurate. Furthermore, the predictions for 3 and 9 months were less than 2% different from the actual growth rates.

42

Choice A is the best answer because the research focuses on how well certain corn strains defend themselves against aphids and caterpillars. The passage concludes by stating that hybridization of plants with high resistance could lead to crop varieties that require fewer pesticides. Such plants would be very useful to farmers.

Choice B is incorrect because there is no indication that pesticides changed the plant resistance. Choice C is incorrect because the passage implies that specialized corn would be more effective in surviving in a specific climate. Choice D is incorrect because there is no indication that the defensive compounds were only identified in the given study. The passage implies that the compounds were recognized before, but the production of the compounds is now better understood.

43

Choice B is the best answer because the situation in lines 5-7 describes a trade-off in which defense against one danger leads to a weakness in another area. That situation is similar to the idea that tortoises defend against one danger with a hard shell but develop a weakness when it comes to mobility.

Choice A is incorrect because the situation in lines 5-7 does not refer to conserving energy or searching for food. Choice C is incorrect because it gives an example of a positive act that protects the animal rather than weakens it in some area. Choice D is incorrect because it refers to behaviors in a group rather than in an individual.

44

Choice C is the best answer because line 47 compares pristine plants to “previously nibbled ones.” Therefore, “pristine” must refer to plants that were not previously nibbled by caterpillars.

None of the other choices are supported by the contextual information in the comparison of pristine plants to ones that had been attacked by caterpillars.

45

Choice C is the best answer because the passage is discussing an experiment done with two varieties of corn. “Lines” is used in the context of saying that the experiment was repeated with seventeen other varieties of corn. Since Choice C means “varieties” it fits the context well.

All of the other choices can be eliminated because they refer to particular locations rather than species or varieties.

46

Choice B is the best answer because the initial hypothesis was that if a plant was attacked by one insect, then it would defend against that and lose resistance to a different insect. This hypothesis was partly confirmed, but other plants surprised the researchers because they had better aphid resistance if they had previously been chewed by caterpillars.

Choice A is incorrect because the results included some plant resistance to aphids that was not anticipated by the hypothesis. Choice C is incorrect because the initial hypothesis was clearly stated; however, it was only partially true. Choice D is incorrect because the initial hypothesis held true for some varieties of corn.

47

Choice D is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that the results of the experiment partially supported the initial hypothesis. Choice D gives three different results for plants eaten by caterpillars (increased aphids, reduced aphids, and no effect) in the experiments, but only the increased aphids group supports the initial hypothesis that aphids would flourish on plants that had previously been attacked by caterpillars.

All of the other choices explain the methodology of the experiment but do not address the initial hypothesis or results.

48

Choice A is the best answer because Paragraph 8 (lines 58-66) address the reason that different varieties of corn may have arisen. The proposed idea is that the varieties arose because farmers bred the corn to fight off the threats faced by the corn in different environments.

Choice B is incorrect because there is no reference to the nutritional value of any of the varieties of corn. Choice C is incorrect because the passage does not touch on quality. Choice D is incorrect because there is no indication that farmers documented the changes in their crops.

49

Choice D is the best answer because the columns for “no caterpillar exposure” are black, and the tallest of these columns is the fourth from the left, at 4.0 offspring per adult. The fourth set of columns is labeled CML103.

None of the other choices has a taller black column than CML103, so they can all be eliminated.

50

Choice B is the best answer because the black bars represent no caterpillar exposure and the grey bars represent caterpillar exposure. The height of the bars corresponds to aphid offspring, with the taller bar meaning more aphids. B73 is the farthest left-hand set of columns, and K13 is the second set from the left. Comparing these sets, the black bar for B73 is taller than the black bar for K13, ad the grey bar for B73 is shorter than the grey bar for K13.

Choice A is incorrect because both KY21 and W22 have a difference of about 1.5 offspring between the tests for exposure to caterpillars and no caterpillars, so they are not the same. Choice C is incorrect because, while Tx303 has the highest number of offspring for “caterpillar exposure,” it is lower than CML103 for the black bar for “no caterpillar exposure.” Choice D is incorrect because with caterpillar exposure, the number of aphids on CML103 is lower than for K13.

51

Choice A is the best answer because the eighth paragraph theorizes that variation between plants probably has to do with fighting off the pests that are prevalent in certain environments. Since the graph shows that B73 and K13 have similar aphid offspring produced for both exposure to caterpillars and not, it can be assumed that they are adapted to environments that are similar.

Choice B is incorrect because the passage implies that corn with certain characteristics is designed for a specific environment, so the species probably are common only in one certain range. Choice C is incorrect because neither the passage nor the graph delves into what constitutes a need for pesticides. Choice D is incorrect because the graph does not refer to evolution history at all, and the passage only says that evolution coincides with certain environments.

52

Choice B is the best answer because the answer to the previous question is that B73 and K13 probably would thrive in similar conditions. Choice B says that varieties arose to resist pests found in certain environments. Since B73 and K13 have similar pest resistance, they probably are found in similar environments.

Choice A refers to the chemicals that fight off the insects but does not explain why B73 and K13 probably would thrive in similar conditions. Choice C refers to an experiment not related to K13. Choice D gives a possibility related to insect resistance but does not explain why B73 and K13 probably would thrive in similar conditions.